Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

:] > Patient Care Review Questions > Flashcards

Patient Care Review Questions Flashcards

Ch. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, and 17

1
Q

X-rays were discovered in 1895 in:

A. the United States

B. England

C. Germany

D. China

A

c. Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The inventor of the hot cathode x-ray tube was:

A. Crookes

B. Roentgen

C. Coolidge

D. Edison

A

C. Coolidge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The majority of radiography education programs are based in/on:

A. colleges

B. clinics

C. hospitals

D. the Internet

A

A. colleges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A cassette containing a photostimulable phosphor plate is one form of:

A. fluoroscope

B. image receptor

C. grid device

D. transformer

A

B. image receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is not a basic requirement for the production of x-rays?

A. A vacuum

B. A source of electrons

C. A photostimulable phosphor

D. A target

A

c. a photostimulable phosphor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When fast-moving electrons collide with the target of an x-ray tube, the kinetic energy of their motion is converted into x-rays and:

A. a space charge

B. heat

C. potential difference (voltage)

D. scatter radiation

A

b. heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio waves

B. Gamma rays

C. Microwaves

D. Ultraviolet light

A

b. gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is not an accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays?

A. They can penetrate matter that is impenetrable to light.

B. They can be refracted by a lens.

C. They have an exposure effect on photographic emulsions.

D. They cannot be detected by the human senses.

A

b. they can be refracted by a lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The characteristic most often used to describe the energy of an x-ray beam is its:

A. velocity

B. space charge

C. wavelength

D. amplitude

A

c. wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An x-ray beam that has been attenuated by matter is called:

A. remnant radiation

B. primary radiation

C. secondary radiation

D. scatter radiation

A

a. remnant radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A device used to indicate the location of the radiation field and to control its size is called a:

A. grid

B. collimator

C. transformer

D. control console

A

b. collimator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An x-ray machine that permits viewing of the x-ray image in motion in real time is called a:

A. control console

B. fluoroscope

C. collimator

D. bucky

A

b. fluoroscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, kilovoltage, and:

A. optical density

B. source-image distance

C. object-image distance

D. image detail

A

b. source-image distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The prime factor that controls the wavelength of the x-ray beam is:

A. milliamperage

B. exposure time

C. kilovoltage

D. object-image distance

A

c. kilovoltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The prime factor that controls the rate at which x-rays are produced is:

A. exposure time

B. kilovoltage

C. milliampere-seconds

D. milliamperage

A

d. milliamperage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The mAs value of an exposure is varied to provide control of:

A. radiation intensity

B. image contrast

C. image detail

D. radiographic distortion

A

a. radiation intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The imaging system that provides an instantaneous digital image on a monitor is called:

A. digital radiography

B. computed radiography

C. film-screen radiography

D. anatomic programming

A

a. digital radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The hardware and software for managing digital images is called:

A. PACS

B. CR

C. DR

D. AEC

A

a. PACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following factors is not affected by a change in the mA setting?

A. optical density

B. anode heat

C. object-image distance

D. radiation intensity

A

c. object-image distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following factors is used to control image contrast?

A. mA

B. SID

C. OID

D. kVp

A

d. kvp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the:

A. mA

B. SID

C. T

D. kVp

A

b. SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called:

A. distortion

B. image contrast

C. definition

D. optical density

A

a. distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The product of dose in grays times the WR is equal to the equivalent dose, which in the SI system is measured in units called:

A. rem

B. roentgens

C. rad

D. sieverts

A

d. sieverts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

One centigray (cGy) is equal to:

A. 100 rad

B. 100 Sv

C. 1 rad

D. 1 R

A

c. 1 rad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that the sensitivity of cells to radiation injury depends on four principal factors. These factors are cell age, cell complexity, the rate of replication, and:

A. the rate of energy use by the cell

B. the cell’s location within the body

C. the rate at which the dose is delivered

D. the weight of the individual

A

a. the rate of energy use by the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Short-term, predictable radiation effects typically occur as a result of:

