Digital chapters 7-8 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the prime factors for radiographic exposure?

A
  • mA
  • exposure time (sec.)
  • kVp
  • SID
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2
Q

what factors does mA control?

A
  • radiographic density
  • quantity of x-rays produced
  • controlled by adjusting the mA
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3
Q

what is the relationship between quantity of exposure and mA?

A

direct

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4
Q

what factors does exposure time control?

A
  • radiographic density
  • quantity of x-rays produced
  • controlled by adjusting the timer in an x-ray circuit
  • duration of exposure
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5
Q

what is the relationship between quantity of exposure and exposure time?

A

direct

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6
Q

what factors does kVp control?

A
  • radiographic density
  • x-ray penetration
  • quantity and quality of the x-ray beam
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7
Q

increased kVp results in _____ quantity of photons

A

increased

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8
Q

increased kVp results in ______ penetration of the body part

A

increased

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9
Q

SID affects the-

A

density and intensity of the x-ray beam

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10
Q

what is the relationship between quantity of exposure and the square of the distance (SID)?

A

inversely proportional

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11
Q

which factors affect x-ray quantity?

A
  • mA
  • exposure time
  • mAs
  • kVp
  • SID
  • Filtration
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12
Q

what factors affect x-ray quality?

A
  • kVp
  • filtration
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13
Q

what factors affect both x-ray quantity and quality?

A
  • kVp
  • filtration
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14
Q

if mA is doubled, quantity exposure-

A

doubles

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15
Q

if mA is reduced by 50%, quantity exposure is-

A

halved

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16
Q

what is the relationship between mA and patient exposure?

A

direct
- if mA doubles, patient exposure doubles

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17
Q

define mAs

A

the total quantity of x-rays in an exposure

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18
Q

what is the formula to find mAs?

A

mA x time = mAs

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19
Q

the unit mA is the _____ controller of radiographic density

A

primary

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20
Q

kVp is the ____ controller of the penetration of x-rays

A

primary

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21
Q

kVp is the _____ controller of radiographic contrast

A

primary

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22
Q

high kVp produces ____ contrast

A

low

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23
Q

low kVp produces ____ contrast

A

high

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24
Q

what’s low contrast

A
  • densities are harder to distinguish between tissues
  • more shades of gray (long-scale)
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25
Q

what’s high contrast

A
  • densities are more noticeable
  • less shades of gray (short-scale)
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26
Q

define SID

A
  • source to image distance
  • distance between the tube target and the IR
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27
Q

SID affects the _____ of the x-ray beam and the quantity of x-rays

A

intensity

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28
Q

define the inverse square law

A

the intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance

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29
Q

what is the formula of the inverse square law?

A

I2/I2 = D2^2/D1^2

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30
Q

what are the four primary factors that directly affect how an image looks?

A
  • density
  • contrast
  • distortion
  • spatial resolution
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31
Q

which two factors are considered photographic properties?

A

density and contrast

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32
Q

what two factors are considered geometric properties?

A

distortion and recorded detail

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33
Q

define density

A

the overall blackness or darkness of the radiographic image.

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34
Q

when an image is too dark, it is said to be-

A

over-exposed
- too much black

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35
Q

when an image is too light, it is said to be-

A

underexposed
- very light, more whites

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36
Q

define tissue density

A

the mass density of the body part

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37
Q

why is bone seen white on an image?

A

it has an increased tissue density, absorbing more of the primary beam

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38
Q

increased radiographic density means that the image is -

A

darker

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39
Q

decreased radiographic density means that the image is-

A

lighter

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40
Q

what is the relationship between radiographic density and tissue density?

A

inverse

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41
Q

brightness is also known as ____. Though brightness is used in digital imaging

A

density

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42
Q

define contrast

A

difference in radiographic density between adjacent portions of the image
- makes the anatomy more visible

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43
Q

when an image has low contrast, they appear

A
  • a flat, gray appearance
  • cannot tell the difference between adjacent tissues
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44
Q

when an image has high contrast, they appear-

A
  • more black and gray
  • contain some areas that are very dark and others that are very light
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45
Q

define optimum contrast

A

sufficient differences in density to easily make out details in all portions of the image

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46
Q

what contrast is needed for a hand x-ray?

A

high contrast
- short scale

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47
Q

what contrast is needed for a chest x-ray?

