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Tim's Cards > Orasprint 5 - crammo > Flashcards

Orasprint 5 - crammo Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of Ectodermal Odontogenic Tumors:

A

Ameloblastoma

CEOT - Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor

AOT - Adenomatoid Odotogenic Tumor

SOT - Squamous Odontogenic Tumor

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2
Q

4 types of Mesodermal (CT) Odontogenic Tumors:

A

Central Odontogenic fibroma

Peripheral Odontogenic fibroma

Odontogenic myxoma

Cementum Lesions (3)

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3
Q

3 types of Mixed Odontogenic Tumors:

epithelial and CT

A

Ameloblastic fibroma

Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

Odontoma

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4
Q

Ameloblastoma, common what age?

found where (%/location)

The most…

A

middle age (but found all ages)

75% posterior Mn

Painless

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5
Q

Ameloblastoma, Radiographic location: _____, always _____

Classically see what 3 things on Radiograph:

Pathology: Epithelial islands and cords where peripheral cells show ______ and ________

Tumor invades _______ but tends to expand ______

A

Pericoronal, Radiolucent

multilocular, moved teeth, root resorption

pallisading, reverse nuclear polarity

medullary bone, cortex

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6
Q

Tx, Ameloblastoma:

% recur w/ aggressive curettage:

A

Surgical (aggressive curettage or resection)

50%

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7
Q

4 variants of Ameloblastoma: Which is less aggressive?

which is a solitary confined cyst?

Which is “benign” but metastasizes?

which is malignant, aggressive, and metastasizes?

A

Peripheral extraosseous

Unicystic

Malignant ameloblastoma

Ameloblastic carcinoma

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8
Q

Unicystic Ameloblastoma is less aggressive and recurs ____% with enucleation

A

10-25%

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9
Q

You can definitively diagnose Ameloblastoma variants on incisional biopsy

A

False

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10
Q

CEOT (Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor) aka…

Found all ages, but more in what location?

Radiographic:

Often associated with _______

A

Pindborg Tumor

midbody Mn

driven snow (lucent/mixed lucent/opaque)

unerupted teeth

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11
Q

CEOT pathology: islands and sheets of…

Tumor cells function and produce a protein matrix called…

This protein matrix may…

This stains with what?

A

pleomorphic epithelial cells

ODAM (odontogenic ameloblast-like protein)

calcify

amyloid stains

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12
Q

CEOT Tx:

A

Surgical

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13
Q

AOT…

Most prevalent at what age?

what population?

3/4 found where?

Usually under what?

symptoms?

A

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor

1-3 decades, mostly teens

Female

Anterior Mn

unerupted teeth

asymptomatic

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14
Q

AOT, radiographically is…

may contain…

A

pericoronal lucency

flecks of opacity

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15
Q

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT) pathologically is ________, with swirls of epithelial cells containing ________ or duct-like spaces lined by _______ cells.

A

Encapsulated

Rosettes

cuboidal/columnar

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16
Q

AOT Tx:

A

Enucleation

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17
Q

SOT…

Radiographically seen as…

Pathology, contains _______ of well-differentiated squamous epithelium with the peripheral cells _____

Tx:

A

Squamous Odontogenic Tumor

Lucency around Roots

islands, flattened

Curettage

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18
Q

Central Odontogenic Fibroma, radiographic it is…

WHO type (pathology), the stroma is _______ but may be more mature variable amounts of ________ and _____

Tx:

A

lucent or mixed lucent/opaque

collagenous, odontogenic epithelium, calcifications

Surgical removal

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19
Q

Peripheral Odontogenic fibroma is a reactive gingival lesion of what origin?

increases what age?

Where?

pathology is cellular fibrous CT with ______

A

PDL

young

anterior gingiva

calcifications (bone, cementum, dystrophic)

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20
Q

“Odontogenic” myxoma, occurs at all ages by increases when?

presents?

Radiograph is a lucency containing what?

A

young

asymptomatic

residual opaque trabeculae

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21
Q

“Odontogenic” myxoma pathology. This is a _____ tumor with scattered plump _______ cells

Has delicate ______ and abundant _______

Often mistaken for….

A

hypocellular, fibroblastic

collagen fibrils, ground substance (glycosaminoglycans)

normal anatomy

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22
Q

“Odontogenic” myxoma Tx:

A

Block resection

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23
Q

What are the 3 Cementum Lesions?

