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Tim's Cards > Oral Pathology Marathon > Flashcards

Oral Pathology Marathon Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of pathologies:

A

Developmental

Hereditary/Genetic

Familial

Congenital

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2
Q

Of the Genetic abnormalities, what % is unknown etiology?

% inherited ?

% known environmental causes?

A

85%

10%

5%

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3
Q

3 Characteristics of Developmental conditions:

A

Present at young age/congenital

Bilaterally symmetrical

Asymptomatic

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4
Q

Without jaw development (type of aplasia):

Small, underdeveloped jaw:

Large jaw:

A

Agnathia

Micrognathia

Macrognathia

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5
Q

Primary Macrognathia:

Secondary (acquired) Macrognathia:

A

Developmental

tumors, acromegaly, Paget’s

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6
Q

A _______ is characterized by multiple different abnormalities

A

Syndrome

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7
Q

Teeth come from what germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

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8
Q

Micrognathia is a type of _____plasia

A

Hypo

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9
Q

Cleft lip/palate is a _______ anomaly occurring ______

A

developmental

1st trimester

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10
Q

Cleft lip occurs in 1/____ white births

A

1/1000

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11
Q

T/F

The etiology of cleft palate is unknown

A

True

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12
Q

Mutations in cleft lip/palate have been shown in how many genes involved in the development of the palat/lip?

A

6-12 genes

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13
Q

The lateral palatal shelves fuse anteriorly at the junction with the _______ and fuse posteriorly

A

Premaxilla

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14
Q

The upper lip (development) is a ______ epithelium

What penetrates/develops into CT and muscle in the upper lip adding bulk?

A

bilayered

Mesoderm

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15
Q

Where does the mesoderm (forms CT/muscle in upper lip) originate?

A

Globular portion of median nasal process and Maxillary processes bilaterally

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16
Q

When a cleft forms there is a lack of ______ penetration

A

Mesoderm

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17
Q

Cleft lip is on the upper lip, off the midline, ___% bilateral

A

20%

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18
Q

Cleft palate is _____ to the Premaxilla over the _____

A

Anterior

Alveolar Ridge

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19
Q

T/F

Bifid Uvula is related to Cleft Palate

A

False

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20
Q

Bifid Uvula is associated with what?

A

submucosal cleft of muscle

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21
Q

Most common cleft?

2nd most common?

Least common?

A

Cleft lip with cleft palate

cleft lip

cleft palate

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22
Q

There are over _____ syndromes that include clefting, making up about ____% of all clefting cases.

A

400

30%

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23
Q

What is the Rule of 10’s in treating cleft lip?

When do you treat cleft Palate?

A

10 weeks old / 10 lbs / 10 gm% Hb

1.5 years

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24
Q

An oft-missed congenital malformation that may be present with other anomalies:

A

Lip pits

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25
Q

T/F

Cleft lip is Familial but not Inherited

A

True

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26
Q

T/F
There isn’t a single gene that gives you clefting, rather 10-12 genes that are involved with the development of your palat

A

True

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27
Q

T/F

Clefting is the result of abnormal genes plus environmental factors

A

True

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28
Q

The palatal shelves fuse anteriorly at the junction with the ________

A

Premaxilla

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29
Q

In Utero, there is nothing in between the bilayered epithelium of the upper lip, but is filled with _______ from the ______ portion of the median nasal process and maxillary process bilaterally

A

mesoderm

globular

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30
Q

T/F

Chelitis glandularis is developmental

A

False

*infection salivary glands lower lip

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31
Q

An infection of the salivary glands of the lower lip, often found in those that work outside (promotes retrograde infection):

A

Chelitis glandularis

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32
Q

T/F

Chelitis glandularis is a premalignant condition

A

False

*does NOT lead to lower lip cancer

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33
Q

Ectopic sebaceous glands that develop after puberty in 80% of the population

A

Fordyce granules

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34
Q

Asymptomatic, superficial yellow plaques that are bilaterally symmetric. (an increase of buccal mucosa)

