Oral Pathology Marathon Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of pathologies:

A

Developmental

Hereditary/Genetic

Familial

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Of the Genetic abnormalities, what % is unknown etiology?

% inherited ?

% known environmental causes?

A

85%

10%

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 Characteristics of Developmental conditions:

A

Present at young age/congenital

Bilaterally symmetrical

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Without jaw development (type of aplasia):

Small, underdeveloped jaw:

Large jaw:

A

Agnathia

Micrognathia

Macrognathia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primary Macrognathia:

Secondary (acquired) Macrognathia:

A

Developmental

tumors, acromegaly, Paget’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A _______ is characterized by multiple different abnormalities

A

Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Teeth come from what germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Micrognathia is a type of _____plasia

A

Hypo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cleft lip/palate is a _______ anomaly occurring ______

A

developmental

1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cleft lip occurs in 1/____ white births

A

1/1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F

The etiology of cleft palate is unknown

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mutations in cleft lip/palate have been shown in how many genes involved in the development of the palat/lip?

A

6-12 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The lateral palatal shelves fuse anteriorly at the junction with the _______ and fuse posteriorly

A

Premaxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The upper lip (development) is a ______ epithelium

What penetrates/develops into CT and muscle in the upper lip adding bulk?

A

bilayered

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does the mesoderm (forms CT/muscle in upper lip) originate?

A

Globular portion of median nasal process and Maxillary processes bilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When a cleft forms there is a lack of ______ penetration

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cleft lip is on the upper lip, off the midline, ___% bilateral

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cleft palate is _____ to the Premaxilla over the _____

A

Anterior

Alveolar Ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F

Bifid Uvula is related to Cleft Palate

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bifid Uvula is associated with what?

A

submucosal cleft of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common cleft?

2nd most common?

Least common?

A

Cleft lip with cleft palate

cleft lip

cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

There are over _____ syndromes that include clefting, making up about ____% of all clefting cases.

A

400

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Rule of 10’s in treating cleft lip?

When do you treat cleft Palate?

A

10 weeks old / 10 lbs / 10 gm% Hb

1.5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An oft-missed congenital malformation that may be present with other anomalies:

