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Patient Care Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

define neutropenic patient

A
  • people with an abnormally low concentration of neutrophils (white blood cells)
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2
Q

what procedures are done when dealing with patients who are being isolated?

A
  • it requires two radiographers
  • there is a “clean” and a “dirty” worker
  • the “dirty” worker is the only person who will touch the patient
  • the “clean” member deals with the equipment
  • the “clean” member does not have direct contact with the patient
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3
Q

what are some airborne precautions?

A
  • reduce the risk of transmitting infected particles
  • wear specific respirators
  • Patients under airborne precautions are placed in rooms with negative airflow and special air circulation
  • Door must always remain closed
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4
Q

what are some droplet precautions?

A
  • reduce the contact of large particles through mouth and nose from the person who is sick
  • prevent the transmission of disease (such as influenza, pneumonia, and diphtheria)
  • must wear surgical masks
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5
Q

define C. difficile

A
  • a gastrointestinal infection that causes diarrhea.
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6
Q

define norovirus

A
  • gastrointestinal infection causing diarrhea, stomach pain, vomiting
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7
Q

define rotavirus

A
  • gastrointestinal infection causing diarrhea
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8
Q

define adenovirus

A
  • a group of viruses that causes mild to severe infection, infecting mainly the respiratory tract
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9
Q

define MRSA

A
  • methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
  • results from sharing needles, living in crowded settings, poor hygiene
  • skin and soft-tissue infections
  • These pathogens are very difficult to treat, and intensive infection control is required to limit their spread
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10
Q

define VRE

A
  • vancomycin-resistant enterococci
  • These pathogens are very difficult to treat, and intensive infection control is required to limit their spread.
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11
Q

define strains of E.coli

A
  • bacteria that is commonly found in lower intestines of warm blooded organisms
  • some strains can cause food poisoning
  • raw/undercooked hamburger meat
  • can results to bloody diarrhea
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12
Q

define cycle of infection

A
  • factors involved in the spread of disease
  • reservoir of infection
  • portal of exit
  • susceptible host
  • portal of entry
  • means of transportation
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13
Q

define reservoir of infection

A
  • any place a pathogen can takeover
  • the place must provide moisture, nutrients, and a suitable temperature -> all found in the human body
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14
Q

define portal of exit

A
  • any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions, or secretions leave the body
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15
Q

define susceptible host

A
  • patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection
  • very vulnerable to the infection
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16
Q

define portal of entry

A
  • microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host
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17
Q

define means of transportation

A
  • transporting the organism from the reservoir to the susceptible host
  • direct/indirect contact
  • fomites
  • vectors
  • vehicles
  • droplets
  • airborne
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18
Q

define direct/indirect contact

A
  • host is touched by an infected person and that the organisms are placed in direct contact with susceptible tissue
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19
Q
  • define fomite
A
  • An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms
  • inanimate object holding the infection
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20
Q

define vector

A
  • an arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious to a new host
  • Transmitting a disease from one organism to another
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21
Q

define vehicle

A
  • any medium that transports microorganisms
  • Water
  • Drugs
  • blood
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22
Q

define droplet

A
  • infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks, or signs in the vicinity of a susceptible host
  • contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth of a susceptible person with large droplets containing
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23
Q

define airborne

A
  • dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei.
  • They can remain suspended in the air for long periods
  • particles may be dispersed by air currents and may be inhaled by a susceptible host
  • Tuberculosis (TB)
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24
Q

define autoclave

A
  • the quickest and most convenient means of sterilization for items that can withstand heat and moisture.
  • most common and most effective method for most surgical instruments and trays.
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25
Q

define medical asepsis

A
  • reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual.
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26
Q

define sterilization

A
  • treating items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ-free
27
Q

define disinfection

A
  • involves the destruction of most of the pathogens by using chemical materials
28
Q

define sharps handling

A
  • Used needles and syringes are placed in a special container called a sharps container
    designed to receive the syringe without recapping it
29
Q

what organization requires sharps handling?