A

Fordyce granules

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35
Q

T/F

Fordyce granules can be treated

A

False

no treatment, recognition only

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36
Q

Inherited, mostly Autosomal Dominant that genetically programs the over production of collagen:

A

Fibromatosis gingivae

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37
Q

Fibromatosis gingivae can be either ____ or found with ______ and is clinically found to be _______ generalized gingival hyperplasia

A

isolated

syndromes

asymptomatic

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38
Q

T/F

Tx of Fibromatosis gingivae can be surgical but tends to come back

A

True

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39
Q

No tongue development (an aplasia)

Small, underdeveloped tongue

Enlarged, overdeveloped tongue

A

Aglossia

Microglossia

Macroglossia

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40
Q

Macroglossia can either be developmental or acquired by what 2 means?

A

Tumor

Acromegaly

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41
Q

The fusion of the tongue to the floor of the mouth (tongue tied):

A

Ankyloglossia

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42
Q

Bifid or midline fissure of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Cleft Tongue

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43
Q

Deep grooves in the Tongue of unknown etiology (may be genetic) associated with familial pattern of heritability and Age:

A

Fissured tongue

*not associated with anything systemic

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44
Q

2 terms for Geographic Tongue:

A

Benign migratory glossitis

Erythema migrans

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45
Q

T/F

Geographic Tongue is developmental

A

False

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46
Q

Benign Migratory Glossitis (geo tongue) occurs __:__ females to males

On the ___/____ borders of the tongue

Borders color:

A

2:1

Dorsal/Lateral

Yellowish-Whitish

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47
Q

T/F

Benign Migratory Glossitis (geo tongue) is recommended for biopsy and is infectious

A

False to both

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48
Q

Benign Migratory Glossitis may burn or hurt (otherwise asymptomatic)

A

True

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49
Q

Hairy Tongue is hypertrophy of _______ papillae

A

Filiform

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50
Q

Hairy Tongue has unknown etiology, but name 3 predisposing factors:

A

Drugs (ABx, H2O2)

Smoking

Radiation Therapy

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51
Q

What is the Tx for Hairy Tongue?

A

Debridement

CHX

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52
Q

The aging phenomenon of Varix (varicose veins) usually happens where in the mouth?

Also occurs on mouth/lips where color blanches with pressure, but only treated for ______

A

Ventral Tongue

Esthetics

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53
Q

Using a Glass Slide to determine presence of Varix, blanch through the glass to see it better.

A

Diascopy

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54
Q

A Lingual Thyroid Nodule is b/c of a breakdown in the ______ Tract with is a ______ invagination starting ________

A

Thyroglossal Tract

Endodermal

Foramen Cecum

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55
Q

Lingual Thyroid Nodule appears where?

What images?

Tx surgical or ________

A

Posterior, mid dorsal tongue

Radioactive Iodine

Thyroid Replacement Therapy

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56
Q

2 Lymphoid Tissue oral pathologies:

A

Hyperplastic Lingual Tonsil

Lymphoepithelial Cyst

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57
Q

Lymphoepithelial Cysts come from _____ ducts

Are a true cyst, meaning they are lined with what?

Present as superficial ______ bumps

***are common in floor of mouth, ventral lateral tongue

A

Salivary

Epithelium

Yellowish

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58
Q

Tx for Lymphoepithelial Cysts:

A

Excision

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59
Q

Lymphoepithelial Cysts are Asymptomatic

A

True

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60
Q

Developmental Lingual Mandibular Salivary Gland Depression:

Located:

A

Stafne’s Bone Cavity

Below IA canal

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61
Q

In Stafne’s Bone Cavity, the ______ salivary glands develop along the Lingual _____, which produces an indentation