A. high doses of radiation exposure, such as those received in radiation therapy

B. low doses of radiation, such as those received in diagnostic imaging

C. occupational radiation exposure

D. low-dose exposure during pregnancy

A

a. high dose of radiation exposure, such as those received in radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The term radiation sickness refers to:

A. occupational radiation effects

B. congenital illness owing to genetic effects

C. short-term gastrointestinal effects

D. any stochastic effect

A

c. short-term gastrointestinal effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The effective dose-equivalent limit for whole-body occupational radiation exposure to nonpregnant radiation workers older than 18 years is:

A. 1.25 Gy per year

B. 5.0 Gy per year

C. 5.0 mSv per year

D. 50 mSv per year

A

d. 50 mSv per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Long-term radiation effects that are apparently random, and have no threshold amount of exposure that must be received for them to occur, are termed:

A. somatic

B. genetic

C. occupational

D. stochastic

A

d. stochastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Genes that are expressed in the individual are said to be:

A. mutated

B. dominant

C. random

D. recessive

A

b. dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is a type of personal radiation dosimeter?

A. SID

B. kVp

C. OSL

D. OID

A

c. OSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When a pregnant patient requires abdominal or pelvic radiography, the decision to do a limited study and the determination of the exact limitations to be imposed are the prerogatives of the:

A. patient’s physician

B. radiologist

C. patient

D. radiographer

A

b. radiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A moral agent is one who:

A. behaves correctly

B. is responsible for implementing an ethical decision

C. judges the morality of others

D. analyzes ethical dilemmas

A

b. is responsible for implementing an ethical decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

“A response in which understanding and compassion are accompanied by an objective detachment that enables you to act appropriately.” This phrase describes the characteristic of:

A. aggressiveness

B. assertiveness

C. empathy

D. sympathy

A

c. empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is not a component of ethical analysis?

A. Identifying the problem

B. Determining who is at fault

C. Developing alternative solutions

D. Defending your selection

A

b. determining who is at fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed:

A. malfeasance

B. malpractice

C. misdemeanor

D. malapropism

A

b. malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following statements about diagnostic images is true?

A. They do not need to be kept confidential because they do not contain written information.

B. They belong to the patient when they have been paid for by the patient or his or her insurance company.

C. They are part of the legal medical record.

D. They may be discarded or deleted as soon as the report has been sent to the patient’s physician.

A

c. they are part of the legal medical record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Arm and leg restraints applied without either the patient’s permission or a physician’s order could result in charges of:

A. false imprisonment

B. negligence

C. invasion of privacy

D. battery

A

a. false imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Standards of correct behavior for professional groups are called:

A. morals

B. codes of ethics

C. torts

D. regulations

A

b. code of ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A patient has the right to revoke consent with regard to a risky procedure:

A. before the procedure begins

B. during the procedure

C. after the procedure ends

D. both A and B

A

d. both a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Health care providers may disclose a patient’s protected health information without the patient’s consent to:

A. another physician providing care to the patient

B. the patient’s employer

C. the patient’s family

D. the news media

A

a. another physician providing care to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In which of the following states is there a law protecting a patient’s right to die with dignity?

A. Texas

B. Alaska

C. Oregon

D. Wyoming

A

c. oregon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior?

A. Forceful

B. Persuasive

C. Firm

D. Argumentative

A

c. firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When instructions are given to a non–English-speaking patient, it is best to:

A. speak English slowly and firmly

B. use a sympathetic family member who speaks English

C. draw detailed pictures

D. use a trained interpreter

A

d. use a trained interpreter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Deaf patients and hearing impaired patients differ in that the deaf patients:

A. will not respond to sounds outside their field of vision

B. may use ASL as their primary means of communication

C. often move socially within a deaf community

D. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When dealing with a hostile patient it is important to:

A. gain control of the situation with a loud, firm voice

B. use nonverbal behavior to show disapproval

C. limit confusion by dealing with the situation alone

D. ask for help before the situation escalates

A

d. ask for help before the situation escalates

47
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to individuals with decreased levels of consciousness?