A

Central cemento-ossifying fibroma

Benign cementoblastoma (true cementoma)

Gigantiform cementoma

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24
Q

Central cemento-ossifying fibroma is a neoplasm of _____ origin.

Radiographically it is well circumscribed, and associated with what?

Lucency?

fibroblastic stoma, trabeculae, globules of acellular cemntum

Usually…

Tx:

A

PDL

tooth roots

lucent/mixed/opaque

fibroma, ossifying, cementifying (or both = cemento-issifying)

Encapsulated

Enucleation

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25
Q

Benign cementoblastoma is a _____ cementoma

what age?

where?

Looks like what?

Except the tooth is what?

A

true

2-4 decades

Mn 1st molar

condensing osteitis

vital

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26
Q

Begnign cementoblastoma is radiographically pathognomonic, including a ______ mass with peripheral _______

It is fused to the _____

A

sclerotic, radiolucent zone

root

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27
Q

Benign cementoblastoma, pathology includes ______ trabeculae of cementum

variable amounts of active fibroblastic stroma with ______ cells

Peripheral trabeculae characteristically at ______ to surface

Central trabeculae fused with ______

A

sclerotic

giant

right angles

root

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28
Q

Benign cementoblastoma Tx:

recurrence:

A

Surgical removal

rare

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29
Q

Gigantoform cementoma must be:

Radiograph, multiquadrant ______ opacities

Pathology is globular _____ masses of _______

Tx:

A

Autosomal dominant

globular

sclerotic, cementum

case by case

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30
Q

Ameloblastic fibroma, seen in what age?

Where?

symptoms:

Radiographically always:

A

1-3 decades

posterior Mn

asymptomatic

lucent

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31
Q

Ameloblastic fibroma, pathology has long strands/cords of ______ cells resembling _______ (embedded in CT of fibroblasts/delicate collagen fibrils)

Tx:

Variant:

A

epithelial, dental lamina

Surgical removal

Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma (rare malignant)

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32
Q

Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma, aka…

Age:

Symptoms:

Radiographic shade:

occurring where?

A

developing odontoma

1-3 decades

asymptomatic

mixed lucent/opaque

overlying unerupted tooth

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33
Q

Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma, pathology like ameloblastic fibroma, except areas of _______

The pallisading, reverse nuclear polarity is a manifestation of what?

Tx:

A

odontogenesis (enamel, dentin, cementum)

function (not pathology)

Surgical removal

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34
Q

What is the most common Odontogenic Tumor?

A

Odontoma

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35
Q

Odontoma is a mix of what two cells?

and produces the products of what?

Not a neoplasm, it is a…

A

Epithelial, mesenchymal

odontogenesis

develpmental hemartoma

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36
Q

Odontoma seen at what age?

symptoms?

Radiographic shade:

Radiographically either Compound (tooth-like) found where?

or Complex (random deposition) found where?

A

1-3 decades (young)

asymptomatic

radiopaque w/ lucent border, over unerupted teeth

anterior Mn

posterior Mn

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37
Q

Odontoma early lesions tend to be more active, like Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

Late lesions more mature enamel, dentin, cementum, pulp

A

True

True

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38
Q

Odontoma Tx:

Complications:

A

Surgical removal

dentigerous cyst, ameloblastoma

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39
Q

Infective Stomatitis can be bacterial, fungal, viral

A

True

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40
Q

Impetigo is a skin infection caused by what 2 pathogens?

A

strep pyogenes

staph aureus

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41
Q

Impetigo is usually found in what population?

where?

Facial lesions usually around ____ and ______

Caused by poor ____, crowded conditions, humidity

Spread by?

A

young children

face/extremities

nose, mouth

hygiene

skin contact

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42
Q

Impetigo, _____ ruptures leaving _____ crusts

described as…

How is it unlike HSV?

