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:] > Core - Ch. 20, 21, and 22 notes > Flashcards

Core - Ch. 20, 21, and 22 notes Flashcards

1
Q

define professionalism

A

the application of specialized knowledge for the benefit of others

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2
Q

define morals

A

right or wrongs

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3
Q

define values

A

priority placed on various moral concepts

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4
Q

define ethics

A
  • rules that apply values and moral standards of actions
  • appropriate behavior
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5
Q

Define Code of Ethics

A
  • no bias
  • protect patient’s right to protective care
  • use care and discretion in decision making and accept responsibility for decisions
  • protect everyone from radiation exposure
  • patient’s privacy and confidentiality
  • serve to improve knowledge and skills
  • no use of illegal drugs
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6
Q

what are the steps to analyze problems

A
  1. identify the problem
  2. develop alternative solutions
  3. select the best solution
  4. defend the solution (observe results and discuss for any improvements)
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7
Q

define tort

A

a civil wrong committed by one individual against the person or property of another

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8
Q

what is an example of a tort?

A

a patient suing their doctor for malpractice

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9
Q

list the patient’s rights

A
  • considerate and respectful care
  • information
  • privacy
  • confidentiality
  • informed consent
  • right to refuse
  • death with dignity
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10
Q

what details need to be on a radiograph to identify the image?

A
  • name
  • date
  • medical number
  • institution identity
  • correct markers (L or R)
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11
Q

violations of local institutional standards means

A

failure to maintain proper credentials

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12
Q

list intentional misconduct

A
  • assault
  • battery
  • false imprisonment
  • invasion of privacy/breach of confidentiality
  • libel and slander
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13
Q

define assault

A

the threat of touching in an injurious way

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14
Q

what’s an example of assault?

A

“if you don’t do this, I am going to hit you”

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15
Q

define battery

A

unlawful touching of a person without their consent

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16
Q

what’s an example of battery?

A
  • touching the femur, when the exam is for the shoulder
  • doing an x-ray on the incorrect body part
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17
Q

define false imprisonment

A

unjustifiable detention of a person against their will

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18
Q

what’s an example of false imprisonment?

A
  • locking the patient in the room
  • when a patient needs to have their legs taped. after the exam is over, the radiographer does not release them, rather than untapping the legs immediately
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19
Q

define libel

A

Malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation. Libel is written

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20
Q

define slander

A

Malicious spreading of information that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation. Slander is verbal

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21
Q

list unintentional misconduct

A
  • malpractice
  • negligence
  • gross negligence
  • contributory negligence
  • corporate negligence
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22
Q

define malpractice

A

when a patient in injured dur to error caused by the health provider

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23
Q

what’s an example of malpractice

A
  • error in diagnosis
  • insufficient communication with the patient
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24
Q

define negligence

A

Neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution.

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25
Q

what’s an example of negligence

A

Two patient identifiers were not checked before beginning a procedure and the wrong patient was x-rayed.

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26
Q

define gross negligence

A

A negligent act that involves “reckless disregard for life or limb”

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27
Q

what’s an example of gross negligence

A

performing professional services while intoxicated

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28
Q

define contributory negligence

A

which the behavior of the injured party contributed to the injury

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29
Q

what’s an example of contributory negligence

A

A patient is injured in a fall after being instructed not to get up from a chair.

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30
Q

define corporate negligence

A

When the hospital as an entity is negligent

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31
Q

what’s an example of corporate negligence

A

Health care worker suffers from hepatitis B after a needlestick because there is no established protocol in the organization to ensure reporting and treatment in this situation.

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32
Q

how can negligence be reduced?

A
  • maintaining professional competence
  • complying with workplace policies and procedures
  • correct charting
  • proper communication
  • maintain patient confidentiality
  • treat patient and co-workers with respect
  • be cautious when performing procedures
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33
Q

define “res ipsa loquitur”

A

the thing speaks for itself

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34
Q

what’s an example of “res ipsa loquitur”

A

the doctor amputates the wrong leg

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35
Q

define respondeat superior

A
  • let the master respond
  • the employer is liable for the actions of the employee
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36
Q

define borrowed servant

A

an employer is held liable for actions of a temporary employee

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37
Q

what are the 7 C’s to prevent malpractice?