A

Submandibular

Cortex

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62
Q

T/F

Stafne’s Bone Cavity is inflammatory and changes with time

A

False

*to both - no swelling, doesn’t change

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63
Q

Stafne’s Bone Cavity is a ______ diagnosis

A

Radiographic

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64
Q

A group of inherited disorders which program the oral mucosa to abnormally keratinize and generally develop early in life

A

Genokeratoses

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65
Q

The most common Genokeratosis:

Genetically…

A

White sponge nevus

autosomal dominant

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66
Q

White sponge nevus

Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis

Pachyonychia Congenita

Dyskeratosis congenital

Dariers Diseas - keratosis follicularis

A

Genokeratoses

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67
Q

The most common form of Developmental Cyst (non-odontogenic)

A

Incisive Canal Cyst

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68
Q

The Incisive Canal Cyst appears as a Radiolucency of over _____ mm between the roots of the ______

A

6 mm

Max CI’s

69
Q

Incisive Canal Cyst does what to the teeth?

Tx?

Tx complication?

Variant:

A

Moves CI’s apart

Surgical

anesthesia lasts for months

Incisive papilla cyst (outside bone)

70
Q

Most common radiolucency between Maxillary Lateral and Cuspid?

A

Globulomaxillary Cyst

71
Q

The Globulomaxillary Cyst is a ___________ radiolucency btwn Mx LI’s and Cuspids that probably _________

A

asymptomatic

doesn’t really exist

*meaning they are really other cysts/tumors

72
Q

A Cyst from entrapped epithelium during palatal closure producing a Radiolucency at MIDPALATE.

Tx surgical removal

A

Median Palatal Cyst

73
Q

Cyst from the embryologic nasolacrimal duct producing upper lip cyst R or L of midline

A

Naso-alveolar cyst (nasolabial cyst)

74
Q

The Naso-alveolar cyst (nasolabial cyst) is soft, fluctuant, and often elevates what?

3/4 occurs in _______

___% bilateral

Tx:

A

ala

Females

10%

Surgical

75
Q

What cyst classicaly moves when a pt swallows?

A

Thyroglossal duct tract cyst

*goes through hyoid bone

76
Q

The Thyroglossal Duct Cyst is a ______ cyst brom the base of tongue to the thyroid gland

Soft, fluctuant, more likely to occur in _____

Tx:

A

Midline

Females

Surgical

77
Q

Cyst from entrapped salivary gland ducts in the paraparotid lymph nodes

A

Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst (Branchial Cleft Cyst)

78
Q

Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst, aka…

it is a cyst from entrapped ____ glands in the ______ lymph nodes

OR a cyst from _______ arch and pouch development

A

Branchial Cleft Cyst

salivary paraparotid

branchial

79
Q

Epidermoid/Dermoid Cysts occur in the Midline and form from trapped _____ during surface closure

Common in what demographic?

Where?

A

Epithelium

young

FOM, ventral tongue

80
Q

Epidermoid Cysts are lined by what?

Dermoid Cysts are lined by what?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

Stratified Squamous w/ Dermal appendages (sebaceous, sweat, hair follicles)

81
Q

Small teeth:

Large teeth:

A

Microdontia

Macrodontia

82
Q

Attempted division of tooth germ with incomplete formation of 2 teeth, usually a single root

A

Gemination

83
Q

Union of 2 teeth - often individual roots

A

Fusion

84
Q

Fusion of teeth when joined by Cementum:

A

Concrescence

85
Q

Bend or curve in a tooth or root, possibly due to trauma, causing problems with RCT/extraction:

A

Dilaceration

86
Q

Dens Invaginatus

A

Dens in Dente

87
Q

Dens in Dente results from the invagination of the enamel organ before ______

Most often found where?

Can be ______

Often a sequelae of _____ infection

A

calcification

Mx LI’s

bilateral

periapical

88
Q

A toothlike structure found in the Central Fossa:

Where does this happen more often?

