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Tim's Cards > Neuro4 > Flashcards

Neuro4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure that houses the auditory and vestibular sense organs called?

A

The bony labyrinth (petrous portion temporal bone)

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2
Q

Where is the membranous labyrinth of the Auditory System?

A

Inside the bony labyrinth

- of the petrous portion of the temporal bone

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3
Q

What type of fluid fills the inside of the membranous labyrinth?

A

Endolymph

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4
Q

What fluid lies between the bony and membranous labyrinths?

A

Perilymph

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5
Q

Is the perilymph inside the membranous labyrinth?

A

NO.

It is just outside the membranous portion.

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6
Q

What comprises the auditory apparatus within the labyrinth?

A

the Cochlea

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7
Q

What comprises the vestibular apparatus within the cochlea?

A

Three semicircular canals/ducts

as well as the utricle and saccule

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8
Q

How does sound enter the ear?

A

Via outer ear and external auditory meatus and Tympanic Membrane

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9
Q

What is the middle ear filled with?

A

Air and 3 small bones

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10
Q

What are the 3 ossicles of the middle ear called?

A

Malleus (hammer)
Incus (anvil)
Stapes (stirrup)

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11
Q

Trace the structures involved through the inner ear beginning with the Tympanic Membrane:

A

Tympanic Membrane
Malleus
Incus
Stapes

(this makes up the connection between the inner and outer ear)

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12
Q

Is air pressure of the inner ear normally equal to atmospheric pressure?

A

Yes.

connected by the auditory (eustachian) tube

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13
Q

What connects the Stapes to the Cochlea?

A

The Oval Window

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14
Q

What are the 3 scalae (fluid filled compartments) of the inner ear?

A 
Scala Vestibuli (superior)
Scala Tympani (inferior)
Scala Media   (between)
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15
Q

Where do the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani meet?

A

Helicotrema

the end of the ducts

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16
Q

What are the scala vestibuli and scala tympani filled with?

A

Perilymph

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17
Q

What is the scala media filled with?

A

Endolymph

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18
Q

What windows open up on to the scala vestibuli and scala tympani

A

Scala vestibuli - Oval Window (stapes connection)

Scala tympani - Round Window

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19
Q

What structure houses the Organ of Corti (the sound sensing organ), and what fluid lines it?

A 
Scala media (aka Cochlear duct) 
Endolymph
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20
Q

Trace the vibration through Cochlea, starting with stapes

A

Stapes > Oval window > scala vestibuli > scala tympani > Round window

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21
Q

What stimulates the (Basilar Membrane) hair cells of the organ of Corti?

A

oscillations in both the scala vestibuli and scala tympani

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22
Q

Why does the input to the Cochlea necessitate amplification through the ossicles?

(and amplification through concentration of sound from tympanic membrane to oval window - which is much smaller)

A

Fluid has a higher impedence than air

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23
Q

What is responsible for the transduction of mechanical vibrational energy to neural activity?

A

Hair cells in the cochlea

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24
Q

What happens when the basilar membrane moves?

A

Causes stereocilia to bend and change shape in relation to their FIXED tips (in tectorial membrane)

This mechanical deformation opens ion channels in the hair cells. Cation influx, generates receptor potential.

Hair cell then releases neurotransmitter > depolarizes CN VIII

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25
Q

Where are the cell bodies of CN VIII?

Where do their central processes synapse?

A

Spiral Ganglion

Cochlear nuclei

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26
Q

The organ of Corti lies between what two structures?

A

The inferior chamber (Scala Tympani) and the Scala Media

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27
Q

At the base of the cochlea, next to the Oval Window, the basilar membrane is ______, which optimizes sensing ______ sounds

A

Narrow

High frequency sounds

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28
Q

At the end of the cochlea, next to the helicotrema, the basilar membrane is _______, optimizing hair cells for ________ sounds.

A

Thick

Low Frequency

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29
Q

High frequency sounds (15000 Hz) have their peak amplitude near the ______, which low frequency sounds (100 Hz), have their peak amplitude near the ______.

A

Base

Apex

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30
Q

T/F
Not only is the basilar membrane thin and stiff near the oval window, but so are the ciliary hair cells (same with basilar membrane/ciliary cells being thicker/longer near the apex)

A

True

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31
Q

How many inner and outer rows of hair cells are there, and which one can alter its hair length?

A 
1 inner
3 outer    (alters - thought to selectively tune to important sounds)
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32
Q

Central Auditory Pathway, aka…

A

8CSLIMA

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33
Q

What does 8CSLIMA stand for?