A
  1. competence
  2. compliance
  3. charting
  4. communication
  5. confidentiality
  6. courtesy
  7. caution
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38
Q

how can one show professional behavior?

A
  • practice self care
  • neat, clean, professional appearance
  • positive attitude
  • team player
  • maintain the work environment, including supplies and equipment
  • acquire new skills and continue education
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39
Q

list professional communications

A
  • non verbal
  • verbal
  • listening
  • validating
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40
Q

how should one speak when in a stressful situation?

A
  • speak slowly and clearly
  • speak in a normal tone of voice
  • be nonjudgemental
  • remain calm
  • make sure the listener understands you
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41
Q

how should one speak to patients?

A
  • address by surname
  • provide opportunities to make choices
  • provide clear instructions
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42
Q

how should one communicate with coworkers?

A
  • do not discuss patients and their medical information unless there is a need to know
  • relay messages accurately and quickly
  • respond to voice mail promptly
  • send a cover sheet with all faxes
  • contact fax recipient by phone prior to sending faxes with confidential imformation
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43
Q

how should one speak with people from different cultures?

A
  • provide an interpreter as appropriate
  • use demonstrations or sketches
  • be considerate of differences related to touch and modesty
  • remember that gestures such as nodding may have different meanings in different cultures
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44
Q

how should one speak to someone with hearing impairment?

A
  • talk to the person
  • get the patient’s attention before speaking
  • face the person, preferably with light on the face
  • speak lower and louder
  • speak clearly at a moderate pace
  • avoid noisy background situations
  • rephrase when you are not understood
  • be patient
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45
Q

what are some signs that the patient is deaf?

A
  • Does not respond to noises or words spoken out of the range of vision
  • Uses lip movements without making a sound or speaks in a flat monotone
  • Points to the ears and mouth while shaking the head in a negative motion
  • Uses gestures or writing motions to express the need for paper and pencil
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46
Q

how can one aid a person with vision impairment?

A
  • the patient listening to your footsteps and using a cane
  • placing a hand on your shoulder
  • arm around their waist while verbally reassuring them
  • verbal explanations and reassure
  • quick descriptions and obstacles in a room
  • read written material for them
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47
Q

define aphasia

A

defect or loss of language function in which comprehension or expression of words is impaired as a result of injury to language centers of the brain

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48
Q

what are some alternative artificial speech devices that patient’s use in order to communicate with others?

A
  • handheld electrolarynx
  • esophageal speech
  • transesophageal puncture (TEP)
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48
Q

define electrolarynx

A

places on the external throat wall and operates by amplifying vibrations transmitted through tissues of the neck

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49
Q

define esophageal speech

A
  • patient swallows air and regurgitates it
  • low on volume
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50
Q

define transesophageal puncture (TEP)

A

a prosthesis is placed within the neck through a stoma

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51
Q

how should one speak to patients who are mentally impaired?

A
  • clear, simple, and direct instructions
  • may need to repeat instructions
  • treat with respect and dignity
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52
Q

what are two points to remember about patients who are drowsy or in a stupor?

A
  • they cannot be relied upon to remember instructions
  • they are not responsible for their actions or answers
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53
Q

when can patients who lost consciousness respond appropriately?

A

when they regain consciousness

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54
Q

what are some factors that cause patients to react, respond, and cooperate when unconscious?

A
  • injury
  • illness
  • medication
  • alcohol
  • drugs
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55
Q

An important factor that is frequently overlooked in hospitals is the ability of many patients to ____________________ that occurred while they were apparently unconscious

A

hear and remember conversations

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56
Q

it is important to refer to unconscious patients by ____________ them about your actions.

A

name and to reassure

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57
Q

what are the 5 stages of grief?

A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
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58
Q

define denial

A

the grieving person refuses to accept the truth and may refuse to discuss the possibility of loss or death.

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59
Q

define anger

A
  • the person experiences the frustration of helplessness and a feeling of outrage at the apparent injustice of the loss.
  • Rage may be vented on family, friends, and health care workers.
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60
Q

define bargaining

A
  • the person seems to be attempting to earn forgiveness or mitigation of the loss by being “very good.
  • “make this not happen, and in return I will ____”
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61
Q

define depression

A

depressed person is often acquiescent, quiet, and withdrawn, and may cry easily.

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62
Q

define acceptance

A

the person accepts the loss or impending death and deals with life and relationships on a more realistic, day-to-day basis.