A
  • OSHA
  • for safer medical devices, reduces the high number of needle sticks that previously occurred when workers had greater contact with unprotected sharps.
30
Q

define hand washing

A
  • Handwashing with soap and water is still recommended to physically remove spores from the surface of contaminated hands.
31
Q

define nosocomial infection

A
  • hospital-acquired infection or health care–associated infection
  • also known as HAI
32
Q

define material safety data sheets

A
  • also known as MSDS
  • for all hazardous materials be on file and easily accessible to personnel.
  • indicate the required equipment and procedure for safe handling in the event of a spill (for spills)
33
Q

define patients right

A
  • Patient rights include proper care, information about care and those providing care, respect for their privacy, the right to consent to or refuse specific procedures, and access to certain documents
  • The patient also has a right to information, including the names and qualifications of those providing their care, and the risks involved in any anticipated procedures. Patients are entitled to copies of their billing records, medical records, and diagnostic images.
34
Q

define HIPAA

A
  • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
    protect the privacy rights of patients
  • It requires hospitals to provide protection for patients concerning the release of individual financial and medical information without their written consent.
  1. The patient must receive a clear, written explanation of how the health provider may use the disclosed information.
  2. The patient will be able to see, and copy records, and request amendments.
  3. A history of routine disclosures must be available to the patient.
  4. Health care providers must obtain consent before sharing routine information on treatment, payment, and health care operations. Separate authorization is needed for non-routine disclosures and non-health purposes.
  5. Patients have the right to request restrictions on the use and disclosure of their information.
  6. Patients may file complaints with a provider or with the HHS about any violations of these rules.
35
Q

define slander

A
  • often applied to verbal communication
  • refer to the malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation
36
Q

define libel

A
  • refers to written information
  • refer to the malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation
37
Q

define assault

A
  • the threat of touching in an injurious way
  • If the patient feels threatened and is made to believe that he or she will be touched in a harmful manner
38
Q

define battery

A
  • unlawful touching of a person without consent
39
Q

define moral

A
  • knowing between right and wrong (personal - comes from family, religion, etc.)
40
Q

define ethnic

A
  • behaviors that fall within the accepted principles of right and wrong (society)
41
Q

what is res ipsa loquitur

A
  • “the thing speaks for itself”
42
Q

define false imprisonment

A
  • the unjustifiable detention of a person against his or her will.
  • This becomes an issue when the patient wishes to leave and is not allowed to do so
43
Q

define invasion of privacy

A
  • when confidentiality has not been maintained or when the patient’s body has been improperly and unnecessarily exposed or touched
44
Q

List the ARRT code of ethics

A
  1. The radiologic technologist acts in a professional manner, responds to patient needs, and supports colleagues and associates in providing quality patient care.
  2. The radiologic technologist acts to advance the principal objective of the profession to provide services to humanity with full respect for the dignity of mankind.
  3. The radiologic technologist delivers patient care and service unrestricted by the concerns of personal attributes or the nature of the disease or illness, and without discrimination on the basis of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, familial status, disability, sexual orientation, gender identity, veteran status, age, or any other legally protected basis.
  4. The radiologic technologist practices technology founded on theoretical knowledge and concepts, uses equipment and accessories consistent with the purpose for which they were designed, and employs procedures and techniques appropriately.
  5. The radiologic technologist assesses situations; exercises care, discretion, and judgment; assumes responsibility for professional decisions; and acts in the best interest of the patient.
  6. The radiologic technologist acts as an agent through observation and communication to obtain pertinent information for the physician to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the patient and recognizes that interpretation and diagnosis are outside the scope of practice for the profession.
  7. The radiologic technologist uses equipment and accessories, employs techniques and procedures, performs services in accordance with an accepted standard of practice, and demonstrates expertise in minimizing radiation exposure to the patient, self, and other members of the healthcare team.
  8. The radiologic technologist practices ethical conduct appropriate to the profession and protects the patient’s right to quality radiologic technology care.
  9. The radiologic technologist respects confidences entrusted in the course of professional practice, respects the patient’s right to privacy, and reveals confidential information only as required by law or to protect the welfare of the individual or the community.
  10. The radiologic technologist continually strives to improve knowledge and skills by participating in continuing education and professional activities, sharing knowledge with colleagues, and investigating new aspects of professional practice.
  11. The radiologic technologist refrains from the use of illegal drugs and/or any legally controlled substances which result in impairment of professional judgment and/or ability to practice radiologic technology with reasonable skill and safety to patients.
45
Q