A

low contrast
- long scale

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48
Q

a decrease in kVp causes _____ contrast

A

high
- short scale

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49
Q

an increase in kVp causes ____ contrast

A

low
- long scale

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50
Q

define subject contrast

A

the range of differences in the intensity of the x-ray beam after it has been attenuated by the patient

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51
Q

define fog

A
  • unwanted exposure to the radiographic image
  • overall increase in density that causes all parts of the image to appear as though seen through a gray veil.
  • causes areas that would otherwise be bright or white to appear gray.
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52
Q

what causes fog?

A

scatter radiation

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53
Q

define distortion

A

geometric property and refers to differences between the actual subject and its radiographic image
- unequal magnification of different portions of the same object.

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54
Q

define digital imaging

A

is the process of acquiring images of the body using x-rays, displaying them digitally, and viewing and storing them on a computer and in computer files

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55
Q

define Computed radiography

A
  • cassette based
  • the image of the body part is obtained using a cassette that contains a storage phosphor plate
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56
Q

the CR cassettes are often referred to as

A

imaging plates (IP)

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57
Q

the imaging plate in CR contains what type of phosphor?

A

photostimulable phosphor (PSP)

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58
Q

the PSP is made out of-

A

barium fluorohalide with europium

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59
Q

what are the 2 types of distortion?

A
  • shape distortion
  • size distortion
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60
Q

define size distortion

A
  • always in the form of magnification enlargement
  • dealing with SID and OID
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61
Q

define magnification

A

It is a function of the relationship between the SID and the distance between the subject and the IR (OID)

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62
Q

how do we reduce magnification?

A

keeping OID to a minimum, and increasing SID

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63
Q

what happens when we increase OID?

A

magnification will occur
- the body part will be bigger (than what it actually is)

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64
Q

define shape distortion

A
  • result of unequal magnification of the actual shape of the structure
  • can occur with angulation, poor positioning, incorrect CR angle, and IR angulation
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65
Q

how do we reduce shape disortion?

A

keeping the IR and body part parallel, and keeping the CR perpendicular to both

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66
Q

What are 2 types of shape distortion?

A
  • foreshortening
  • elongation
67
Q

define foreshortening

A

projects the part so it appears shorter than it really is

68
Q

define elongation

A

projects the object so it appears longer than it really is.

69
Q

what factors affect size distortion?

A

SID and OID

70
Q

what factors affect shape distortion?

A
  • alignment
  • CR
  • part
  • IR
  • CR angulation
  • direction
  • degree
71
Q

define spatial resolution

A

the sharpness of the image, and is more casually referred to as resolution, sharpness, definition, or simply detail
- determines whether the image appears sharp or blurred.

72
Q

what factors affect spatial resolution?

A
  • patient motion
  • OID
  • SID
  • focal spot
73
Q

poor resolution can make the image appear-

A

blurry or fuzzy

74
Q

what factors control the formation of an image?

A
  • SID
  • OID
  • focal spot size
75
Q

define umbra

A

anatomic area/body part/structure shown in the radiographic image

76
Q

define penumbra

A

the “unsharp edges” of the umbra, or body part
- blur or geometric unsharpness
- shadow on the edges of the image

77
Q

how do we reduce blurriness in an image

A

reduce penumbra as much as possible

78
Q

define focal spot

A
  • The rectangular area of the target where the electrons strike
  • where x-ray photons are emitted
79
Q

what are the two types of focal spot?

A
  • large focal spot
  • small focal spot
80
Q

what is the size of the large focal spot?

81
Q

what is the size of the small focal spot?

82
Q

the smaller the focal spot, the-

A

the less penumbra and greater spatial resolution

83
Q

the larger the focal spot, the-

A

the more penumbra and less spatial resolution

84
Q

how does OID affect penumbra and spatial resolution?

A
  • when OID decreases, penumbra decrease, and spatial resolution increases
  • when OID increases, penumbra increases, and spatial resolution decreases
85
Q

how does SID affect penumbra and spatial resolution?

A
  • when SID increases, magnification and penumbra decreases, and spatial resolution increases
  • when SID decreases, magnification and penumbra increases, and spatial resolution decreases
86
Q

which focal spot is desirable?

A

small focal spot

87
Q

define motion

A

any movement during radiography will cause blurring of the image, reducing spatial resolution

88
Q

what are factors that causes motion?