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63
Q

define charting

A

the process of adding any information to a chart or to a document that will be incorporated into a chart

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64
Q

what does a patient’s chart consist of?

A
  • patient’s history, diagnosis, and prognosis
  • medications
  • treatments
  • laboratory results
  • radiology reports
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65
Q

should factual or opiniated comments be charted on a patient’s chart?

A

facts only

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66
Q

legal chart documents can either be

A

paper or computerized

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67
Q

entries to paper charts must be

A
  • accurate, pertinent, and legible
  • must include the date, time, and statement of what occurred
  • signature of the person making the entry
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68
Q

what are some rules when filling out a paper chart?

A
  • to delete any entry, draw a line through the error. Do not erase, scratch, or use white out
  • always initial and date corrections
  • never leave blanks. write N/A or 0
  • never insert loose or gummed slips of paper
  • always include the year when you are dating written materials
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69
Q

what are some details about radiographic images and their medical record?

A
  • the images belong to the facility at which they were made
  • depending on the state, images need to be kept for 5-7 years
  • when requested, it can be loaned with a record kept of the borrower’s name and address and the date loaned
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70
Q

what are some precautions that need to be taken when there is a fire

A
  • ensure fuel, oxygen, and heat do not occur at the same time
  • be familiar with the facility fire plan and know fire alarm and extinguisher locations
  • keep doorways and corridors clear
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71
Q

what are some cases that can cause a fire?

A
  • spontaneous combustion
  • open flames
  • cigarette smokers
  • electricity
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72
Q

what must be done in case of a fire?

A

be calm and perform RACE

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73
Q

define RACE

A

R - Rescue: move patients to a safe area
A - Alarm: report the fire
C - Contain: close doors, and shut off oxygen
E - Evacuate/Extinguish: if the fire is small, put it out with an extinguisher. if the fire is not small, evacuate the area.

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74
Q

what are the different types of fires?

A
  • Class A Fire
  • Class B Fire
  • Class C Fire
  • Class D Fire
  • Class K fire
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75
Q

remember to use an extinguisher appropriate to the _______

A

type of fire

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76
Q

When there is a fire, the acronym PASS is useful. What does PASS mean?

A

P - pull the pin
A - aim the nozzle at the base of the fire
S - squeeze the handle
S - sweep. use a sweeping motion from side to side to prevent the fire from spreading

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77
Q

what are some electrical safety rules?

A
  • All electrical equipment and appliances must be approved for hospital use.
  • Follow equipment manufacturers’ instructions.
  • Equipment used on or near patients or near water must have grounded plugs.
  • Inspect equipment regularly, paying attention to cords and plugs. Arrange for repairs as needed.
  • Do not overload circuits by connecting too many devices to a single outlet or outlet group.
  • Unplug or turn off electrical equipment before exposing internal parts.
  • Do not attempt to repair equipment unless you are trained to do so.
  • Use only extension cords approved for the intended purpose.
  • In case of electrical fire, use a class C or carbon dioxide fire extinguisher.
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78
Q

what are some rules to avoid falls or collisions?

A
  • keep walkways clear
  • store items properly and use a step stool or ladder to reach high items
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79
Q

what steps need to be done when a spill has occurred?

A
  • Limit access to the area.
  • Evaluate the risks involved.
  • Determine whether you have both the equipment and the expertise to clean up the spill safely.
  • If you can proceed safely, clean up the spill immediately.
  • If you lack the necessary skill or equipment, call your supervisor or the appropriate department.
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80
Q

define ergonomics

A

the study of the human body in relation to the working environment for the purpose of preventing injuries

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81
Q

define body mechanics

A
  • The principles of proper body alignment, movement, and balance
  • prevent body strains
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82
Q

what are the rules of body mechanics?

A
  • Provide a broad base of support.
  • Work at a comfortable height.
  • When lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straight
  • Keep your load well balanced and close to your body
  • Roll or push a heavy object. Avoid pulling or lifting
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83
Q

what three concepts are essential to understand the principles of body mechanics?

A
  1. base of support
  2. center of gravity
  3. line of gravity
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84
Q

using proper mechanics helps avoid:

A
  • back strain
  • shoulder strain
  • rotator cuff tears
  • neck injury
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85
Q

define base of support

A

the portion of the body that is in contact with the floor

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86
Q

define center of gravity

A

where weight is balanced. usually in the pelvic or abdomen area

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87
Q

define line of gravity

A

This is an imaginary vertical line passing through the center of gravity. The body is most stable when the line of gravity bisects the base of support.