Topical Abx:

Systemic Abx:

A

vescicles amber

cornflakes glued to surface

lesions persist until Tx

Mupirocin

Cephalexin, Dicloxacillin

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43
Q

Tonsillitis/pharyngitis can be bacterial or viral

bacterial class:

sore throat, headache fever, tonsillar hyperplasia, yellowish exudate, erythema, palatal petechiae, lymphadenopathy

Children aged ____ years

Spread by:

Culture/Tx w/

A

True

group A beta hemolytic streptococci

Strep throat

5-15

contact, nasal, oral secretions

Abx (penicillin, amoxicillin, cephalosporin)

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44
Q

3 complications of Strep Throat:

A

Scarlet Fever (3-12 y/o), attacks vessels, strawberry tongue

Rheumatic fever (heart, joints, CNS)

Glomerulonephritis

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45
Q

Syphilis, a bacteria called…

Spread by:

African americans, prostitutes, drug abusers, 50-100x higher prevalence in US compared to other industrialized countries

A

Treponema pallidum

direct contact w/ mucosa

True

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46
Q

Primary Syphilis, painless ulcer at inoculation site:

occurs __-___ days after initial exposure

Regional ______

TPHA + FTA-ABS (blood tests)

Highly infectious

A

Chancre

3-90 days

lymphadenopathy

True

True

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47
Q

Secondary Syphilis occurs ___-___ weeks post infection

____ patches

_____ ulcers

2 skin manifestations:

Lymphadenopathy, sore throat, fever, highly infectious

A

4-10 weeks

mucous

snail track

conduylomata lata, maculopapular rash

True

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48
Q

Latent Syphilis: ___-____ years

A

1-30 years

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49
Q

Tertiary Syphilis develops in ___% of pts

Manifests in a unique type of necrosis called:

with 3 characteristics:

Intraorally this is seen where?

3 other manifestations:

A

30%

Gumma

indurated, nodular, ulcerated lesion

palate

dorsal atrophic luetic glossitis, syphiulitic leukoplakia, CV/CNS involvement

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50
Q

Congenital Syphilis, what happens to the head?

Underdeveloped…

Palate:

Deformity:

A

Frontal bossing

Mx

high, arched

saddle nose

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51
Q

Presentation of Congenital Syphilis:

A

Hutchinson’t triad

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52
Q

Hutchinson’s Triad:

include 2 dental abnormalities

A

Interstitial keratitis of cornea

VIII nerve deafness

Hutchinson’t incisors (srewdriver), mulberry molars (bumps)

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53
Q

Sensitive but not specific blood test for Syphilis:

other one:

Why is mucosal smear not recommended?

Abx Tx:

A

VDRL RPR

TPHA and FTA-ABS

spirochetes

penicillin

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54
Q

Species causing TB:

Immunodeficiency can progress disease:

Spread through droplets in pts w/ active disease

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid-fast bacillus)

True

True

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55
Q

Fever, night sweats, fatigue, weiht loss, productive cough, hemoptysis:

A

TB

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56
Q

Scrofula:

Lupus vulgaris

A

lymph node involvement TB

skin involvement TB

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57
Q

2 TB oral manifestations:

Biopsy shows granulomas w/ central areas of ______

AFB

PCR, PPD

Tx:

A

chronic painless ulceration on tongue/palate, atypical periodontitis

necrosis

Acid fast bacillus stain

tests

Isoniazid/rifampin

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58
Q

Bacterial infection that looks like a fungus:

A

Actinomycosis israelii

59
Q

Actinomycosis is a normal ______ anaerobic inhabitant of the oral cavity

Hx of:

% cases occur in cervicofacial areas:

A

saprophytic

surgery/trauma

55%

60
Q

Actinomycosis manifests as…

colonies are what color?

Tx:

Localized acute infections Tx more ________

Removal of infected tissue aerates and Abx not needed

A

abscesses/sinus tracts

yellow “sulphur granules”

long-term high dose Abx

conservatively

True

61
Q

NUG (trench mouth), 2 causative bacteria:

Highly inflamed/hemmorhagic…

punched out papillae necrotic and covered with…

Fetid odor and _____ pain

2 Tx’s:

Systemic Abx if:

A

Bacillus fusiformis, Borrelia vincetii

papillae

gray pseudomembrane

intense

Debridement, CHX

fever/lymphadenopathy

62
Q

Candida albicans has a yeast form and a _______ pathogenic form

White matl that can be wiped off:

has what taste?

A

hyphal

pseudomembranous candidosis

metallic

63
Q

Acute atrophic candidosis - 3 features

A

painful burning

affects gingiva

loss of filiform papillae on tongue

64
Q

Chronic atrophic candiddosis - 3 features

A

Erythematous

Mx only in dentures

asymptomatic or symptoms

65
Q

Chronic hyperplastic candidosis is indistiguishable from what?