A. They are not responsible for their actions or answers

B. They are likely to be violent when regaining consciousness

C. They cannot hear while unconscious

D. They do not need help going to the bathroom

A

a. they are not responsible for their actions or answers

48
Q

When dealing with preschool children, it is important to:

A. calm them by giving them many choices

B. let them know who is in charge

C. keep directions simple, direct, and honest

D. tell a crying child, “Stop that, or we can’t take all the pictures!”

A

c. keep directions simple, direct, and honest

49
Q

Grief caused by death or loss may be characterized by expressions of:

A. anger

B. denial

C. depression

D. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

50
Q

Cultural differences can result in differing perceptions of which of the following behaviors?

A. Eye contact

B. A casual hug

C. A loud, firm voice

D. All of the above

A

d. all of the above

51
Q

The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the following life stages?

A. Adolescence

B. Young adult

C. Middle adult

D. Old adult

A

c. middle adult

52
Q

Which of the following characteristics is not typical of adolescents?

A. They tend to move at a slower pace

B. They fear threats to their physical appearance

C. Modesty and privacy are of paramount importance

D. They are capable of understanding abstract concepts

A

a. they tend to move at a slower pace

53
Q

The most likely cause of a fire in an imaging department is:

A. spontaneous combustion

B. open flames

C. cigarette smoking

D. an electrical problem

A

d. an electrical problem

54
Q

The federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States is:

A. OSHA

B. ARRT

C. FDA

D. CCD

A

a. OSHA

55
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?

A. nitrile gloves

B. mop

C. kitty litter

D. plastic bags

A

b. mop

56
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire?

A. Assess the situation and direct the activities of others.

B. Evacuate the immediate area.

C. Report the fire using the proper procedure.

D. Reassure patients so that they do not become alarmed.

A

a. assess the situation and direct the activities of others

57
Q

The most common types of workplace disabilities reported by health care workers are:

A. vision problems

B. respiratory disorders

C. musculoskeletal disorders

D. allergies

A

c. musculoskeletal disorders

58
Q

MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of:

A. a fall

B. a fire

C. a chemical spill

D. an electrical problem

A

c. a chemical spill

59
Q

The study of workplace injury prevention is called:

A. body mechanics

B. ergonomics

C. environmental protection

D. material data safety

A

b. ergonomics

60
Q

Fires start when three elements occur in the same place at the same time. These three elements are oxygen, excessive heat, and:

A. electricity

B. water

C. fuel

D. smoke

A

c. fuel

61
Q

Eighty percent of imaging technologists experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist, if their area of specialization is:

A. sonography

B. radiography

C. computed tomography

D. magnetic resonance imaging

A

a. sonography

62
Q

Stress due to repetitive motion, overreaching, or maintaining the same positions for long periods causes:

A. back strain

B. vision problems

C. carpal tunnel syndrome

D. microtrauma to muscle tissue

A

d. microtrauma to muscle tissue

63
Q

A slider board or sliding mat can be used to:

A. evacuate the area

B. immobilize a child

C. facilitate a stretcher transfer

D. provide comfort on the x-ray table

A

c. facilitate a stretcher transfer

64
Q

When a patient arrives by wheelchair and cannot stand to get onto the x-ray table, which of the following methods is most appropriate?

A. Slider board transfer

B. Hydraulic lift

C. Face-to-face assist

D. Draw sheet transfer

A

b. hydraulic lift

65
Q

Patients who have not stood or walked since an accident, surgery, stroke, or heart attack should be transported by:

A. wheelchair

B. hydraulic lift

C. stretcher

D. slider board

A

c. stretcher

66
Q

When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from a sitting position, you should place your arms under the shoulders and:

A. knees

B. head

C. buttocks

D. waist

A

a. knees

67
Q

Infants and toddlers are usually transported in:

A. incubators

B. cribs

C. stretchers

D. wheelchairs

A

b. cribs

68
Q

A feeling of faintness or light-headedness that occurs with changes in body position after long periods of rest is termed:

A. orthostatic hypertension

B. orthostatic hypotension

C. secondary hypertension

D. momentary hypertension

A

b. orthostatic hypotension

69
Q

When an ambulatory patient has a weak leg as a result of a stroke or other condition, it is helpful to:

A. position the patient with the weak side against the bed or table

B. position yourself on the patient’s weak side

C. position yourself on the patient’s strong side

D. encourage the patient to lead with the weak leg

A

b. position yourself on the patient’s weakside

70
Q

Patients who have undergone which of the following procedures must not flex at the hips more than 90 degrees?