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88
Q

define immobilization

A

methods preventing undesired motions during imaging procedures

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89
Q

what are some examples of immobilization?

A
  • sandbags
  • safety straps
  • compression bands
  • tape
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90
Q

what must be done if an accident has occurred?

A

report and write an incident report for any occurrence resulting in patient injury

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91
Q

define restraints

A

used to restrict patient movement to ensure safety

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92
Q

what are some examples of restraints?

A
  • wrist/ankle bands
  • vest with straps
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93
Q

an important thing about physical restraints is that-

A

they require a physician’s order

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94
Q

define cycle of infection

A

the factors involved in the spread of disease

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95
Q

what factors are needed for infections to be transmitted in the cycle of infection?

A
  • infectious organisms
  • a reservoir of infection
  • portal of exit
  • susceptible host
  • portal of entry
  • a means of transporting the organism from the reservoir to the susceptible individual
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96
Q

what are different types of microorganisms?

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • protozoa
  • prions
  • fungus
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97
Q

define normal flora

A

Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing infections or diseases

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98
Q

define pathogens

A

Microorganisms that cause infections and diseases

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99
Q

define bacteria

A
  • very small, single-celled organisms with a cell wall and an atypical nucleus that lacks a membrane
  • asexual reproduction
  • does not need a host to reproduce
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100
Q

define viruses

A
  • smallest known disease-causing organisms
  • cannot survive independently
  • Require a host to reproduce
  • can mutate rapidly, becoming resistant to drugs that originally effected them
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101
Q

what are some examples of bacteria?

A
  • TB
  • strep throat
  • flesh eating bacteria
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102
Q

what are some examples of viruses?

A
  • epstein barr virus
  • varicella = chicken pox, shingles
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103
Q

define fungus

A
  • occur as yeast or mold
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104
Q

define yeast

A
  • a type of fungi that reproduces by forming buds
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105
Q

define mold

A

a type of fungi that reproduces by spore formation

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106
Q

what are some examples of fungus?

A
  • athletes foot
  • ringworm
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107
Q

define prions

A
  • do not have DNA or RNA
  • can transform health cells into prions
  • originated from mad cow’s disease, which can be spread to others when consuming infected meat
  • resistant to the body’s natural defenses
  • can continue to multiply, causing neurologic damage
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108
Q

define protozoa

A
  • complex single celled animals that generally exist as free-living organisms
  • can be motile or nonmotile
  • can infect the GT tract, genitourinary, respiratory, and circulatory systems -
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109
Q

what are some examples of protozoa?

A

amebiasis, giardiasis, trichomoniasis

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110
Q

define infectious organisms

A
  • pathogenic organisms
  • pathogens attach to their specific cell, excreting a protein (toxin) to kill or injure the host cell
  • destroy RBC, WBC
  • activate enzymes to spread infection through the body
  • some carry virulence factors, which masks its identity to the host cell and resist destruction by the WBC
111
Q

can normal flora be pathogenic?-

A
  • if taking out of its designates area, yes.
    ex.) E. coli is normal flora in the GI tract, but can become pathogenic if it enters the bladder
112
Q

define reservoir of infection

A
  • any place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat.
  • the environment must provide moisture, nutrients, and a suitable temperature, all of which are found in the human body
113
Q

define portal of exit

A

any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions, or secretions leave the body

114
Q

define susceptible host

A
  • are patients who have a reduced natural resistance to infection
  • weak immunity
115
Q

define portal of entry

A

the route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host

116
Q

list the six main routes of transportation (for a pathogen)

A
  • direct/indirect
  • fomite
  • vectors
  • vehicles
  • droplet
  • airborne
117
Q

define direct contact

A
  • touched by an infected person
  • kissing
  • sexual intercourse
118
Q

define fomite

A

an inanimate object that contains the disease

119
Q

what is an example of fomites?

A
  • IR
  • bucky
  • table
120
Q

define vectors

A
  • an arthropod who carries the disease
  • an arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infectious to a new host.
  • Bites by infected insects can transmit diseases to humans.
121
Q

what are examples of vectors?