A

Lip pits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
T/F | Cleft lip is Familial but not Inherited
True
26
T/F There isn't a single gene that gives you clefting, rather 10-12 genes that are involved with the development of your palat
True
27
T/F | Clefting is the result of abnormal genes plus environmental factors
True
28
The palatal shelves fuse anteriorly at the junction with the ________
Premaxilla
29
In Utero, there is nothing in between the bilayered epithelium of the upper lip, but is filled with _______ from the ______ portion of the median nasal process and maxillary process bilaterally
mesoderm globular
30
T/F | Chelitis glandularis is developmental
False *infection salivary glands lower lip
31
An infection of the salivary glands of the lower lip, often found in those that work outside (promotes retrograde infection):
Chelitis glandularis
32
T/F | Chelitis glandularis is a premalignant condition
False *does NOT lead to lower lip cancer
33
Ectopic sebaceous glands that develop after puberty in 80% of the population
Fordyce granules
34
Asymptomatic, superficial yellow plaques that are bilaterally symmetric. (an increase of buccal mucosa)
Fordyce granules
35
T/F | Fordyce granules can be treated
False no treatment, recognition only
36
Inherited, mostly Autosomal Dominant that genetically programs the over production of collagen:
Fibromatosis gingivae
37
Fibromatosis gingivae can be either ____ or found with ______ and is clinically found to be _______ generalized gingival hyperplasia
isolated syndromes asymptomatic
38
T/F | Tx of Fibromatosis gingivae can be surgical but tends to come back
True
39
No tongue development (an aplasia) Small, underdeveloped tongue Enlarged, overdeveloped tongue
Aglossia Microglossia Macroglossia
40
Macroglossia can either be developmental or acquired by what 2 means?
Tumor Acromegaly
41
The fusion of the tongue to the floor of the mouth (tongue tied):
Ankyloglossia
42
Bifid or midline fissure of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Cleft Tongue
43
Deep grooves in the Tongue of unknown etiology (may be genetic) associated with familial pattern of heritability and Age:
Fissured tongue *not associated with anything systemic
44
2 terms for Geographic Tongue:
Benign migratory glossitis Erythema migrans
45
T/F | Geographic Tongue is developmental
False
46
Benign Migratory Glossitis (geo tongue) occurs __:__ females to males On the ___/____ borders of the tongue Borders color:
2:1 Dorsal/Lateral Yellowish-Whitish
47
T/F | Benign Migratory Glossitis (geo tongue) is recommended for biopsy and is infectious
False to both
48
Benign Migratory Glossitis may burn or hurt (otherwise asymptomatic)
True
49
Hairy Tongue is hypertrophy of _______ papillae
Filiform
50
Hairy Tongue has unknown etiology, but name 3 predisposing factors:
Drugs (ABx, H2O2) Smoking Radiation Therapy
51
What is the Tx for Hairy Tongue?
Debridement CHX
52
The aging phenomenon of Varix (varicose veins) usually happens where in the mouth? Also occurs on mouth/lips where color blanches with pressure, but only treated for ______
Ventral Tongue Esthetics
53
Using a Glass Slide to determine presence of Varix, blanch through the glass to see it better.
Diascopy
54
A Lingual Thyroid Nodule is b/c of a breakdown in the ______ Tract with is a ______ invagination starting ________
Thyroglossal Tract Endodermal Foramen Cecum
55
Lingual Thyroid Nodule appears where? What images? Tx surgical or ________
Posterior, mid dorsal tongue Radioactive Iodine Thyroid Replacement Therapy
56
2 Lymphoid Tissue oral pathologies:
Hyperplastic Lingual Tonsil Lymphoepithelial Cyst
57
Lymphoepithelial Cysts come from _____ ducts Are a true cyst, meaning they are lined with what? Present as superficial ______ bumps ***are common in floor of mouth, ventral lateral tongue
Salivary Epithelium Yellowish
58
Tx for Lymphoepithelial Cysts:
Excision
59
Lymphoepithelial Cysts are Asymptomatic
True
60
Developmental Lingual Mandibular Salivary Gland Depression: Located:
Stafne's Bone Cavity Below IA canal
61
In Stafne's Bone Cavity, the ______ salivary glands develop along the Lingual _____, which produces an indentation
Submandibular Cortex
62
T/F | Stafne's Bone Cavity is inflammatory and changes with time
False *to both - no swelling, doesn't change
63
Stafne's Bone Cavity is a ______ diagnosis
Radiographic
64
A group of inherited disorders which program the oral mucosa to abnormally keratinize and generally develop early in life
Genokeratoses
65
The most common Genokeratosis: Genetically...
White sponge nevus autosomal dominant
66
White sponge nevus Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis Pachyonychia Congenita Dyskeratosis congenital Dariers Diseas - keratosis follicularis
Genokeratoses
67
The most common form of Developmental Cyst (non-odontogenic)
Incisive Canal Cyst
68
The Incisive Canal Cyst appears as a Radiolucency of over _____ mm between the roots of the ______
6 mm Max CI's
69
Incisive Canal Cyst does what to the teeth? Tx? Tx complication? Variant:
Moves CI's apart Surgical anesthesia lasts for months Incisive papilla cyst (outside bone)
70
Most common radiolucency between Maxillary Lateral and Cuspid?
Globulomaxillary Cyst
71
The Globulomaxillary Cyst is a ___________ radiolucency btwn Mx LI's and Cuspids that probably _________
asymptomatic doesn't really exist *meaning they are really other cysts/tumors
72
A Cyst from entrapped epithelium during palatal closure producing a Radiolucency at MIDPALATE. Tx surgical removal
Median Palatal Cyst
73
Cyst from the embryologic nasolacrimal duct producing upper lip cyst R or L of midline
Naso-alveolar cyst (nasolabial cyst)
74
The Naso-alveolar cyst (nasolabial cyst) is soft, fluctuant, and often elevates what? 3/4 occurs in _______ ___% bilateral Tx:
ala Females 10% Surgical
75
What cyst classicaly moves when a pt swallows?
Thyroglossal duct tract cyst *goes through hyoid bone
76
The Thyroglossal Duct Cyst is a ______ cyst brom the base of tongue to the thyroid gland Soft, fluctuant, more likely to occur in _____ Tx:
Midline Females Surgical
77
Cyst from entrapped salivary gland ducts in the paraparotid lymph nodes
Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst (Branchial Cleft Cyst)
78
Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst, aka... it is a cyst from entrapped ____ glands in the ______ lymph nodes OR a cyst from _______ arch and pouch development
Branchial Cleft Cyst salivary paraparotid branchial
79
Epidermoid/Dermoid Cysts occur in the Midline and form from trapped _____ during surface closure Common in what demographic? Where?
Epithelium young FOM, ventral tongue
80
Epidermoid Cysts are lined by what? Dermoid Cysts are lined by what?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium Stratified Squamous w/ Dermal appendages (sebaceous, sweat, hair follicles)
81
Small teeth: Large teeth:
Microdontia Macrodontia
82
Attempted division of tooth germ with incomplete formation of 2 teeth, usually a single root
Gemination
83
Union of 2 teeth - often individual roots
Fusion
84
Fusion of teeth when joined by Cementum:
Concrescence
85
Bend or curve in a tooth or root, possibly due to trauma, causing problems with RCT/extraction:
Dilaceration
86
Dens Invaginatus
Dens in Dente
87
Dens in Dente results from the invagination of the enamel organ before ______ Most often found where? Can be ______ Often a sequelae of _____ infection
calcification Mx LI's bilateral periapical
88
A toothlike structure found in the Central Fossa: Where does this happen more often?
Dens evaginatus Mn Premolars
89
Block like teeth with large pulps, associated with Klinefelter's Syndrome: This can be one or multiple teeth, isolated or w/ syndromes, or a _____ expression of a gene pool
Taurodontism phenotypic
90
Excess of enamel at a bi or trifurcation of Molars at the CEJ
Enamel Pearl
91
A few teeth, not enough: No teeth (associated w/ systemic probs):
Oligodontia Anodontia
92
Anodontia is most associated with what?
Heriditary Ectodermal Dysplasia
93
Supernumerary teeth usually occur where? Called _____, and usually occurs between ______
Maxilla Mesiodens, Mx CI's
94
What Syndrome associated with Supernumerary teeth? What Dysplasia?
Garner's Syndrome Cleidocranial Dysplasia
95
A Hereditary disturbance in Enamel Structure: This is a defect in what cell? Genetic pattern: How many types?
Amelogenesis imperfecta Ameloblasts Autosomal dominant, recessive, sex linked 12-15 types
96
Amelogenesis Imperfecta presents clinically what 2 ways?
Hypoplasia Hypocalcification Hypomaturation
97
Amelogenesis Imperfecta - all teeth, both dentitions, Family Hx some teeth, one dentition, no family Hx
Hereditary Environmental
98
Rickets, Exanthematous diseases, Congenital Syphylis, Turner's tooth, Fluorosis, Tetracycline, - can all cause what?
Hypoplasia/hypocalcification *enamel defects
99
Congenital Syphilis causes Hutchinsons... Mulberry...
Incisors Molars
100
What is a Local Infection or Trauma that can cause Enamel Defects?
Turner's Tooth
101
Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is inherited how? Can be with or independent of what? Affect what teeth?
Dominantly Osteogenesis imperfecta all teeth, both dentitions
102
Dentinogenesis Imperfecta affects type ___ Collagen Teeth look... Radiographic findings: Tx:
I grayish to yellowish brown Obliteration of pulp chambers/canals (may have attrition and root fractures) Crowns to prevent attrition
103
Autosomal dominant condition characterized by pulpal obliteration with abnormal dentin, defective root formation and tendency for periapical pathology
Dentinal Dysplasia
104
Dentinal dysplasia affects all teeth and both dentitions but differs from Dentinogenesis Imperfecta b/c the teeth look_______ Radiographic findings:
normal Obliteration of pulp, short underdeveloped roots, periapical radiolucencies
105
In Dentinal Dysplasia, the teeth look normal, but there is abnormal....
Root Formation
106
Regional Odontodysplasia, aka... Mostly affects ____ teeth what teeth have increased chance of being unerupted?
Ghost teeth Permanent Mx
107
Radiographic findings of Regional Odontodysplasia:
Thin enamel/dentin anomalous teeth
108
Teeth that lack eruptive force: *if generalize, think systemic (hypothyroidism)
Pseudoanodontia (embedded teeth)
109
Teeth that are unerupted b/c of mechanical block Most often in the Mn: Most often in the Mx:
Impacted 3M Canine
110
Tooth roots fused to bone (often in Primary teeth with underlying succedaneous permanent tooth missing) They have a distinctive _______ ***no PDL, fused to bone
Ankylosed teeth percussion
111
Loss of tooth structure occlusally and interproximally due to direct tooth to tooth contact: If Pathological:
Attrition Bruxism
112
Loss of tooth structure from mechanical force (cervical tooth brushing)
Abrasion
113
Loss of tooth structure from chemical process, most often non-bacterial acid dissolusion:
Erosion
114
Erosion due to exposure of Gastric Secretions:
Perimylosis
115
Loss of tooth structure due to repeated tooth flexure from occlusal stresses
Abfraction
116
The combined effect of attrition and abrasion (chewing tobaccos between opposing teeth):
Demastication
117
Physiologic deposition of dentin throughout life: Localized formation of dentin on pulp-dentin border (protective response of pulp to seal itself off from external stimuli):
Secondary Dentin Reparative Dentin
118
Dentinal tubules devoid of cytoplasmic processes of odontoblasts:
Dead Tracts
119
3 types of Pulp Calcifications:
Denticles Pulp Stones Diffuse Linear Calcifications
120
Dentin dysplasia II, Pulpal dysplasia, Regional odontodysplasia, Tumoral calcinosis, Calcinosis universalis, and Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome are all associated with what?
Pulpal Calcifications
121
Abnormal thickening of cementum:
Hypercementosis
122
Hypercementosis can be localized (trauma/idiopathic) or Generalized, which is associated with what disease?
Paget's
123
Calcification is PDL with no clinical significance:
Cementicles
124
External Dental Root Resorption can be Physiologic or Pathologic
True
125
Internal Dental Root Resorption presents as what? Most often occurs following injury to _______ Process continues as long as there is _______ Pathologic, asymptomatic, Pink tooth of _______
Radiolucent enlargement of Root Canal/Chamber Pulp tissue vital pulp Mummery
126
Early vascular response to injury is ______ followed by _______
vasoconstriction, vasodilation
127
Vasodilation is caused by histamine, prostaglandins, etc
True
128
What transforms into fibroblasts during the Inflammatory Stage of Wound Repair?
Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
129
in the migratory phase of Fibroplastic stage of wound repair, fibroblasts migrate into the wound following _______ strands
Fibrin
130
In the proliferative phase, collagen fibers are laid down in what manner?
Haphazardly
131
6 stages of Healing:
Early vascular response Inflammatory stage Migratory phase Proliferative phase Remodeling Wound contraction
132
5 types of Biopsy:
Excisional Incisional Punch Needle (FNA - fine needle aspiration) Aspiration
133
T/F | A biopsy specimen goes into 10% buffered Formalin
True
134
4 biopsy artifacts
Crushing (hemostats) Burning Anesthetic injection Fixation
135
Use incisional biopsy if larger than ______ or suspicion of _______ *diagnostic
1 cm malignancy
136
T/F | Use Excisional biopsy if small and confident they are benign
True
137
T/F | Do not Excise if think something is malignant
True
138
Primary healing Secondary healing Tertiary healing
wound closes wound is apart graft
139
The removal of individual cells - usually does NOT provide definitive diagnosis
Cytology
140
3 Indications for Cytology:
premalignant/malignant lesions HSV Candidosis
141
Cytology for HSV - for what 2 things?
Cytopathic viral effect Multinucleation
142
Oral CDX brush "biopsy" has improved what due to the brush? improved diagnostic accuracy due to... is NOT a _______ diagnosis
cell harvesting - all cell layers computer screening Definitive
143
DIF IIF Both detect what?
Direct Immnofluorecencse Indirect Immunofluorecense Autoantibodies
144
T/F Reserve Immunofluorescence testing for suspected autoimmune disorders like pemphigus vulgaris, mucous membrane pemphigoid
True
145
Most oral diseases are Positive on ______ immunofluorescence but Negative on ________ immunoflurescence
Direct Indirect
146
DIF biopsies cannot be placed in what?
traditional fixative *use transport media
147
Extraction, 1st week healing, blood clot organization begins
True
148
Extraction 2nd week healing, organization continues and what degrades? What proliferates over wound surface?
PDL Epithelium
149
Extraction 3rd week healing, clot is organized into what? What is formed arising in PDL and adjacent bone? Alveolar crest rounded off by what? _____ covers entire surface
Granulation tissue Osteoid Osteoclasts Epithelium
150
Extraction 4th week healing, is bone evident on radiographs? When does it appear? New bone in alveolar socket will persist for how long?
No - not fully calcified 6-8 weeks can see on radiographs 4-6 months
151
Dry Socket, aka... Caused by loss of what?
Localized Acute Alveolar Osteomyelitis blood clot
152
If a difficult extraction removes Lingual and Buccal bone along with Periosteum, what might occur? How does this appear on a Radiograph?
Fibrous Healing of Extraction Wound Radiolucent *may be mistaken for cyst/granuloma
153
Focal Osteoporotic Bone Marrow defect is from marrow expansion and may not be _______ Many are in ______ Might occur in response to what? Occurs in what sex more frequently? Where in mouth most frequently?
Pathologic Extraction sockets chronic anemia Females (75%) posterior Mn
154
Fragment of bone in a healing socket after extraction can cause what? Tissue growing from socket can also be what?
Localized Tissue overgrowth malignancy along path of least resistance
155
Physiologic response of mucosa to chronic physical injury producing hyperkeratosis This is reversible and presents as a white ______
Frictional keratosis plaque
156
shredded keratinized tissue along linea alba
cheek chewing *morsicatio buccarum
157
Loss of surface epithelium (trauma, more in kids, lateral tongue)
Traumatic ulcer
158
Self induced:
Factitional
159
Type of Traumatic Ulcer w/ injury to underlying muscle: (increased prevalence on tongue, rolled borders) This has the clinical features of what?
Traumatic Granuloma Carcinoma
160
T/F | The silver compounds in an Amalgam Tattoo stain and sometimes a biopsy must be done to rule out melanoma
True
161
Extravascular bleeding into tissues, resolves: Pinpoint bleeding from capillaries (thrombocytopenia vs Local cause):
Hematoma Petechiae
162
1 acute complication to Radiation Therapy for H/N cancer: When does it arise? 2 chronic complications:
Dermatitis Stomatitis 2nd week therapy Xerostomia, Osteoradionecrosis
163
Chemical burn injuries to the Oral cavity may or may not rub off
true
164
3 Drugs causing Generalized Gingival Hyperplasia:
Phenytoin/dilantin (epilepsy) Cyclosporine (immunosuppressant) Calcium channel blockers (heart)
165
If someone is on Phenytoin/dilantin for epilepsy, what is the chance of developing gingival hyperplasia? The severity of which is related mostly to what?
50% oral hygiene
166
Heavy metal ingestion presents how?
staining of marginal gingiva
167
Type I hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis by what immunoglobulin? Type IV hypersensitivity is ____ mediated Angioedema is swelling where?
IgE cell Lips
168
stomatitis medicamentosa (systemic) is what? stmatitis venenata (topical) is what? Cinnamon can cause... icreased desquamative gingivitis cheek + buccal mucosa on SAME side suggests
Allergy