A

8 - CN VIII
C - Cochlear nuclei
S - Superior Olivary nuclear complex
L - Lateral Lemniscus
I - Inferior colliculi
M - Medial geniculate
A - Primary auditory cortex (lateral temporal lobe)

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34
Q

How are dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei organized, and where are they found?

A

Tonotopically

Medulla

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35
Q

Where does the central auditory pathway decussate?

A

Lower Pons

between the C & S in 8CSLIMA

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36
Q

What percentage of ascending fibers in the central auditory pathway cross at the pons and synapse on the superior olivary nucleus?

What % DON’T cross in the pons and synapse on the Reticular Formation?

A

about 80%

20%

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37
Q

What does the A in 8CSLIMA stand for, and where is it?

A

primary Auditory cortex

Superior Temporal Gyrus

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38
Q

Why would a unilateral lesion of the central auditory pathway cause more pronounced hearing loss to one side?
Which side?

A

The 80/20 split in the Pons, with majority crossing.

If lesion is above pons, more hearing loss opposite to lesion
If lesion below pons, more hearing loss same side of lesion

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39
Q

What is special about Brodmann’s areas 41 and 42

A

Site of the primary auditory cortex (Heschel’s gyri) in the transverse temporal lobe

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40
Q

Within the central auditory pathway, what are the functions of the:
Primary auditory cortex
Superior olivary nuc. and Inf. Colliculus
Reticular formation
?

A

Conscious hearing
Orientation/Localization of sound (Batman!)
CNS activation

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41
Q

What is the function of the descending efferent of CN VIII

descending auditory pathway

A

More inhibitory than excitatory

dampens extraneous noise - like crowd noise and background

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42
Q

What are the two middle ear muscles?
What is their innervation?
What is their function?

A

Tensor Tympani - CN V (inserts malleus)

Stapedius - CN VII (inserts stapes)

Both dampen vibration in response to loud noise (protective function)

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43
Q

What is Conductive Deafness, and what are 3 examples?

A

Interruption of sound passage

  1. Obstruction (foreign object)
  2. Otosclerosis (fixation of Stapes - excessive bone growth)
  3. Otitis Media (middle ear inflammation - common in children)
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44
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis and the most common cause of brain abscesses?

A

Otitis Media

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45
Q

What structure and in what bone are the auditory and vestibular receptors located?

A

Inner ear

Temporal Bone

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46
Q

What is the term for nerve/perceptive deafness caused by diseases (Rubella, syphilis), drugs (aspirin, quinine), or toxins?

A

Sensorineural deafness

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47
Q

What is the degenerative hearing loss that occurs with ageing (involving degeneration at the base of the Organ of Corti), that disproportionally affects perception of high frequency sounds?

A

Presbycusis

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48
Q

What tumor, located where, can result in unilateral deafness and tinnitis?

A

Acoustic neuroma (aka “schwannoma”)

located at cerebellopontine angle

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49
Q

What causes Hyperacusis?

A

Damage to V or VII

  • affecting Tensor Tympani or Stapedius
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50
Q

What is the general term (with multiple causes) for abnormal sounds of ringing, buzzing, etc.?

A

Tinnitus

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51
Q

What is the disease caused by an overproduction of endolymph (endolymphatic hydrops) or inability to absorb endolymph, resulting in tinnitus and vestibular disturbances?

(this is all caused by an increased pressure in the labyrinth)

A

Meniere’s Syndrome

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52
Q

Why won’t lesions in the 8CSLIMA pathway cause bilateral deafness?

A

The 80/20 cross at the pons

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53
Q

Do lesions of the Auditory cortex affect the ability to perceive sound frequency?

A

No.
Batman.
They disrupt the ability to localize the sound

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54
Q

T/F

Taste evolved to detect whether food is toxic/non-toxic.

A

True

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55
Q

What are the 5 main tastes, what is their primary stimuli and function?

A

Sweet - Sugar - (carbs=calories)
Sour - HCl or Citric acid - (acids/bacteria)
Bitter - caffeine/nicotine - (poisons)
Salty - NaCl - (water homeostasis)
Umami - L-glutamate - (peptides/proteins)

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56
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae?

Which ones have taste buds?

A

Circumvallate
Foliate
Fungiform
Filiform (most numerous - only one without taste buds)

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57
Q

How many types of gustatory receptor cells are there?

What are they responsive to?