A
  • mosquitos that carry malaria
  • ticks that carry Lyme disease
122
Q

define vehicle

A

any medium that transports microorganisms

123
Q

what are examples of vehicles?

A
  • food
  • water
  • drugs
  • blood
124
Q

define droplet contamination

A
  • an infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings in the vicinity of a susceptible host.
125
Q

define airborne contamination

A
  • dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei.
  • They can remain suspended in the air for long periods -
  • particles may be dispersed by air currents and may be inhaled by a susceptible host.
126
Q

what are examples of droplets?

A
  • influenza
  • meningitis
  • streptococcal pneumonia
127
Q

what are some examples of airborne contamination?

A
  • TB
  • rubeola
  • varicella
128
Q

what is the route of transmission for Hep C?

A

contact with blood or blood products

129
Q

what is the route of transmission for Hep A and E?

A

food and water contaminated with feces

130
Q

what is the route of transmission for Hep B?

A
  • contaminated blood, blood products, or needles
  • body fluids such as saliva, semen, and vaginal secretions
131
Q

which hepatitis is the most dangerous for health care workers, that they offer a vaccination for?

132
Q

define HAI

A
  • hospital acquired infections
  • also known as nosocomial infections
133
Q

examples of HAI?

A
  • contaminated hands
  • contaminated instruments
  • urinary catheters
134
Q

what should be done when there is a needle stick incident?

A
  • let it bleed under cold water and then wash with soap and water
135
Q

what should be done when thereis a splash incident?

A

rinse with water

136
Q

standard precautions in volves use of barriers to prevent contact with:

A
  • blood
  • body fluids, including wound drainage
  • secretions and excretions
  • nonintact skin
  • mucous membranes
137
Q

list the standard precautions to avoid pathogens

A
  • hand hygiene
  • use of PPE
  • respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette
  • sharps safety
  • safe injection practices
  • sterile instruments and devices
  • clean and disinfected environmental surfaces
138
Q

define asepsis

A

process of reducing the probability of transmission

139
Q

what are some methods of medical asepsis?

A
  • cleanliness or proper cleaning, linen handling, and handwashing
  • disinfection
  • sterilization
140
Q

define disinfection

A

destruction of pathogens by chemical agents

141
Q

define sterilization

A

treating items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free

142
Q

hand hygiene should be performed before and after:

A
  • work
  • meals
  • patient contact
  • donning and removing gloves
  • using the bathroom
143
Q

how should one handle a contaminated linen?

A
  • fold edges toward the middle and place in designated container
144
Q

how should one handle a contaminated disposable item?

A
  • use once only
  • follow facility protocol for disposal
145
Q

how should one handle waste?

A

place objects contaminated by blood or body fluid in a biohazard container

146
Q

define sterile field

A

germ free area containing sterile supplies and equipment

147
Q

how can one maintain sterile field?

A
  • never reach across the field or pass between it and the physician
  • never leave the sterile field unattended
  • discard any items suspected of contamination
148
Q

how does one remove a dressing?

A
  • perform hand hygiene
  • don gloves
  • inform patient of procedure
  • carefully remove dressing
  • place soiled dressing in proper disposal container
  • remove glass and perform hand hygiene
149
Q

how does one apply a dressing?

A
  • prepare needed materials
  • inform patient of procedure
  • perform hand hygiene
  • open dressing package and add sterile dressing
  • don gloves
  • if appropriate, clean wound and allow to dry
  • apply dressing and secure with tape
  • dispose of waste properly
  • remove gloves and repeat hand hygiene
150
Q

what are some airborne precautions?

A
  • using rooms with negative pressure and HEPA filtration
  • ensuring the room has at least six air exchanges per hour
  • hand hygiene
  • wear a fit tested N-95 mask or higher before entering the room
  • keep door closed
151
Q

what are some droplet precautions?

A
  • wearing a mask and eye protection before entering the room
152
Q

what are some contact precautions?

A
  • wear fluid resistant gown that covers the whole body
  • wear gloves before entry
  • remove gloves before exit of room
  • use disposable equipment
  • clean and disinfect reusable equipment
153
Q

define history taking

A

provides new or updates patient information

154
Q

information from history taking may include-

A
  • nature of the problem
  • onset
  • duration
  • specific location
  • quality of pain
  • factors that aggravate or alleviate condition
155
Q

when examining the patient, observe for changes in:

A
  • lip color, nail beds, and skin
  • temperature and moistness of skin
  • level of consciousness
156
Q

list vital signs:

A
  • temperature
  • pulse
  • respiration
  • blood pressure
157
Q

when is the temperature of a person the lowest, and when is the highest?