A
  • patient movement
  • IR movement
  • x-ray tube movement
89
Q

what are 2 different types of patient movement?

A
  • voluntary
  • involuntary
90
Q

define involuntary motion

A

movements over which the patient has no control

91
Q

what are some examples of involuntary motion?

A
  • tremors
  • peristalsis
  • heartbeats
92
Q

define voluntary motion

A

normally controllable, although certain patients may be unable to control themselves

93
Q

how can one avoid motion?

A

Effective communications with both adults and children are key in avoiding motion
- Immobilization devices

94
Q

how do we control incoluntary motion?

A

use a short exposure time (high mA)

95
Q

define quantum mottle

A

a grainy or mottled (spotty) image is created.

96
Q

why does quantum mottle happen?

A

usually due to a low mAs = lack of photons
- will occur when either the mAs or the kVp is set too low. (mainly mAs)

97
Q

how does quantum mottle affect an image?

A
  • reduces spatial resolution due to its grainy/noisy image
98
Q

what factors control spatial resolution?

A
  • OID
  • SID
  • focal spot
  • motion
  • quantum mottle
99
Q

what components are needed to process and view an image in CR?

A
  • CR reader unit
  • a limited operator computer workstation
  • computer system with monitors for the radiologist to view the images
  • printer if images need to be printed on film
  • a computer server to store the images
100
Q

what are the most common CR plate sizes?

A
  • 8 x 10” / 18 x 24cm
  • 10 x 12” / 24 x 30cm
  • 14 x 14” / 35 x 35cm
  • 14 x 17” / 35 x 43cm
  • 14 x 36” / 35 x 91cm
101
Q

define sampling frequency

A

as the more signal is sampled, more information is obtained and spatial resolution is improved

102
Q

how is an image erased in CR?

A

using a very intense white light

103
Q

how many times can a PSP be used until it needs to be replaced?

A

10,000 times

104
Q

collimation and kVp accuracy are very important because the IP’s in CR-

A

absorb more low-energy scatter compared to flim/screen
- IP is more sensitive to scatter radiation both before and after exposure to the x-ray beam
- also sensitive to background radiation

105
Q

what happens if the IP in CR is not erased within 48 hours?

A

fog will appear in the image

106
Q

define digital radiography

A
  • digital imaging system that does not use a cassette
107
Q

define flat panel detectors (FPD)

A
  • converts the x-ray photons directly tino electrical energy
  • can use a scintillation or photoconductor
  • it is hard wired in the x-ray table and upright unit
108
Q

what is the dimension of an FPD?

A

43 x 43 cm

109
Q

what are the two types of DR?

A
  • indirect
  • direct
110
Q

define indirect conversion DR

A
  • two-step process
  • x-ray energy is first converted to light, then converted to an electrical signal
111
Q

what device is used in Indirect DR to convert the x-ray photons into light?

A

scintillator

112
Q

define scintillator

A

a device that glows when hit by the high-energy x-ray photons

113
Q

what is the scintillator made out of?

A

cesium iodide

114
Q

define photodiode

A

converts light into electrical signal

115
Q

what is the photodiode made out of?

A

amorphous silicon

116
Q

define photoconductor

A
  • used in direct conversion
  • converts the x-ray photons into electrical signals
117
Q

what is the photoconductor made out of?

A

amorphous selenium

118
Q

define thin film translator (TFT)

A
  • used to convert X-rays into electrical signals that are then used to create images.
  • acts as a holder
  • helps move the process from sending the electrical signals to the ADC
  • are used in both direct and indirect
119
Q

define matrix

A
  • a series of thousands of very small boxes or squares.
  • made up of rows and columns
120
Q

define pixels

A
  • The individual matrix squares
  • smallest element in a matrix
  • represents a brightness level in a digital image
121
Q

define dead pixels

A

a single pixel on a digital X-ray detector that is malfunctioning and fails to register any signal, appearing as a blank spot (usually white) on the image
- may cause a loss of patient information

122
Q

define fill in

A

when surrounding pixels “fill in” the surrounding dead pixel with their information

123
Q

the larger the matrix-

A

the smaller the pixel, and the higher the spatial resolution

124
Q

the smaller the matrix-

A

the bigger the pixel, and the lower the spatial resolution

125
Q

define contrast resolution

A

the ability to distinguish anatomical structures of similar subject contrast, such as liver–spleen and gray matter–white matter.