A

Dens evaginatus

Mn Premolars

89
Q

Block like teeth with large pulps, associated with Klinefelter’s Syndrome:

This can be one or multiple teeth, isolated or w/ syndromes, or a _____ expression of a gene pool

A

Taurodontism

phenotypic

90
Q

Excess of enamel at a bi or trifurcation of Molars at the CEJ

A

Enamel Pearl

91
Q

A few teeth, not enough:

No teeth (associated w/ systemic probs):

A

Oligodontia

Anodontia

92
Q

Anodontia is most associated with what?

A

Heriditary Ectodermal Dysplasia

93
Q

Supernumerary teeth usually occur where?

Called _____, and usually occurs between ______

A

Maxilla

Mesiodens, Mx CI’s

94
Q

What Syndrome associated with Supernumerary teeth?

What Dysplasia?

A

Garner’s Syndrome

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

95
Q

A Hereditary disturbance in Enamel Structure:

This is a defect in what cell?

Genetic pattern:

How many types?

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta

Ameloblasts

Autosomal dominant, recessive, sex linked

12-15 types

96
Q

Amelogenesis Imperfecta presents clinically what 2 ways?

A

Hypoplasia

Hypocalcification

Hypomaturation

97
Q

Amelogenesis Imperfecta - all teeth, both dentitions, Family Hx

some teeth, one dentition, no family Hx

A

Hereditary

Environmental

98
Q

Rickets, Exanthematous diseases, Congenital Syphylis, Turner’s tooth, Fluorosis, Tetracycline, - can all cause what?

A

Hypoplasia/hypocalcification

*enamel defects

99
Q

Congenital Syphilis causes Hutchinsons…

Mulberry…

A

Incisors

Molars

100
Q

What is a Local Infection or Trauma that can cause Enamel Defects?

A

Turner’s Tooth

101
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is inherited how?

Can be with or independent of what?

Affect what teeth?

A

Dominantly

Osteogenesis imperfecta

all teeth, both dentitions

102
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta affects type ___ Collagen

Teeth look…

Radiographic findings:

Tx:

A

I

grayish to yellowish brown

Obliteration of pulp chambers/canals (may have attrition and root fractures)

Crowns to prevent attrition

103
Q

Autosomal dominant condition characterized by pulpal obliteration with abnormal dentin, defective root formation and tendency for periapical pathology

A

Dentinal Dysplasia

104
Q

Dentinal dysplasia affects all teeth and both dentitions but differs from Dentinogenesis Imperfecta b/c the teeth look_______

Radiographic findings:

A

normal

Obliteration of pulp, short underdeveloped roots, periapical radiolucencies

105
Q

In Dentinal Dysplasia, the teeth look normal, but there is abnormal….

A

Root Formation

106
Q

Regional Odontodysplasia, aka…

Mostly affects ____ teeth

what teeth have increased chance of being unerupted?

A

Ghost teeth

Permanent

Mx

107
Q

Radiographic findings of Regional Odontodysplasia:

A

Thin enamel/dentin anomalous teeth

108
Q

Teeth that lack eruptive force:

*if generalize, think systemic (hypothyroidism)

A

Pseudoanodontia (embedded teeth)

109
Q

Teeth that are unerupted b/c of mechanical block

Most often in the Mn:

Most often in the Mx:

A

Impacted

3M

Canine

110
Q

Tooth roots fused to bone (often in Primary teeth with underlying succedaneous permanent tooth missing)

They have a distinctive _______

***no PDL, fused to bone

A

Ankylosed teeth

percussion

111
Q

Loss of tooth structure occlusally and interproximally due to direct tooth to tooth contact:

If Pathological:

A

Attrition

Bruxism

112
Q

Loss of tooth structure from mechanical force (cervical tooth brushing)

A

Abrasion

113
Q

Loss of tooth structure from chemical process, most often non-bacterial acid dissolusion:

A

Erosion

114
Q

Erosion due to exposure of Gastric Secretions:

A

Perimylosis

115
Q

Loss of tooth structure due to repeated tooth flexure from occlusal stresses

A

Abfraction

116
Q

The combined effect of attrition and abrasion (chewing tobaccos between opposing teeth):

A

Demastication

117
Q

Physiologic deposition of dentin throughout life:

Localized formation of dentin on pulp-dentin border (protective response of pulp to seal itself off from external stimuli):

A

Secondary Dentin

Reparative Dentin

118
Q

Dentinal tubules devoid of cytoplasmic processes of odontoblasts:

A

Dead Tracts

119
Q

3 types of Pulp Calcifications:

A

Denticles

Pulp Stones

Diffuse Linear Calcifications

120
Q

Dentin dysplasia II, Pulpal dysplasia, Regional odontodysplasia, Tumoral calcinosis, Calcinosis universalis, and Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome are all associated with what?

A

Pulpal Calcifications

121
Q

Abnormal thickening of cementum:

A

Hypercementosis

122
Q

Hypercementosis can be localized (trauma/idiopathic) or Generalized, which is associated with what disease?

A

Paget’s

123
Q

Calcification is PDL with no clinical significance:

A

Cementicles

124
Q

External Dental Root Resorption can be Physiologic or Pathologic

A

True

125
Q

Internal Dental Root Resorption presents as what?

Most often occurs following injury to _______

Process continues as long as there is _______

Pathologic, asymptomatic, Pink tooth of _______

A

Radiolucent enlargement of Root Canal/Chamber

Pulp tissue

vital pulp

Mummery

126
Q

Early vascular response to injury is ______ followed by _______

A

vasoconstriction, vasodilation

127
Q

Vasodilation is caused by histamine, prostaglandins, etc

A

True

128
Q

What transforms into fibroblasts during the Inflammatory Stage of Wound Repair?

A

Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

129
Q

in the migratory phase of Fibroplastic stage of wound repair, fibroblasts migrate into the wound following _______ strands

A

Fibrin

130
Q

In the proliferative phase, collagen fibers are laid down in what manner?

A

Haphazardly

131
Q

6 stages of Healing:

A

Early vascular response

Inflammatory stage

Migratory phase

Proliferative phase

Remodeling

Wound contraction

132
Q

5 types of Biopsy:

A

Excisional

Incisional

Punch

Needle (FNA - fine needle aspiration)

Aspiration

133
Q

T/F

A biopsy specimen goes into 10% buffered Formalin

A

True

134
Q

4 biopsy artifacts

A

Crushing (hemostats)

Burning

Anesthetic injection

Fixation

135
Q

Use incisional biopsy if larger than ______

or suspicion of _______

*diagnostic

A

1 cm

malignancy

136
Q

T/F

Use Excisional biopsy if small and confident they are benign

A

True

137
Q

T/F

Do not Excise if think something is malignant

A

True

138
Q

Primary healing

Secondary healing

Tertiary healing

A

wound closes

wound is apart

graft

139
Q

The removal of individual cells - usually does NOT provide definitive diagnosis

A

Cytology

140
Q

3 Indications for Cytology:

A

premalignant/malignant lesions

HSV

Candidosis

141
Q

Cytology for HSV - for what 2 things?

A

Cytopathic viral effect

Multinucleation

142
Q

Oral CDX brush “biopsy” has improved what due to the brush?

improved diagnostic accuracy due to…

is NOT a _______ diagnosis

A

cell harvesting - all cell layers

computer screening

Definitive

143
Q

DIF

IIF

Both detect what?

A

Direct Immnofluorecencse

Indirect Immunofluorecense

Autoantibodies

144
Q

T/F
Reserve Immunofluorescence testing for suspected autoimmune disorders like pemphigus vulgaris, mucous membrane pemphigoid

A

True

145
Q

Most oral diseases are Positive on ______ immunofluorescence but Negative on ________ immunoflurescence

A

Direct

Indirect

146
Q

DIF biopsies cannot be placed in what?