A

lowest - morning
highest - evening

158
Q

what is the normal oral range temperature?

A

96.8-99.6 degrees Fahrenheit

159
Q

what is the normal range for rectal temperature?

A

99.6-100.6 F

160
Q

what is the normal range for axillary temperature?

A

96.6-98.6 F

161
Q

which area is more accurate to check the patient’s temperature?

162
Q

what is the normal adult range of pulses?

A

60-100 BPM

163
Q

what are common areas to look for pulses?

A
  • radial artery
  • carotid artery
  • pedal artery
164
Q

what is the normal adult range of respirations?

A

12-20 breaths/minute

165
Q

what is the normal adult range for blood pressure?

166
Q

define systolic

A

the top number for BP
- when heart contracts

167
Q

define diastolic

A

the bottom number for BP
- when heart relaxes

168
Q

define hypotension

A

low blood pressure
- 90/60

169
Q

define hypertension

A

high blood pressure

170
Q

what is the normal pressure range for diastolic?

171
Q

what is the normal pressure range for systolic?

172
Q

define suction

A

used when patient is unable to clear mouth and throat secretions, blood, or vomitus

173
Q

before using a suction, make sure equipment:

A
  • pump is working
  • receptable is connected to pump
  • adequate tubing connects suction catheter to pump
  • assortment of disposable suction catheters available
174
Q

define syncope

175
Q

how should one respond to someone in syncope/fainting?

A
  • ease patient to recumbent position or Trendelenburg
  • use spirits of ammonia if needed
176
Q

define angina pectoris

A

chest pain due to the lack of blood supply to the heart

177
Q

how should one respond to someone with angina pectoris?

A
  • treat with nitroglycerin tablets
178
Q

define myocardial infarction

A

heart attack

179
Q

what does the patient feel during an MI?

A
  • sudden pain in chest, left arm, or jaw
  • may lead to cardiac arrest or stoppage of the heart
180
Q

define CVA

A
  • cerebro vascular accident
  • stroke
181
Q

what are symptoms of CVA?

A
  • may be sudden or gradual onset
  • may include headache, dizziness, muscle weakness, deviation of one eye, slurred speech
182
Q

what are some warning signs of CVA?

A
  • FAST
    F - face droop
    A- arm weakness
    S - speech difficulty
    T - time to call for emergency assistance
183
Q

how can you evaluate a stroke?

A
  • ask the patient to smile, say a simple sentence, or make them raise both arms to see if there is any falter in one arm
184
Q

define asthma

A

difficult breathing caused by bronchospasm (constriction of bronchi)

185
Q

how can asthma be treated?

A

treat with patient’s inhaled bronchodilation medication

186
Q

define bronchial obstruction

A

blockage of air passageways caused by a foreign object
- may lead to respiratory arrest or cessation of breathing

187
Q

how can bronchial obstruction be treated?

A

treat with Heimlich maneuver

188
Q

head trauma can result in-

A
  • seizures
  • loss of consciousness
  • respiratory arrest caused by swelling or bleeding within the skull
189
Q

what are some levels of consciousness when it comes to head trauma?

A
  • alert and conscious
  • drowsy but responsive
  • unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli
  • comatose
190
Q

what should one do when dealing with a fracture?

A
  • maintain gentle traction when positioning a fractured extremity
  • support body part above and below fracture
191
Q

what should one do when applying a new cast?

A
  • use open hands to lift cast from underside
  • observe fingers or toes for evidence of impaired circulation
192
Q

what should one do when dealing with someone going through a seizure?

A

stay with the patient and protect from injury. do not try to restrain

193
Q

what should one do when dealing with a drug reaction?

A
  • may be moderate or severe
  • treat according to presenting symptoms
194
Q

what should one do when there is a diabetic emergency?

A
  • if the patient is hyperglycemic, call physician, administer sugar free liquids if conscious
  • if the patient is hypoglycemic, provide a small amount of of fruit juice or prepared glucose
195
Q

define type 1 diabetes

A
  • the body does not produce enough insulin
  • can occur at the ages of 0-40
  • an autoimmune disease
  • requires insulin to live
196
Q

what are some symptoms of type 1 diabetes?