A. Knee replacement

B. Spinal surgery

C. Hip replacement via the anterior approach

D. Hip replacement via the posterior approach

A

d. hip replacement via the posterior approach

71
Q

Which of the following items is NOT useful for facilitating a stretcher transfer?

A. Slider board

B. Transfer belt

C. Sliding mat

D. Draw sheet

A

b. transfer belt

72
Q

When transferring a patient who is unable to assist with transfer to or from a stretcher, you should position the patient’s arms:

A. across the chest

B. at the sides

C. over the head

D. behind the body

A

a. across the chest

73
Q

Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as:

A pathogens

B. endospores

C. normal flora

D. parasites

A

c. normal flora

74
Q

Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on:

A. staining

B. oxygen requirements

C. shape

D. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

75
Q

Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of:

A. virus

B. bacteria

C. fungi

D. protozoa

A

b. bacteria

76
Q

Yeasts are one type of:

A. bacteria

B. mold

C. fungus

D. prion

A

c. fungus

77
Q

Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called:

A. endospores

B. gram-negative

C. cocci

D. facultative organisms

A

a. endospores

78
Q

Tuberculosis, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are diseases caused by:

A. fungi

B. prions

C. protozoa

D. bacteria

A

d. bacteria

79
Q

The term “reservoir of infection” refers to the:

A. place where the pathogen resides

B. method by which the pathogen enters the body

C. method by which the pathogen leaves the body

D. individual with reduced natural resistance to infection

A

a. place where the pathogen resides

80
Q

The term nosocomial applies to infections that are:

A. caused by viruses

B. hospital acquired

C. caused by normal flora in persons weakened by other diseases

D. transmitted by droplet contamination

A

b. hospital acquired

81
Q

An object that has been contaminated with a pathogenic organism is called a:

A. vehicle

B. fomite

C. vector

D. prion

A

b. fomite

82
Q

Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 μm or smaller are called:

A. droplet nuclei

B. droplet contamination

C. vehicles

D. fomites

A

a. droplet nuclei

83
Q

The immunity transferred from mother to child at birth or via breast milk is classified as:

A. natural resistance

B. acquired resistance

C. active immunity

D. passive immunity

A

d. passive immunity

84
Q

HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as:

A multidrug resistant

B. nosocomial

C. epidemic

D. bloodborne

A

b. nosocomial

85
Q

The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the United States is the:

A. CDC

B. WHO

C. OSHA

D. MRSA

A

a. CDC

86
Q

A gastrointestinal HAI that causes diarrhea and is caused by a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus is:

A. tuberculosis

B. hepatitis A

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Clostridium difficile

A

d. clostridium difficile

87
Q

Mucocutaneous Candida, disseminated herpes, cytomegalovirus, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are all examples of:

A. HAIs

B. multidrug-resistant infections

C. opportunistic infections associated with AIDS

D. airborne diseases

A

c. opportunistic infections associated with AIDS

88
Q

The risk of contracting HIV from a needlestick injury is:

A. 100% unless promptly treated

B. approximately 50%

C. 10% to 20%

D. less than 1%

A

d. less than 1%

89
Q

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis C

C. HIV/AIDS

D. C. difficile

A

a. Hepatitis B

90
Q

A particulate respirator is essential for protection from exposure to which of the following diseases?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Tuberculosis

C. HIV

D. Anthrax

A

b. tuberculosis

91
Q

Under the system of protective or neutropenic precautions, the “dirty” technologist touches the:

A. x-ray equipment

B. patient

C. covered image receptor

D. A and C

A

a. x-ray equipment

92
Q

Which of the following forms of hepatitis has no vaccine?

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Type D

A

c. type C

93
Q

What is the most likely mode of transmission for hepatitis A?