A

traditional fixative

*use transport media

147
Q

Extraction, 1st week healing, blood clot organization begins

A

True

148
Q

Extraction 2nd week healing, organization continues and what degrades?

What proliferates over wound surface?

A

PDL

Epithelium

149
Q

Extraction 3rd week healing, clot is organized into what?

What is formed arising in PDL and adjacent bone?

Alveolar crest rounded off by what?

_____ covers entire surface

A

Granulation tissue

Osteoid

Osteoclasts

Epithelium

150
Q

Extraction 4th week healing, is bone evident on radiographs?

When does it appear?

New bone in alveolar socket will persist for how long?

A

No - not fully calcified

6-8 weeks can see on radiographs

4-6 months

151
Q

Dry Socket, aka…

Caused by loss of what?

A

Localized Acute Alveolar Osteomyelitis

blood clot

152
Q

If a difficult extraction removes Lingual and Buccal bone along with Periosteum, what might occur?

How does this appear on a Radiograph?

A

Fibrous Healing of Extraction Wound

Radiolucent

*may be mistaken for cyst/granuloma

153
Q

Focal Osteoporotic Bone Marrow defect is from marrow expansion and may not be _______

Many are in ______

Might occur in response to what?

Occurs in what sex more frequently?

Where in mouth most frequently?

A

Pathologic

Extraction sockets

chronic anemia

Females (75%)

posterior Mn

154
Q

Fragment of bone in a healing socket after extraction can cause what?

Tissue growing from socket can also be what?

A

Localized Tissue overgrowth

malignancy along path of least resistance

155
Q

Physiologic response of mucosa to chronic physical injury producing hyperkeratosis

This is reversible and presents as a white ______

A

Frictional keratosis

plaque

156
Q

shredded keratinized tissue along linea alba

A

cheek chewing

*morsicatio buccarum

157
Q

Loss of surface epithelium (trauma, more in kids, lateral tongue)

A

Traumatic ulcer

158
Q

Self induced:

A

Factitional

159
Q

Type of Traumatic Ulcer w/ injury to underlying muscle:

(increased prevalence on tongue, rolled borders)

This has the clinical features of what?

A

Traumatic Granuloma

Carcinoma

160
Q

T/F

The silver compounds in an Amalgam Tattoo stain and sometimes a biopsy must be done to rule out melanoma

A

True

161
Q

Extravascular bleeding into tissues, resolves:

Pinpoint bleeding from capillaries (thrombocytopenia vs Local cause):

A

Hematoma

Petechiae

162
Q

1 acute complication to Radiation Therapy for H/N cancer:

When does it arise?

2 chronic complications:

A

Dermatitis Stomatitis

2nd week therapy

Xerostomia, Osteoradionecrosis

163
Q

Chemical burn injuries to the Oral cavity may or may not rub off

A

true

164
Q

3 Drugs causing Generalized Gingival Hyperplasia:

A

Phenytoin/dilantin (epilepsy)

Cyclosporine (immunosuppressant)

Calcium channel blockers (heart)

165
Q

If someone is on Phenytoin/dilantin for epilepsy, what is the chance of developing gingival hyperplasia?

The severity of which is related mostly to what?

A

50%

oral hygiene

166
Q

Heavy metal ingestion presents how?

A

staining of marginal gingiva

167
Q

Type I hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis by what immunoglobulin?

Type IV hypersensitivity is ____ mediated

Angioedema is swelling where?

A

IgE

cell

Lips

168
Q

stomatitis medicamentosa (systemic) is what?

stmatitis venenata (topical) is what?

Cinnamon can cause…

icreased desquamative gingivitis

cheek + buccal mucosa on SAME side suggests

A

Allergy

Tim's Cards (140 decks)

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