A

I, II, III, IV

II - sweet, bitter, umami, possibly salty
III - sour

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58
Q

Taste receptor division of the tongue?

A

Ant 2/3 - VII
Post 1/3 - IX
Epiglottic - X

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59
Q

New terms:

Where are the 1st order sensory neurons for taste?

A 
Geniculate Ganglion (VII - this isn't new)
Petrosal Ganglion (IX)
Nodose Ganglion (X)
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60
Q

Where is the 2nd order sensory neurons for taste? (where do they begin?)

A

Nucleus Solitarius - Medulla

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61
Q

What/where is the 3rd order sensory neurons for taste?

A

Ventral Posteromedial nucleus (VPM)

located in the Thalamus

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62
Q

What are 4 taste disorders?

A

Hypogeusia - reduced ability to taste
Ageusia - complete loss
Dysgeusia - distorted taste (foul tastes may persist)
Phantogeusia - phantom, unpleasant, lingering

63
Q

Can third molar and middle ear surgery cause taste disorders?

A

Yes.

as can middle ear infections, radiation, head injury, poor oral hygiene

64
Q

What divides the Aqueous and Vitreous humor?

A

The lens

65
Q

What is the thin, watery fluid found anterior to the lens?

A

Aqueous humor

66
Q

What is the thick, jelly-like semifluid found posterior to the lens?

A

Vitreous humor

67
Q

Outer layer:
What is the white part of the eye?
Clear portion of the eye?

A

Sclera

Cornea

68
Q

Name 4 structures in the middle layer of the eye.

A

Choroid (has vessels and nerves)
Ciliary body (involuntary muscles)
Lens (suspended and connected to ciliary body)
Iris (pigmented portion)

69
Q

Do the nerves in the choroid sense light?

A

No. sense physical touching to eye

70
Q

What CN is involved in pupillary constriction?

What is involved in pupillary dilation?

A 
CN III (parasympathetic)
T1-T2 sympathetic
71
Q

What does a lesion of T1 and T2 result in?

A

Horner’s Syndrome

72
Q

What suspends the lens from the ciliary body?

A

Zonula fibers

73
Q

Adjustment of the shape of the lens to a more rounded shape (by the ciliary body) is called ________, and it degrades with age.

A

Accommodation

74
Q

What is the light sensing part of the eye?

A

Retina

75
Q

What are 3 interneurons within the retina?

A

Amacrine cells
Bipolar cells
Horizontal cells

76
Q

What do Rods do and what are they important for?

A

Black and white

important for night vision

77
Q

What photoreceptor is optimized for color and high visual acuity?

A

Cones

78
Q

Where are rods and cones located?

A

Behind cell layers that neither absorb nor distort light

79
Q

What are the most anterior cells of the Retina?

What do they form?

A

Retinal Ganglion cells

they eventually form CN II

80
Q

T/F

The rods/cones send out graded potentials, which may or may not fire retinal gangion

A

True

81
Q

Where is the Natural Blind Spot?

A

Site of optic nerve called the Optic Disk

no photoreceptors here

82
Q

What is in the center of the Macula Lutea, and what does it contain?

A

Fovea

only Cones

site of highest visual acuity (sharp and straight ahead)

83
Q

The visual map on the Retina is…

A

Upside down and backwards

84
Q

What decussates at the Optic Chiasm?

A

The fields coming from the Nasal (medial) portion of the Retina

85
Q

Where is the optic tract, what fibers does it contain, and where does it synapse?

A

Posterior to Optic Chiasm

fibers containing ganglion from Left temporal/Right nasal or Right temporal/Left nasal.

LGN (lateral geniculate nucleus - a relay nuc.)

86
Q

From the eye, trace the optic signal.

A

Optic nerve > Optic Chiasm > Optic Tract > LGN > Optic Radiations > Primary visual cortex

87
Q

On what structures in the primary visual cortex do the optic radiations terminate?

A 
Cuneus    (sup. structure, receives input from Inf. Visual Field)
Lingual gyrus     (inf. structure, receives input from Sup. Visual Field)

(these are separated by the Calcarine sulcus)

88
Q

Primary visual cortex pathway aka:

A

Retinogeniculostriate pathway

89
Q

What are the initially anteriorly directed axons leaving from the LGN called?
Where will they terminate and what info are they carrying?

A

Meyer’s Loop

Lingual gyrus

superior visual field

90
Q

What will a lesion of Meyer’s loop cause?