A
  • increased thirst and urination
  • weight loss
  • fatigue
  • fruity smelling breath
  • irritability
  • blurred vision
  • slow healing sores or frequent infections
197
Q

are there any ways to prevent Type 1 diabetes?

A
  • there is no way to prevent it
198
Q

what are some treatments for type 1 diabetes?

A
  • insulin injections
  • blood sugar checks
  • healthy eating and meal planning
  • increase physical activity
199
Q

define type 2 diabetes

A
  • the body cannot use insulin properly
  • usually ages 40+
  • insulin resistance can lead to elevated blood sugars
200
Q

what are some symptoms for type 2 diabetes?

A
  • increased thirst and urination
  • weight loss
  • fatigue
  • blurred vision
  • slow healing sores or frequent infections
201
Q

are there any ways to prevent type 2 diabetes?

A

can be prevented by eating healthy and staying active

202
Q

what are some treatments for type 2 diabetes?

A
  • healthy eating and meal planning
  • increased physical activity
  • oral medication may be needed
  • blood sugar checks
  • insulin injections (sometimes)
203
Q

what should you first do when using an AED?

A

turn it on

204
Q

what should you do when using an AED?

A

listen to all the instructions given

205
Q

how deep should you press down when doing compressions to an adult and child?

206
Q

how deep should you press down when doing compressions to an infant?

A

1.5 inches

207
Q

what should you do when person is unresponsive before performing CPR?

A
  • call 911 and instruct someone to find an AED
208
Q

how should compressions be performed when administering CPR?

A
  • push 2 inches deep
  • perform 30 compressions per minute
  • tilt chin up and place hand on forehead
  • pinch their nose, and cover their mouth with yours
  • check the chest rising for every breathing you give
  • repeat cycle
209
Q

what should you do when someone is hyperventilating?

A
  • tell them to breathe slowly
  • let them breath into a paper bag
210
Q

define vertigo

211
Q

define postural hypotension

A

when blood pressure drops when you stand up from laying down or sitting up, causing instant dizziness

212
Q

what should one do when the patient faces vertigo or postural hypotension?

A

support the patient

213
Q

define epistaxis

A

nose bleed

214
Q

what should one do when the patient has epistaxis?

A

squeeze the nasal septum for 10 seconds

215
Q

what should one do when the patient is nauseous or vomiting?

A

have patient take short, rapid/long, slow and deep breaths through the mouth

216
Q

define anapylaxis

A

severe allergic reaction

217
Q

what are the symptoms of anaphylaxis in the lungs?

A
  • coughing
  • shortness of breath
  • wheezing
  • chest pain
  • difficulty swallowing
218
Q

what are the symptoms of anaphylaxis on the skin?

A
  • hives
  • swelling
  • itchiness
  • widespread redness
219
Q

what are the symptoms of anaphylaxis in the stomach?

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • stomach pain/cramps
220
Q

what are the symptoms of anaphylaxis in the heart?

A
  • faint
  • pale or blue color
  • dizziness
  • weak pulse
  • shock
  • loss of consciousness
221
Q

what are the symptoms of anaphylaxis in the brain?

A
  • anxiety
  • confusion
  • headache
  • feeling that something is about to happen
222
Q

define erythema

A

redness of the skin

223
Q

define cyanosis

A
  • blue pigment of the skin
  • lack of O2
224
Q

define rickets

A
  • vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate deficiency
  • affect the bones to become very weak
225
Q

define paget’s disease

A

chronic bone disorder that causes the bones to become very weak

226
Q

what are different types of shock?

A
  • hypovolemic/hemorrhagic
  • septic
  • cardiogenic
  • neurogenic
  • anaphylactic
227
Q

define hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock

A

decreased volume of water, whole blood, or plasma

228
Q

what causes hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock?

A
  • hemorrhage
  • burns
  • dehydration
  • diabetes
229
Q

define septic shock

A
  • systemic infection that leads to multiple organ dysfunction, decreased organ perfusion, and hypotension
230
Q

what causes septic shock?

A
  • gram-negative bacteria
  • malnutrition
  • alcohol abuse
  • surgery
  • multiple blood transfusions
231
Q

define cardiogenic shock

A
  • cardiac output is insufficient to meet metabolic needs
  • results in inadequate tissue perfusion
232
Q

what causes cardiogenic shock?