This white lesion differs from pseudomembranous how?

If AF does not resolve, then…

A

leukoplakia

does not wipe off

biopsy

66
Q

Angular chelitis is candida ___% of the time

otherwise it is _____ or ______

reduced vertical dimension predisposes

A

90%

strep, staph

True

67
Q

Median rhomboid glossitis, aka…

Central _____ atrophy

erythematous diamond shaped area found where?

Often…

A

chronic atrophic candidosis

papillary

midline, posterior dorsal tongue

asymptomatic

68
Q

Candida Dx w/ ____ smear, tissue culture, exfoliative cytology (PAS stain)

Nystatin Rx:

Clotrimazole Rx:

2 azoles absorbed systemically:

Fluconazole Rx:

A

mucosal

1 tsp 5x daily, 2 wks

10 mg 5x daily, 7-10 days

ketoconazole, fluconazole

2 tabs (200 mg) day 1, then 1 tab daily, 2 wks

69
Q

Chronic, non-healing intraoral ulcers that can mimic SCC:

A

Deep fungal infections

70
Q

Most deep fungal infections cause primary lung involvement

A

True

71
Q

Histoplasmosis, Coccidomycosis, Blastomycosis, Cryptococcosis, Aspergillosis

A

Deep fungal infections

72
Q

SubQ fungal infection species:

A

Sporotrichosis

73
Q

Opportunistic fungal infection species:

A

Zygomycosis (mucormysosis)

74
Q

HPV papilloma caused by what 2 subtypes?

White/red/normal color ______ shaped exophytic

A

6 and 11

cauliflower

75
Q

Verruca vulgaris, HPV subtypes:

Common wart usually found where?

If oral mucosa, found where?

A

2, 4, 6, 40

skin of hands

vermillion border, labial mucosa, anterior tongue

76
Q

Koilocytes (enlarged cells w/ cytoplasmic clearing)

Keratohyaline granules

contagious

A

Verruca vulgaris (HPV 2, 4, 6, 40)

77
Q

Verruca Vulgaris (HPV 2, 4, 6, 40) Tx:

A

liquid nitrogen

78
Q

Condylomata acuminatum, caused by:

This is _____ HPV

incubation:

Anogenital condylomata, what 2 HPV forms increase malignant risk?

often occur in clusters, not as exophytic as papillary/papilloma/verruca

A

HPV 2, 6, 11, 53, 54, 16, 18

sexually transmitted

1-3 months

16, 18

True

79
Q

Focal epithelial hyperplasia caused by:

“_____ Disease”

flat, soft, _____ papules

Most common in malnourished ________

1st described in Native Americans/Eskimos

______ and _____ cells

A

HPV 13, 32

Heck’s

clustered

children

True

Koilocytes, Mitosoid

80
Q

Focal epithelial hyperplasia caused by HPV 13,32 identified by DNA insutu hybridization, PCR, and may undergo regression after improved living conditions

A

True

81
Q

2 types of HPV w/ cancer risk:

causes _____ cancer and MOST ______ cancer

30 years ago, 15% of throat cancer HPV, now ___%

A

16, 18

cervical, oropharyngeal

80%

82
Q

HPV, HHV, both ____ viruses

A

DNA

83
Q

HSV-1

HSV-2

A

oral infections

genital infections

84
Q

More than 90% HSV (HHV) are asymptomatic

A

True

85
Q

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is…

age range:

_____, lymphadenopathy, nausea, irritability

erythematous gingiva, coalescing vescicles spread to

Lesions heal ______

A

Very Acute in Onset

6 mo - 5 yrs

Fever

marinated ulcers

spontaneously

86
Q

Recurrent herpes occurs in _-__% of population

cold sore/fever blister, called herpes _____

apthae occur where?

Intraorally limited to what?

A

15-45%

labialis

vermillion/skin border

keratinized mucosa

87
Q

At any time, _-__% of pts will asymptomatically excrete and will have HSV DNA in saliva

A

5-30%

88
Q

3 types of antivirals that are effective when administered in prodrome for herpes infection:

A

Acyclovir

Famciclovir

Valacyclovir

89
Q

Varicella-zoster virus, HHV __?

Primary infection:

Reactivation:

A

HHV-3

Chickenpox

Shingles

90
Q

Primary HHV-3 incubation:

Recovery:

A

10-21 days

2-3 weeks

*now vaccine

91
Q

Reactivation HHV-3, occurs how often?