deifine the ARRT code of ethics

A
  • The Code of Ethics establishes broad principles of professional conduct
46
Q

define sympathy

A
  • feeling pity for someone. Feeling sadness
47
Q

define empathy

A
  • to show concern and care. Understanding (sharing someones feelings) how someone feels
48
Q

what are some patient challenges when communicating?

A
  • hearing impaired
  • deafness
  • impaired vision
  • inability to speak
  • impaired mental function
  • altered state of consciousness
49
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who is hearing impaired?

A
  • Get the patient’s attention before starting to speak.
  • Face the person, preferably with light on your face.
  • Hearing loss is frequently in the upper register, so speak lower as well as louder.
  • Speak clearly and at a moderate pace. Do not shout.
  • Rephrase when you are not understood.
  • Allow the patient who wears a hearing aid (and glasses) to retain it as long as possible, and give all instructions before the aid is placed in a safe location.
50
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who is deaf?

A
  • The deaf person has the right to request a specific interpreter, if available, and to have an interpreter replaced if communication is not proceeding well
51
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who has impaired vision?

A
  • Some patients prefer to follow you by listening to your footsteps and using a cane, whereas others may wish to place a hand on your shoulder or elbow.
  • The person with recently failing vision and good hearing may need much verbal explanation and reassurance.
52
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who has the inability to speak?

A
  • often helpful to ask the nursing staff how they have been able to communicate with the patient. Some patients are able to write.
  • Many can indicate by a nod or shake of the head whether - they understand your directions.
  • handheld electrolarynx
  • Esophageal speech
  • Transesophageal puncture (TEP)
53
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who has impaired mental function?

A
  • In general, the same clear, simple, and direct instructions offered to children are appropriate.
  • You may need to repeat instructions if the attention span is short.
  • treat them like an adult
54
Q

what are some alternatives to help someone who has an altered state of consciousness?

A
  • They cannot be relied upon to remember instructions.
  • They are not responsible for their actions or answers.
  • Any patient with decreased level of consciousness must be kept under constant and close observation
  • it is important to refer to unconscious patients by name and to reassure them about your actions.
55
Q

define aggressiveness

A
  • anger or hostility
56
Q

define assertiveness.

A
  • calm, firm expression of feelings or opinions
57
Q

define ageism

A
  • discriminatory attitude toward the elderly that includes a belief that all elderly are ill, disabled, worthless, and unattractive.
58
Q

what are the stages of greif?

A
  • denial
  • anger
  • bargaining (easily submit, defeated)
  • depression
  • acceptance
59
Q

define valid choice

A
  • alternatives, all of which are acceptable to you.
    “Would you prefer to sit where you can see down the hall or over by the window?”
    Giving them some options reassures them that they have some sort of control
60
Q

define NPO

A
  • nothing by mouth
61
Q

define TID

A
  • three times a day
62
Q

define orthostatic hypotension

A
  • When a person’s blood pressure drops when they stand up or sit down
    a mild reduction in the oxygen supply to the brain that occurs with changes in body position and may cause them to feel light-headed or faint when rising suddenly.
63
Q

define BID

A
  • twice a day
64
Q

define a gait belt

A
  • Also known as transfer belt
  • Used when helping patients who are weak or unsteady
  • Helps the patient to stand and walk
  • Is a heavy fabric strap with a strong buckle

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