A
  • MI
  • congestive heart failure
  • massive pulmonary embolus
233
Q

define neurogenic shock

A

damage to the spinal cord that inhibits transmission of neural stimuli

234
Q

what causes neurogenic shock?

A
  • spinal cord injury
  • autonomic nervous systems toxins
  • spinal anesthesia
235
Q

what causes anaphylactic shock?

A

food, insect bites, and medication

236
Q

define diaphoresis

A

excessive sweating/perspiration
- cold sweats

237
Q

define uticaria

A

bumps that break out with allergic reaction

238
Q

define BMI

A

body mass index

239
Q

what is the normal BMI range?

240
Q

what causes diaphoresis

A
  • anxiety
  • shock
  • syncope
  • hypoglycemia
241
Q

define a transverse fracture

A

a horizontal fracture of a bone

242
Q

define linear fracture

A

a vertical fracture of the bone

243
Q

define oblique non-displaced fracture

A

a broken bone where the pieces are still aligned and haven’t moved too far out of place.

244
Q

define oblique displaced fracture

A

a diagonal break in a bone where the ends are not aligned.

245
Q

define a spiral fracture

A

bone is broken with a twisting motion. They create a fracture line that wraps around your bone and looks like a corkscrew.

246
Q

define greenstick fracture

A
  • a partially broken bone
  • incomplete fracture
  • broken only on one side
247
Q

define comminuted fracture

A
  • broken bone that is in several pieces
  • bone can stick out through the skin
248
Q

how much should the kVp increase when the cast is small to medium plaster

A

increase 5-7 kVp

249
Q

how much should the kVp increase when the cast is a large plaster cast

A

increase 8-10 kVp

250
Q

how much should the kVp increase when the cast is a fiberglass cast

A

increase 3-4 kVp

251
Q

how much should the kVp increase when the cast is wet plaster?

A

increase 8-10 kVp

252
Q

how much should the kVp increase when the cast is dry plaster?

A

increase 5-7 kVp

253
Q

define foosh injury

A

falling on outstretched hands

254
Q

what are the common types of foosh injuries?

A
  • smitch fracture
  • die-punch fracture
  • chauffeur fracture
  • colles fracture
  • bartons fracture
255
Q

what are the different types of paralysis?

A
  • monoplegia
  • hemiplegia
  • paraplegia
  • quadriplegia
256
Q

define monoplegia

A

affects only one arm or leg

257
Q

define hemiplegia

A

affects one arm and one leg on the same side of the body

258
Q

define paraplegia

A

affects both of the legs

259
Q

define quadriplegia

A

affects both arms and legs

260
Q

define analgesics

A

pain killers

261
Q

define opiods

A

a drug used to reduce moderate to severe pain

262
Q

list some examples of opiods

A
  • oxycodone
  • hydrocodone
  • morphine
263
Q

what is diphenhydramine

A
  • benadryl
  • used for allergic reactions
264
Q

what are the types of injections?

A
  • subcutaneous injection
  • intramuscular injection
  • intravenous injection
  • intraosseous injection
  • intradermal injection
265
Q

define subcutaneous injection

A
  • delivering medication into the layer of fat just under the skin
266
Q

what angle is SC (subcutaneous) done?

A

45 degrees

267
Q

define intramuscular injection

A

delivers medication in the muscle

268
Q

what angle is IM (intramuscular) done?

A

90 degrees

269
Q

define intravenous injection

A

delivers medication directly to the veins

270
Q

what angle is IV done?

A

25 degrees

271
Q

define intraosseous injection

A

delivers medication into the bone marrow

272
Q

define intradermal injection

A

delivers mediation in between the layers of the skin

273
Q

what angle is intradermal done?

A

10-15 degrees

274
Q

what are potential implications of injections?

A
  • infection
  • reaction
  • pain
  • administration error
  • needlestick injury
275
Q

how can we safely administer injections?

A
  • good hand hygiene
  • clean environment
  • prepare medications in clean conditions
  • special skin cleaning
    -immediately dispose needles in designated sharps container
  • look out for any reactions/side effects
276
Q

define parenteral nutrition

A
  • a method of delivering nutrients directly into a vein to treat malnutrition
  • directly inject a specific body part without “guessing” if the correct spot was pierced

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