Oral lesions occur if what nerve is involved?

***Chronic Infection that may take months to resolve?

A

1 in 3

Trigeminal nerve

Postherpetic Neuralgia

92
Q

Infection of external auditory canal, ipsilateral facial/auditory nerved produce facial paralysis, hearing deficits, vertigo (HHV-3)

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

93
Q

EBV, HHV-__?

Infectious ______

Prodrome has _____ on hard/soft palate

_____ antibody, elevated WBC count

A

HHV-4

mononucleosis

petechiae

heterophil

94
Q

Hairy leukoplakia is a corrugated white lesion usually found where?

It can be wiped off.

Associated w/ candida, but often caused by what?

This is most common in ____ pts

A

lateral border tongue

False

EBV

HIV

95
Q

2 EBV neoplasms:

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (and other lymphomas)

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

96
Q

Cytomegalovirus, HHV-_?

Affects ____ and immunosuppressed adults

___% infection asymptomatic, rest mono-like

serious complications like organ failure, blindness, mental/motor retardation

A

HHV-5

newborns

90%

True

97
Q

CMV (HHV-5) oral lesions:

resides latently where?

Infected cell appearance?

Systemic antiviral if….

A

chronic ulceration

salivary glands

owl eye

immunosuppressed

98
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma causative virus:

Orally most common on palate, gingiva, tongue

most cases associated w/ AIDS

A

HHV-8

True

True

99
Q

Coxsackie A viruses cause what 3 things?

A

Herpangina

Hand-foot-mouth disease

Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

100
Q

Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis, caused by…

affects children under _____, often in epidemics

Painful _____ and ______ intraorally

Vescicles on ________

lymphoid tissue is ______

hand-foot-toes-fingers:

Infection resolves in ______ days

A

Coxsackie A virus

5

vescicles, ulcers

soft palate

hyperplastic

papules

7-10 days

101
Q

Measles/Mumps caused by

A

Paramyxoviruses

102
Q

Measles, aka…

______ spots are early intraoral manifestation

they are small, red patches w/ white _____ centers

A

Rubeola

Koplik’s

necrotic

103
Q

Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis is

occur in ___% of the population

immnologically, ___ cell mediated

Histocompatibility antigens are associated and suggest…

A

non-infective

20-50%

T-cell

genetic

104
Q

Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis is 90%

10%…

A

Minor aphthae

Major aphthae

105
Q

Minor aphthae affect what sex more?

exclusively on ______ mucosa

Heal in 7 to ___days

recurrence variable

A

female

moveable

14

True

106
Q

Major aphthae (5%), aka _____ disease

onset when?

***most common on soft palate and…

A

Sutton’s

adolescence

tonsillar fauces/pharyngeal mucosa

107
Q

Herpetiform aphthae (5%), onset…

affect what sex more?

heals in 7-10 days

resembles ulcers caused by what?

A

adult

female

True

HSV

108
Q

3 Tx’s for Aphthous ulcers:

A

Topical steroids (dexamethasone/flucononide)

CHX

Amlexanox

109
Q

Pseudo aphthae are associated with what 3 Systemic Diseases?

A

GI (Crohn’s)

Vitamin deficiencies

Behcet’s syndrome

110
Q

Systemic vasculitis causing chronic, recurrent disease and pseudo-aphthae:

A

Behcet’s syndrome

111
Q

Behcet’s syndrome has an immunogenetic basis, strong associaton w/ specific HLA types

correltation w/ _____ antigens

Oral (99%), Ocular (70-85%), genital (75%)

Oral lesions like aphthous w/ ragged borders and surrounded by…

Use topical/systemic _______, other immunosuppressives, CHX

A

True

environmental

True

diffuse erythema

steroids

112
Q

Lichen Planus, cause unknown but immune __ mediated

Slight association with:

age:

affect what sex?