A

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

91
Q

How are neurons in the visual cortex categorized?

A

Ocular dominance columns
Orientation columns
Color blobs

92
Q

T/F

There is a high specificity of information received in the primary visual cortex?

A

True

93
Q

From the visual cortex, what two pathways does the information take?

A

Dorsal “where” pathway

Ventral “what” pathway

94
Q

What does the Retinotectal Pathway do, and what does it connect, and what pathway is it part of?

A

Visual attention and Detection of Movement

connects the Retina to the Superior Colliculus

Tectospinal Pathway (novel stimulus/movement)

95
Q

What nucleus is involved in the body’s Master Clock system that is also involved in sympathetic pupillary dilation?

Where is it?

What pathway is this part of?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

This is prior to the Optic Chiasm in the Hypothalamus

Retinohypothalamic Pathway

96
Q

In the pupillary constriction reflex (parasympathetic), what is the response of the eye the light shines into?
Other eye?

A

Direct light response (reflex)

Consensual light response (reflex)

97
Q

Explain the pathway of the pupillary constriction reflex.

A

Light in eye > Pretectal nucleus > bilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus > CN III parasympathetic constricts pupils (mm. of iris) bilaterally

98
Q

Explain the pathway for Pupillary Dilation: (involved in Horner’s)

A

Sympathetic from Hypothalamus > Intermediolateral cell column (lateral horn) of T1-2 > up to Superior Cervical Ganglia > pupillary dilator m. in the iris

99
Q

What is the pathway of the Accomodation-Convergence Reflex?

A

visual stimulus close > superior colliculus > Edinger-Wesphal nucleus > ciliary ganglion > ciliary body > rounds lens

Also, medial rectus and pupil constriction involved (both CN III)

100
Q

What are the terms for dividing the retina both vertically and horizontally?

A

temporal and nasal hemiretinas

superior and inferior hemiretinas

101
Q

What will a craniopharyngioma bisecting the optic chiasm result in?

A

Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

tunnel vision

102
Q

What will interruption of the non-decussating optic fibers result in?

A

Ipsilateral nasal hemianopsia

nasal visual field lost on one side

103
Q

What does a lesion in the cuneus result in?

A

Contralateral lower quadrantic anopsia

104
Q

What causes cortical blindness?

A

Any lesion that interrupts signal from getting to primary visual cortex

105
Q

Temporal lesions may cause

A

contralateral homonymous superior quadantonopia

106
Q

What causes dilated pupils and eyes to go down and out?

A

Uncal herniation (through tentorial notch) by increased supratentorial cranial pressure

(takes out CN III)

107
Q

Presbyopia

A

loss of accommodation due to ageing

108
Q

What causes diabetic retinopathy?

A

leaky vessels and causes clouded vision

109
Q

How does glaucoma work?

A

excessive aqueous humor pushes lens back, which pushes on retina.

can cause blindness

110
Q

Can oxygen cause blindness?

A

yes

111
Q

What does scotoma often accompany?

A

migraines

scintillating photoscotoma is the dancing bright light

112
Q

What does detached retina look like to a pt?

A

floating curtain

113
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with?

A

Endolymph

114
Q

What fluid lies outside the membranous labyrinth?

A

Perilymph

  • space between bony and membranous labyrinths
115
Q

What does the auditory apparatus consist of?

Vestibular apparatus?

A

Cochlea

3 semicircular canals and
a pair of otolith organs: the utricle and saccule

116
Q

What two important pieces of information does the Vestibular System supply to the nervous system?

A

VOR - vestibulo-ocular reflex (reflex of eye movements)

VSR - vestibulospinal reflex (reflex of upright posture)

117
Q

In what 3 planes can the semicircular canals detect acceleration?

A

horizontal
anterior
posterior

118
Q

Where do both ends of each semicircular canal terminate?

A

Utricle

119
Q

What is the enlargement in the semicircular canals?

A

Ampulla

120
Q

What are the specialized receptor cells of the Ampulla?

A

Vestibular hair cells

surrounded by gelatinous mass called CUPULA

121
Q

What is vestibular transduction based on ?

A

Inertia

Endolymph moves and puts pressure on the Ampulla, and creates pressure gradient across the Cupula. this causes bending of hair cells

122
Q

T/F

Vestibular hair cells are only activated by acceleration

A

True

123
Q

What is the one large hair in the vestibular hair cell called? What about the small cells?

A

1 large - Kinocilium

40-70 small - stereocilia

124
Q

What does bending of stereocilia toward kinocilum cause?

what does bending away from kinocilium cause?

