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USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY > Firecracker > Flashcards

Firecracker Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is the main association with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Recurrent miscarriages and DVTs

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2
Q

What do HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors do?

A

They decrease the synthesis of cholesterol

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3
Q

Lesion of the superior gluteal nerve leads to tilting of the __________ side when standing on one leg.

A

contralateral

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4
Q

Patients with DiGeorge can have _______ spells.

A

cyanotic

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5
Q

What is unique about abscesses in hyper-IgE syndrome?

A

They lack neutrophils

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6
Q

Alport syndrome is ___________ (inheritance pattern).

A

X-linked dominant

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7
Q

Chronic pyelonephritis results in what histologic pattern?

A

Thyroidization due to proteinaceous accumulation in the tubules

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8
Q

Eosinophil casts are associated with what renal disease?

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

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9
Q

Chronic kidney disease tends to progress ___________.

A

slowly

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10
Q

Other than minimal change disease, what nephrotic syndrome can lead to effacement of podocyte processes?

A

FSGS

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11
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

A

Increased oxygen pressure leads to increased tendency of H+ to dissociate from hemoglobin. Increased proton concentration in the pulmonary blood vessels leads to increased CO2 (by the reaction catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase), leading to exhalation of CO2.

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12
Q

What changes in blood pressure do the carotid sinus baroreceptors and the aortic arch baroreceptors detect?

A

Aortic arch: increases only

Carotid: increases and decreases

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13
Q

What diseases does rituximab treat? What receptor?

A 
CD20
CLL
B-cell NHL
RA
ITP
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14
Q

Where does the vagus nerve exit the skull?

A

From the jugular foramen! (“Vaguely juggle four men”)

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of the -cyclovir drugs? What viruses do they treat?

A

The -cyclovirs are guanosine analogues; they work against HSV

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16
Q

Other than the flexor carpi ulnaris, what muscles does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

The medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus and hand muscles (palmar and dorsal interossessei; 3rd and 4th lumbricals; hypothenar; and adductor pollicis)

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17
Q

What enzyme moves pyruvate into mitochondria?

A

Pyruvate translocase; requires ATP

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18
Q

What media can culture M. tuberculosis?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

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19
Q

List the pharyngeal arches, their nerves, and their functions.

A

1st: V, muscles of mastication
2nd: Vll, facial expression muscles
3rd: IX, stylopharyngeus
4th: X, larynx

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20
Q

What three cardiac abnormalities are associated with Down syndrome?

A

VSD
ASD
AV septal defects

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21
Q

What compartment of the thigh is innervated by the femoral nerve?

A

The anterior/medial

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22
Q

What is the treatment for alkali poisoning?

A

Milk or water immediately–NPO after 30 minutes

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23
Q

What lab findings are suggestive of pyelonephritis?

A

Hematuria
Pyuria (neutrophils in the urine)
WBC casts in the urine
Leukocytosis

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24
Q

What kind of bacteria is Listeria monogytogenes?

A

Gram-positive facultative anaerobe

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25
Q

Dialysis can result in __________ amyloidosis.

A

beta-2 microglobulin

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26
Q

There is an enzyme that cleaves antibodies at the hinge region, leaving two identical F(ab) and one F(c) region. What is it called?

A

Papain

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27
Q

What is the lactose fermenting ability, oxygen requirement, and shape of E. coli?

A

+ lactose fermenter
Facultative anaerobe
Bacillus

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28
Q

Which immunoglobulin test will also provide patient hematocrit?

A

Direct, because the direct test just involves washing anti-IgG over a patient’s blood sample. Indirect tests take the patient’s plasma and insert RBCs into it along with anti-IgG.

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29
Q

How is amphetamine toxicity treated?

A

By acidifying the urine (such as with NH4Cl)

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30
Q

What enzyme does disulfiram inhibit?

A

Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

31
Q

The -azole drugs inhibit the fungal production of which cell-membrane constituent?

A

Ergosterol

32
Q

Dullness on the exam of a tuberculosis patient can indicate __________.

A

pleural effusion

33
Q

List the five most common encapsulated bacteria.

A 
Streptococcus
Neisseria
Hemophilus
Klebsiella
Salmonella
34
Q

In the G(q) pathway, what does DAG activate?

A

Protein kinase C

35
Q

What bacterial enzyme do sulfonamides inhibit?

A

Dihydropteroate synthase

36
Q

What are three mechanisms of bacterial resistance to sulfonamides?