Affects skin, oral mucosa, tissues irritated/traumatize: _____ phenomenon

A

T cell

Hep C

middle aged adults

2/3 female

Koebner

113
Q

Skin: Purple, pruritic, polygonal papules

Oral: reticular/erosive/bullous, plaques

**vesiculo-bullous (blistering) diseases

A

Lichen Planus

114
Q

Most common Lichen Planus is ______ w/ _____ Striae

A

reticular, Wickham’s

115
Q

What is the most common cause of Desquamative Gingivitis?

also pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigoid, allergy

A

Lichen Planus

116
Q

Saw-toothed rete ridges

Destruction basal cell layer

A

Lichen Planus

117
Q

Lichen Planus look-alike associated w/ systemic drugs, hypersensitivity rxn (cinnamon/amalgam, etc)

A

Lichenoid rxns

118
Q

2 topical steroids for Lichen Planus:

A

Fluocinonide

Clobetasol

119
Q

Greek for blister

A

Pemphigus

120
Q

Pemphigus is a ________ disease

A

autoimmune

severe, progressive

121
Q

Pemphigus 1st appears when?

Circulating auto-Ab to what?

A

adults 40’s to 50’s

desmosomes (desmoglein 3)

122
Q

Nikolski sign of Pemphigus:

Dx is ______ epithelial separation with acantholysis

Tx:

A

induces separation

suprabasilar

steroids

123
Q

Type of pemphigus that affects pts w/ neoplasm, lymphoma, leukemia

it is very serious w/ high morbidity/mortality

A

Paraneoplastic pemphigus

124
Q

Pemphigus:

Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid (cicatricial pamphigoid):

A

desmosomes

hemidesmosomes

125
Q

Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid: more common in females, avg age:

more common than…

if untreated _____ can progress to blindness

Similar to pemphigus but not as severe

A

50-60

pemphigus

ocular scarring

True

126
Q

Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid: +Nikolski sign

Most commonly affected site:

Bullae form where?

Dx:

A

True

gingiva (desquamative gingivitis)

epithelium/CT junction

biopsy epithelial separation

127
Q

Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid Tx:

A

Ophthalmologic consult

Topical/systemic steroids

128
Q

Desquamative Gingivitis can manifest from what 4 conditions?

A

Lichen Planus

Pemphigus vulgaris

Mucous membrand pemphigoid

Allergy

129
Q

Erythema multiforme: ____ onset,

______ mediated

______ condition

follows…

A

acute

immune

mucocutaneous

systemic meds/post infection

130
Q

Erythema multiforme affects what sex?

adults 20’s - 30’s w/ ___% recurrence

A

men more often

20%

131
Q

Lesions highly variable (multiforme)

bulls eye lesions

palms/soles

A

Erythema multiforme

132
Q

More severe form of Erythema Multiforme:

(has extensive mucosal ulceration, genital/ocular involved)

Most severe form of Erythema Multiforme:
(female prediliction)

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

133
Q

Erythema migrans/benign migratory glossitis

A

Geographic tongue

134
Q

Geographic tongue is _______ condition of unknown origin

1-3% population

2x more common in what sex?

occasional burning, correlated with…

Tx:

A

inflammatory

True

Females

psoriasis

not needed, topical steroids if symptoms

135
Q

Rare syndrome w/ urethritis, arthritis, conjuctivitis

Oral lesions look like geographic tongue

A

Reiter’s Syndrome

136
Q

Lupus erythematosus, 8x more common in:

ave age:

50-80% have classic:

A

women

31

butterfly rash

137
Q

Discoid LE:

Systemic LE:

A

lesions in skin only (25% oral)

chronic, progressive, life-threatening (CNS, heart, kidney)

138
Q

LE lab test include:

A

ANA (antinuclear antibodies)

*Ab to own DNA

139
Q

Tx LE:

systemic

A

corticosteroids

anti-malarials

140
Q

Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma): rare ______ mediated deposition of _______ in skin/tissues

vasoconstrictive event in extremities:

Hide bound disease

A

immune, collagen

Raynaud’s phenomenon

skin hard and taut

141
Q

4 oral manifestations Scleroderma:

A

Diffuse widening PDL

Microstomia (70%)

Dysphagia

Condylar resorption

142
Q

Scleroderma can lead to organ failure

Dx: Anti ____ antibodies

Tx:

Prognosis:

A

True

Scl70 (topoisomerase1)

D-penicillamine/Ca channel blockers

organ involvement dependent

143
Q

GVHD is what type of rxn?

acute:

chronic:

Oral lesions appear ______ and are painful

Tx:

Increased risk for:

A

immune

first 100 days

over 100 days

lichenoid

immunosuppressives/corticosteroids

dysplasia, oral cancer

Tim's Cards (140 decks)

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