126
Q

define dynamic range

A

range of values that can be displayed by an imaging system
- range of intensities

127
Q

what is another name for pixel?

A

picture element

128
Q

define signal to noise ration (SNR)

A

the ability of the digital system to convert the x-ray input electric signal into a useful radiographic image.
- if there is an increase in signal, noise is reduced, and image quality is higher
- if there is a decrease in signal, noise is increased, and image quality is reduced

129
Q

define quantum mottle

A
  • occurs when there are not enough photons in the detectors to provide a high-quality image,
  • mainly a result from low mAs, but can also be caused by kVp
130
Q

define module transfer function (MTF)

A
  • measure the capacity or accuracy of the digital detector to pass its spatial resolution characteristics to the final image.
  • how well an X-ray imaging system transmits contrast from an object to an image
131
Q

define histogram

A

a graph of the minimum and maximum signals in the image

132
Q

define look up table (LUT)

A
  • a file of stored images for each projection.
  • LUT is used as a base image reference when adjustments are made on an image.
133
Q

define window level

A

controls density

134
Q

define window width

A

controls contrast

135
Q

define electronic cropping

A
  • also known as masking or shuttering
  • used to blacken out the white collimation borders
  • eliminates the glare to the eyes
136
Q

masking should never be used when-

A

never be used to mask poor collimation

137
Q

define image stitching

A
  • When anatomy or the area of interest is too large to fit on one IR, multiple images can be “stitched” together
  • commonly used for a full PA spine scoliosis series
138
Q

define image annotation

A

add text that is useful to have on the image.

139
Q

what are some examples of image annotation?

A
  • time
  • technique
  • patient position
140
Q

annotation should never be used-

A

to place R or L markers on the image

141
Q

define edge enhancement

A

images can be made sharper and have greatly increased contrast; however, it does introduce some noise.
- image processing filter that enhances the edge of the image

142
Q

define smoothing

A
  • low pass filtering
  • used to remove noise
143
Q

what does ALARA stand for?

A

as low as reasonably achievable

144
Q

define automatic rescaling

A

that images are produced with uniform density and contrast, regardless of the amount of exposure

145
Q

define exposure indicator number

A

indicates how much radiation was absorbed in the phosphors, which gives only an idea of what the patient received
- the amount of the exposure reaching the plate.

146
Q

define postprocessing

A

any image of a body part can be further adjusted with the computer software to visualize areas of interest better

147
Q

what are 2 types of processing?

A

subtraction and contrast enhancement

148
Q

define subtraction

A

computer can remove anatomy such as the bones or organs.

149
Q

define contrast enhancement

A

contrast can be changed from very high to very low

150
Q

what is a disadvantage of postprocessing

A

too much can reduce the information that is transferred to the physician
- manipulation of the image should be kept to a minimum.

151
Q

define DICOM

A
  • Digital imaging and communications in medicine
  • exchanging medical radiographic images within the institution and in the many areas where the images are viewed
  • MUST be in DICOM format to get all details for diagnosis, analyzation
152
Q

define DICOM gray scale function

A

provides methods for calibrating a particular viewing monitor display system for the purpose of presenting images consistently on different display monitors and printers.

153
Q

define artifacts

A

an error in the image

154
Q

list the different types of artifacts

A
  • quantum mottle
  • moire effect
  • light spots
  • white line
  • histogram analysis error
  • phantom/ghost image
  • scratches/tears
  • extraneous line patters
  • fogging
155
Q

define moire pattern

A

when the grid lines are not aligned with the laser scanning frequency of the CR reader

156
Q

define light spots

A

usually caused by dust or other foreign material on the IP

157
Q

define white line

A

appear along the length of travel on the image due to dust on the light guide.

158
Q

define histogram analysis error

A

improper collimation, improper technique, beam alignment error, scatter, and extreme subject density differences.

159
Q

define phantom/ghost image

A

a result of incomplete IP erasure

160
Q

define scratches/tears

A

permanent artifacts caused by damage to CR plates

161
Q

define extraneous line patterns

A

linear lines caused by noise in the image reader electronics

162
Q

define fogging

A

background or scatter radiation is caused by the CR plates being much more sensitive than the former film.

163
Q

define PACS

A
  • contain all the digital images that are produced in the department, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and nuclear medicine images.
  • picture archival and communication system.
  • allows multiple users inside and outside the department to view images