Hematology I Flashcards

1
Q

What type of drug is Warfarin?

A

Anti-coagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

% breakdown of Plasma, Buffy coat, and Erythrocytes:

A

Plasma - 55%

Buffy coat -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What layers of blood are considered the “formed elements”?

A
RBC's
Buffy coat (includes leukocytes, platelets, and thrombocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 Plasma Proteins:

A

Albumins
Globulins
Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma minus clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 3 things that make up the Plasma?

A

Water
Solutes
Plasma Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What fraction of body weight is blood?

A

8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much blood in an adult body?

A

4-6 Liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the normal amount of RBC’s in a hematocrit?

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A low hematocrit suggests…

A hig hematocrit suggests…

A

Anemia

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the best method for evaluating and identifying immature and abnormal cells in the blood?

A

Blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A normal blood smear is spaced…

A

evenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two functions of the RBC biconcave disc?

A

Increase surface area

Increase flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are platelets cells?

A

No.

*fragments fo megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do megakaryocytes come from?

A

Break off in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F

A platelet plug is another name for a blood clot

A

False

Precursors to clots (but sometimes all yo need)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a stained neutrophil nucleus look like?

A

3-5 lobes

Thin strands chromatin connecting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common type of WBC?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The defining characteristic of a neutrophil is…

define unequivocally

A

Complex shape of nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F

Neutrophils lack granules

A

False

small granules in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

A

Defense against Bacteria and Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What formed element usually has a 2 lobed nucleus?

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main function of eosinophil?

A

Parasitic defense

*many dark staining granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the appearance of the nucleus in Basophils?

Granulocytes?

A

2-3 lobes

Deeply blue or red-violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What leukocyte has the most numerous granulocytes?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How to distinguish between eosinophils and basophils?

A

Eosinophils: Defined 2 lobed nucleus, more granules

Basophils: 2-3 undefined lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What leukocyte mediates inflammatory rxns of allergy?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are basophils called after they migrate into tissues?

A

Mast Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What chemical do basophils (mast cells) carry that cause allergy symptoms?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What often has a c-shaped nucleus and is never lobed or round?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F

Monocytes have granules and lobes

A

False

No granules, no lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Besides the c-shaped nucleus and being agranulocytes, what is another feature of Monocytes?

A

Golgi apparatus

*appears as white area “negative image”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the smallest WBC?

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F

B and T lymphocytes have small nuclei

A

False

*Both large (and indistinguishable between the two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What lymphocyte produces antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What lymphocytes direct the immune response through chemical intermediaries?
What lymphocyte produces enzymes that directly harm pathogen?

A

T-helper (CD4)

Cytotoxic (CD8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the 3rd type of Lymphocyte (other than B and T)?

A

NK - Natural Killer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What 2 proteins do Natural Killer cells secrete through granules that cause cell death?

A

Perforin

Granzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What test panel measures cell counts, Hb, and Hematocrit?

11 tests

A

Complete Blood Count

CBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What test panel measures Proteins, electrolytes, etc?

14 tests

A

Comprehensive Metabolic Panel

CMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the term for low WBC count?

A

Leukokemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are immature neutrophils called?

A

Band neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is seen in acute or chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

A

Increased Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What makes up 1/3 mass RBC’s?

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the measurement of the average size of RBC’s?

What test panel is this part of?

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

CBC (complete blood count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What causes Macrocytic RBC’s?

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of RBC is seen in iron deficient anemia?

A

Microcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does MCH stand for and what panel is it part of?

A

Mean Corpuscular Hemoblobin

CBC - Complete Blood Count

*Large RBC higher Hb count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MCH depends on ______, while MCHC is ______

A

RBC size

independent of size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration reveal two pathologies: either _____ or _____.

A

Hypochromia - diluted Hb inside RBC
(stain lighter)

Hyperchromia - concentrated Hb inside RBC
(stain darker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What CBC test reveals RBC size variation?

A

RDW - Red Cell Distribution Width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The amount of variation in RBC size is called…

The variation in shape is called…

Normal range:

A

Anisocytosis

Poikilocytosis

11-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Thrombocytosis:
Thrombocytopenia:

A

too much platelet

too little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What test in the CBC calculated average size of platelets?

A

MPV - mean platelet volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What blood panel test usually requires fasting?

A

CMP - Comprehensive Metabolic Panel

56
Q

What is fasting hyperglycemia associated with?

A

Diabetes mellitus (type I or II)

57
Q

Too much/too little sodium is called:

A

Hypernatremia

Hyponatremia

58
Q

What role does Na play in the small intestine?

A

Glc absorption facilitator

59
Q

Too much/too little Potassium is called:

A

Hyperkalemia

Hypokalemia

60
Q

T/F

Potassium and Chloride are essential for acid base balance

A

True

61
Q

Enzyme activation and Blood clotting both rely on what cation?

A

Calcium

62
Q

What is the most prevalent anion in the blood?

A

Chloride

63
Q

What 2 type of neurotransmitter does chloride facilitate?

A

GABA

Glycine

64
Q

What maintains oncotic pressure and transports thyroid hormones and bilirubin?

A

Albumin

65
Q

T/F

Albumin competitively binds Calcium ions

A

True

66
Q

T/F

Albumin acts as a buffer

A

True

67
Q

What nitrogenous waste product increases if kidneys aren’t working?

A

Creatinine

vs. creatine phosphate

68
Q

What gives urine its straw color?

A

Urea

69
Q

What 2 enzymes, if elevated in the blood, suggest liver damage?

A

ALT - Alanine aminotransferase
AST - Aspartate aminotransferase

*Both involved in AA catabolism

70
Q

What 3 things elevate ALP (Alkaline phosphatase)?

A

Liver damage
Gall stones
Bone damage

71
Q

Elevation of what suggests liver damage?

A

ALP - Alkaline phosphatase

72
Q

What is the hydrophobic waste product of Hb metabolism?

A

Bilirubin

73
Q

In what 3 organs are old RBC’s processed?

A

Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow

74
Q

Where is all bilirubin excreted?

A

Liver

75
Q

What can too much bilirubin lead to?

A

Jaundice

hyperbilirubinemia

76
Q

What 4 types of lipid are tested in the lipid panel?

A

LDL
HDL
Triglycerides
Total cholesterol

77
Q

What lipid test indicates coronary or vascular disease?

A

cholesterol

78
Q

2 Types of cholesterol

A

Endogenous (from liver)

Exogenous (diet)

79
Q

What might work differently in people that have high cholesterol?

A

HMG-CoA reductase negative feedback

80
Q

What drug shuts down cholesterol synth?

A

Statins like Lipitor or Crestor

81
Q

What is the only way cholesterol is excreted?

A

Bile

82
Q

What will high Niacin do?

A

raise HDL (with flushing)

83
Q

What 2 factors lead to plaque formation?

A

LDL and Triglycerides

*more for LDL

84
Q

What is the normal range serum for triglycerides?

A

35-160

85
Q

What causes RBC’s to settle more quickly when measuring Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate?

A

inflammation - from many sources

Specifically Rouleaux Stacks

86
Q

What causes Rouleaux stacking?

A

Inflammatory mediators produced by liver and immune system

87
Q

Westergren tube:

A

tube for ESR

88
Q

What test can suggest Temporal Arteritis?

chronic inflammation of large arteries of the head

A

ESR

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

89
Q

What test can diagnose Diabetes?

A

Hemoglobin A1C

*glc attaches for cell’s life

90
Q

5 things that fail in diabetes:

A
eyes
kidneys
nerves
heart
blood vessels
91
Q

An A1C over _____ suggests diabetes.

Fasting Plasma Glc over ____ suggests diabetes.

A

6.5%

126

92
Q

What liver produced protein is a marker for inflammation?

A

CRP

C-reactive Protein

93
Q

What blood marker is just as effective in predicting cardiac risk as cholesterol?

A

CRP

C-Reactive Protein

94
Q

CRP levels:
low risk CVD
Intermediate
High risk CVD

A
95
Q

T/F

Periodontal disease is related to diabetes

A

True

96
Q

T/F

There is a strong association between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease

A

True

97
Q

If someone has periodontal disease, what 3 tests should be run?

A

Lipid Panel
Blood glucose (fasting and A1C)
CRP (c-reactive protein)

98
Q

Where are RBC’s made?

A

Red bone marrow

99
Q

In what 3 areas is red bone marrow found in adults?

A

Flat bones
Irregular bones
Epiphyses of long bones

100
Q

Where is yellow marrow found?

A

medullary cavity long bones

101
Q

Where are RBC’s made in the fetus?

A

Liver
Spleen

*can occur in adults with certain diseases

102
Q

What do pluripotential stem cells first divide into in forming cells?

A

Progenitor cells

103
Q

What is the most important growth factor controlling erythropoiesis?

A

EPO

erythropoietin

104
Q

What 2 organs release EPO?

A

Kidneys
Liver

*Mostly Kidneys

105
Q

How do RBC’s enter the circulation?

A

as Reticulocytes

106
Q

What are the 4 essential ingredients for producing normal RBC’s?

A

AA’s
Fe
Folic acid
B12

*there are types of anemia associated with each of these

107
Q

How do reticulocytes appear in a blood smear?

A

Freckled

108
Q

Describe the negative feedback loop for EPO

A

RBC increase
more oxygen
kidneys sense
EPO drops

*Hypoxia will reverse

109
Q

How many different proteins are in RBC cell membrane?

A

10-15

110
Q

What are 6 types of integral proteins in RBC’s?

A
Band 3
Glycophorins
Aquaporin-1 
GLUT 1
Na/K pumps
Ion channels
111
Q

What is the function of the Band 3 integral protein in RBC’s?

A

Bicarbonate for Chloride
anion transport

(one for one)

*25% total mem. protein

112
Q

What is the function of Glycophorin?

A

Negatively charged, reduces interaction of red cells with one another and others

113
Q

What integral protein gets glucose inside RBC’s?

A

GLUT-1

114
Q

Name 4 peripheral/cytoskeletal proteins that flexibility and resiliency.
(all inside cell)

A

Ankyrin
Protein 4.1
Protein 4.2
Spectrin

115
Q

What disease causes sphere-shaped RBC’s?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

*smaller and lack pale center on smear

116
Q

What % CO2 is transported as carbamino-Hb?

A

30%

117
Q

Each Hb has -SH in ____ form and Fe in ____ form.

A

reduced

reduced

118
Q

What happens when ionic gradients fail in RBC’s?

A

Spherocyte

membrane malfunction

119
Q

T/F

Glucose metabolism relies exclusively on Cytosolic Proteins.

A

True

120
Q

What is the primary function of NADH in RBC?

A

Keeps Fe in reduced state

Fe 2+

121
Q

What is the primary function of NADPH in RBC?

A

maintains Reduced Glutathione

*essential for maintaining structure

122
Q

What does 1 molecule of glc yeild in RBC?

A

2 ATP

2 NADH

123
Q

What alternate pathway is entered by about 10% of glc in RBC?
What does this produce?

A

PPP
(hexose monophosphate shunt)

NADPH

124
Q

What is THE enzyme of the PPP (yielding NADPH)?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

125
Q

What links the PPP to glycolysis?

A

Glc-6-P

*if oxidized enters PPP

126
Q

If Glc-6-P is oxidized it enters _____

If isomerized it _____

A

PPP
proceeds through glycolysis
(Frc-6-P)

127
Q

What is the lifespan of RBC?

A

90-120 days

128
Q

Dead RBC is removed from circulation by what 2 organs?

A

Liver

Spleen

129
Q

What is the waste product of RBC degradation?

A

Bilirubin

130
Q

What osmotic pressure shrinks RBC

What swells?

A

Hypertonic

Hypotonic

131
Q

What NaCl solution is isotoinic with plasma?

A

0.9%

132
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach:

A

pH = pKa + log [HCO3-] / [CO2]

20: 1
7. 4

133
Q

How much mEq/L of protons are made daily?

A

50-100

134
Q

3 blood buffers

A

Bicarbonate (carbonic anhydrase rxn)
Phosphate
Proteins (albumin, Hb)

135
Q

How does the blood regulate temperature?

A

Sympathetic - vasoconstrict
(if cold)

Parasympathetic - vasodilate
(warm)

*alpha 1 mediated vessels

136
Q

Warm blood is ____ to the body surface in warm temps.

A

Shunted