A

depolarization (fires VIII)

hyperpolarization (decrease VIII)

125
Q

What does the depolarization/hyperpolarization coupling do for the brain?

A

guarantees these semicircular canals work in concert and the brain receives TWO signals - when one side of the brain is depolarized, other side hyperpolarized

126
Q

What 2 types of information is provided by the Otolith organs (utricle and saccule)

A

linear acceleration and head position with respect to gravity

127
Q

What do hair cells of the Utricle respond to?

Saccule?

A

Linear acceleration (and tilting head forward/backward)

Vertical displacements

128
Q

What are the hair cells of the Utricle and Saccule covered with?

A

gelatinous substance containing Otoliths (otoconia), tiny stones that make them heavier than surrounding fluid

129
Q

What directly stimulates the hair cells of the utricle and saccule in response to movement?

A

otoliths

130
Q

What are the 4 vestibular nuclei?

A

Lateral (Deiter’s)
Medial
Sup.
Inf. vestibular nuclei

131
Q

What does the SVN join with and participate in?

inputs?

A

ascending component of the MLF

vestibulo-ocular reflex (head and eye stabilization)

many inputs

132
Q

What does the LVN (Deiter’s Nucleus) give rise to?

inputs?

A

The LVST (lateral vestibulospinal tract)

antigravity reflex (maintains balance and upright posture)

Utricle input

133
Q

What is the main input of the MVN?

What does it join with?

What reflex does it participate in?

A

ampullae and semicircular ducts

descending and ascending MLF

Vestibulo-ocular reflex (along with SVN)

134
Q

What 2 nuclei participate in the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

A

SVN

MVN

135
Q

What is the IVN’s input and function

A

Input: all vestibular components and the vermis (cerebellum)

integration and postural control

136
Q

Which vestibular nucleus sends output to the cerebral cortex?
occulomotor nuclei?
spinal cord?

A

LVN
SVN/MVN
LMV/MVN/IVN

137
Q

What is the type of vertigo, not associated with tinnitus, that is due to the dislodging of utrical otoliths to the cupula, particularly the posterior semicircular canal (aka cupulolithiasis)?

(otoliths may free-float in semicircular canal - canalithiasis)

A

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

138
Q

What is Acoustic Neuroma (vestibular Schwannoma) a hallmark of?

A

neurofibromatosis 2

139
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

140
Q

What are the two ways to divide the anatomy of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla

Basilar (anterior), Tegmentum (posterior), Tectum (posterior midbrain/rostral pons only)

141
Q

What are the 3 main functional components of the brainstem?

A

Cranial nuclei
white matter tracts
Reticular formation

142
Q

4 somatic motor nuclei of cranial nn.

A

III - occulomotor
IV - trochlear
VI - abducens
XII - hypoglossal

143
Q

4 branchial motor nuclei

A

V - trigeminal motor nuc.
VII - FACIAL NUC.
IX, X - Ambiguous
XI - spinal accessory

144
Q

4 visceral motor/parasympathetic cranial nuclei

A

III - Edinger westphal
VII - Superior Salivatory
IX - Inferior Salivatory
X - Dorsal Motor Vagus

145
Q

General sensory nucleus ALL go to:

A

Trigeminal nuc. (V, VII, IX, X)

146
Q

Visceral and special sensory:

A

Nucleus Solitarius

147
Q

What is the Reticular Formation?

A

Central core of nuclei runs through length of brainstem

148
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the Reticular Formation?

A

Rostral

Caudal

149
Q

Where is the Rostral Reticular Formation (aka pontomesencephalic reticular formation) and what does it regulate?

A

Midbrain, upper pons

regulates alertness (think neurotransmitters), state of consciousness, sleep/wake cycle

150
Q

What is the ARAS, and what is it part of, and where does it go?

A

Ascending Reticular Activating System

Rostral Reticular Formation

numerous cortical regions via Thalamic nuclei

151
Q

Pathology ARAS?

A

classic cause of coma

152
Q

What does the Caudal Reticular Formation (aka pontomedullary reticular formation) do?

A

Important motor, reflex, and autonomic functions

includes respiration, heart rate, bp, involuntary movements - coughing, hiccuping, etc.

153
Q

A lesion in the Rostral Reticular Formation will induce ______, while a lesion in the Caudal Reticular Formation will induce _______.

A

Coma

death (usually stop breathing)

Tim's Cards (140 decks)

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