A

Increased PABA synthesis (PABA being the substrate that competes with sulfonamides for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase)
Decreased uptake
Mutation in dihydropteroate synthase

37
Q

Which side (medial or lateral) of the meniscus is more commonly injured in acute ACLs and chronic ACLs?

A

Acute: lateral (like the lateral force that causes the acute ACL)
Chronic: medial

38
Q

What is the function of the styloglossus muscle?

A

Retract and elevate the tongue

39
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired heart disease in children in the developing world?

A

Kawasaki disease

40
Q

What is the typical presentation for medium-chain acetyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

Hypoketotic hypoglycemia, vomiting, and lethargy in an ill child

41
Q

What is the effect on filtration fraction in prerenal azotemia?

A

GFR and RBF both go down, but RBF goes down to a greater extent–leading to overall increased FF

42
Q

Which virus is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

A

HBV

43
Q

What are the most common cytogenetic abnormalities associated with childhood ALL and adult ALL?

A

Childhood: t(12;21)
Adult: t(9;22)

44
Q

What is the embryologic origin of the greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach?

A

The dorsal portion of the primitive stomach grows faster than the ventral portion, resulting in the typical asymmetry.

45
Q

List the three nerves of the brachial plexus and their ultimate destinations.

A

Lateral: musculocutaneous and median
Posterior: axillary and radial
Medial: ulnar and median

46
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

A

Renal biopsy demonstrating IgA deposition in the mesangium

47
Q

The biceps and brachialis muscles are both innervated by the _________ nerve.

A

musculocutaneous

48
Q

The triceps muscles are innervated by the _________ nerve.

A

radial

49
Q

What concomitant factor increases the likelihood of tendon rupture in someone taking a fluoroquinolone?

A

Prednisone use

50
Q

What interaction does Maraviroc inhibit?

A

gp120 (on a virus) binding to CCR5

51
Q

What two GI infections can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome in kids?

A

E. coli

Shigella dysenteriae

52
Q

Name three symptoms of Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

A

Fever
Blisters
Erythematous rash

53
Q

Individuals taking ________ can have false negative urease tests for Helicobacter pylori.

A

proton-pump inhibitors

54
Q

What is the full name and classification of diphtheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Gram-positive bacillus

55
Q

By what mechanism does diphtheria toxin affect cells?

A

ADP-ribosylating exotoxin

56
Q

What are some differences between endo- and exotoxins?

A

Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released when Gram-negative bacteria die. Exotoxins are substances secreted by living bacteria.

57
Q

The V/Q ratio is highest in the ________.

A

apex (top part of the lungs)

58
Q

What innervates the opponens pollicis?

A

The recurrent branch of the median nerve

59
Q

Other than tamoxifen, what is an estrogen receptor blocker?

A

Raloxifene

60
Q

What is a MAC infection? What CD4 counts increase risk?

A

Mycobacterium avium complex; low CD4

61
Q

What ligament prevents extreme inversion injuries?

A

The lateral ligament, which is composed of these three ligaments: calcaneofibular, anterior talofibular, and posterior talofibular

62
Q

Borrelia can cause relapsing fevers by __________.

A

switching antigens

63
Q

What are the inheritance patterns of hemophilias A, B, and C?

A

A (VIII) X-linked
B (IX) X-linked
C (XI) autosomal recessive

64
Q

All LDLs contain the apolipoprotein __________.

A

B-100

65
Q

Malignant cells avoid complement-lysis by upregulating ___________.

A

DAF

66
Q

What are four clinical features of ataxia-telangiectasia?

A

Ocular telangiectasia
Ataxia
Recurrent sinopulmonary infections due to lack of IgA
Lymphoid tumors and leukemias

67
Q

Bacteria frequently become resistant to macrolides by ______________.

A

post-transcriptional methylation of the 50S subunit

68
Q

What kind of cells are juxtaglomerular cells?

A

Modified smooth-muscle cells in the afferent arteriole

69
Q

Other than ANA, what autoantibodies are commonly found in those with lupus?

A

Anti-dsDNA

70
Q

Renal oncocytomas are generally __________. They can, however, present with ___________.

A

benign; abdominal mass, painless hematuria, or flank pain

71
Q

What disease does the CRAB mnemonic fit, and what does each letter signify?

A 
Multiple myeloma
Calcium (elevated) 
Renal failure
Anemia
Bone pains/lesions
72
Q

How does hydroxyurea work?

A

It inhibits the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase

73
Q

What artery enters the skull through the foramen spinosum?

A

Middle meningeal (a terminal branch of the external carotid)

USMLE Step 1: Part 1 COPY (243 decks)

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