A. Airborne contamination

B. Droplet contamination

C. Vehicle or direct contact

D. Vector

A

c. vector

94
Q

It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients:

A. arrive in the imaging department

B. are ready to leave the imaging department

C. request a drink of water

D. are receiving intravenous fluids

A

c. request a drink of water

95
Q

When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to:

A. wear protective gloves

B. measure the quantity emptied

C. record the quantity in the chart

D. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

96
Q

Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit?

A. Supine

B. Prone

C. Trendelenburg

D. Lateral recumbent

A

d. lateral recumbent

97
Q

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:

A. bacteria on the skin

B. failure to keep warm

C. lack of adequate circulation

D. improper use of restraints

A

c. lack of adequate circulation

98
Q

What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet?

A. Sims

B. Trendelenburg

C. Fowler

D. recumbent

A

b. trendelenburg

99
Q

The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is:

A. debilitation

B. lordosis

C. incontinence

D. orthopnea

A

c. incontinence

100
Q

It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:

A. in the semi-Fowler position

B. with a bolster under the knees

C. prone

D. both A and B

A

d. both a and b

101
Q

A physician’s order is legally required order to:

A. raise the side rails on a bed or stretcher

B. immobilize a child for chest radiography

C. use a compression band to prevent a fall from the x-ray table

D. use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed

A

d. use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed

102
Q

Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of:

A. nonaccidental trauma

B. lordosis

C. incontinence

D. orthopnea

A

a. nonaccidental trauma

103
Q

Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse?

A. Incontinence

B. Bruises, abrasions, or burns

C. Forgetfulness

D. Confusion

A

b. bruises, abrasions, or burns

104
Q

While you are positioning Margaret Dunne for an upright chest radiograph, she collapses against you and slips to the floor. The first thing you should do is:

A. call a code.

B. “shake and shout.”

C. get the emergency drug box.

D. start CPR.

A

b. “shake and shout”

105
Q

John Gaffney is sitting in the waiting room waiting for his wife to get dressed after a radiographic examination. Mr. Gaffney looked well when he arrived at the department, but when you go to tell him that his wife will be out in a moment, you notice that he is pale, diaphoretic, and seems distracted. When you ask if he is all right, he says, “Gee, I don’t know. I can’t seem to get my breath.” Which of the following actions is not appropriate?

A. Help him to lie down

B. Call for help

C. “Shake and shout”

D. Check for a diabetic identification bracelet

A

c. “shake and shout”

106
Q

A patient who reports that he feels as if the room is spinning is experiencing:

A. a heart attack.

B. hypoglycemia.

C. postural hypotension.

D. vertigo.

A

d. vertigo

107
Q

Epistaxis is another name for:

A. a seizure.

B. a nosebleed.

C. syncope.

D. angina

A

b. a nosebleed

108
Q

While taking radiographs on a trauma patient, you should be especially alert for signs of:

A. absence.

B. syncope.

C. hypoglycemia.

D. shock.

A

d. shock

109
Q

Shock resulting from blood loss is called:

A. hypovolemic shock.

B. septic shock.

C. cardiogenic shock.

D. neurogenic shock.

A

a. hypovolemic shock

110
Q

Which of the following treatments is appropriate when a patient is experiencing syncope?

A. The administration of sweet fruit juice

B. Assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet

C. Use of an AED

D. Call a code and begin CPR

A

b. assist the patient to lie down and elevate the feet

111
Q

When a diabetic patient has taken the usual dose of insulin, but has not eaten, he or she may feel faint and weak and may show signs of sweating and tremors. The term for this condition is:

A. diabetic coma.

B. hyperglycemia.

C. hypoglycemia.

D. epistaxis.

A

c. hypoglycemia

112
Q

CVA is the abbreviation for a term that refers to:

A. a stroke.

B. a heart attack.

C. a type of seizure.

D. a type of fracture.

A

a. a stroke

113
Q

When a patient experiences a seizure, your priority is to:

A. keep him or her safe.

B. call for help.

C. finish the examination.

D. restrain the patient.

A

a. keep him or her safe

:] (101 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions