Haematology/ Abnormal White Cell Counts Flashcards

1
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Abnormally increased number of white blood cells

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2
Q

What are the causes of leukocytosis?

A
  • Leukemoid reaction (reaction of healthy bone marrow to extreme stress)
  • reactive leukocytosis (as a response to fever, infection, etc)
  • malignancy
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3
Q

Patients with infections can always have a high white count. True or false?

A

False.

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4
Q

Allergies, asthma, and parasitic infections are associated with an increase in what type of white blood cells?

A

Eosinophils

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5
Q

Acute bacterial infections, especially pyogenic infections, are associated with an increase in what type of white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

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6
Q

Viral infections are associated with an increase in what type of white blood cell?

A

Lymphocytes

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7
Q

Patients with leukemia can have a high, normal, or low white count. True or false?

A

True (depends on the subtype and stage of disease)

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8
Q

What signs and symptoms are common among people with leukemia or lymphoma? (11)

A
  • Fever and night sweats
  • frequent infections
  • pancytopenia (fatigue from anemia, petechiae, easy bruising, etc
  • enlarged lymph nodes
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • abdominal discomfort
  • loss of appetite
  • weight loss
  • bone pain
  • chest pain
  • shortness of breath
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9
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with malignancy with translocation of Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

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10
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) positive and upregulation of annexin A1 (ANXA1)?

A
  • Hairy cell leukemia (when viewed under microscope the malignant B lymphocytes appear to have tiny hair-like projections)
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11
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with Bence-Jones protein, renal failure, hypercalcemia, anemia, lytic bone lesions, and pathologic fractures?

A

Multiple myeloma (malignant plasma cells)

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12
Q

What blood cell disease is associated with most common leukemia in the United States; more common in men and the elderly?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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13
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with common childhood cancer?

A

Leukemia (of which, acute lymphocytic leukemia is most common)

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14
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells, bi-modal age distribution of disease, Epstein-Barr virus infection?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

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15
Q

What white blood cell disease is associated with a recessive disease (gene carried by 1 in 100 Americans), most common lysosomal storage disease, enzyme deficiency causes glucocerebroside accumulation in cells, hypersplenism with subsequent pancytopenia

A

Gaucher disease

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16
Q

The following are all examples of what type of hematologic malignancy: Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, Burkitt lymphoma, Sezary syndrome, and follicular lymphoma?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

17
Q

What is leukopenia?

A
  • Abnormally decreased numbers of white blood cells caused by decreased production or increased destruction of white blood cells.
  • Leukopenia may be an isolated finding but often occurs with pancytopenia.
18
Q

What is the most common subtype of leukopenia?

A

Neutropenia is the most common leukopenia.

19
Q

Causes of Leukopenia

A
20
Q

What is the mechanism of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission?

A

Contact with infected blood and body fluids, or vertical transmission from mother to fetus

21
Q

What screening test is used for HIV?

A

HIV enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

22
Q

What confirmatory test is used for HIV?

A

Western blot

23
Q

What groups of patients are at increased risk for HIV infection?

A
  • Men who have sex with men
  • persons who have unprotected sex with multiple partners
  • an HIV-infected partner or a bisexual partner
  • persons who exchange money or drugs for sex
  • persons being treated for STDs
  • intravenous (IV) drug users
  • persons who received a blood transfusion between 1978 and 1985
24
Q

Why is HIV-1 RN A viral load by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) a useful test in the early HIV infection?

A

ELISA and Western blot can be negative because antibodies have not been formed, but viral load is high.

25
Q

Why is HIV-1 RN A viral load by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) a useful test in HIV in neonates?

A

Cannot use serologic tests since mother’s antibodies are passed through placenta and would result in false positive tests

26
Q

What lab tests are used to monitor disease progression in HIV?

A
  • CD4 count
  • viral load
27
Q

What determines whether a patient has AIDS?(4)

A
  • HIV positive plus at least one of the following:
    • CD4 count <200
    • opportunistic infection
    • B-cell malignancy or
    • Kaposi sarcoma
28
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

29
Q

What is the best predictor of an HIV patient’s susceptibility to infection? What infections is a patient susceptible to when the CD4 count is

A

CD4 count

30
Q

What infections is a patient susceptible to when the CD4 count is < 500?

A
  • Candida
  • TB
  • herpes simplex virus (HSV)
  • varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
31
Q

What infections is a patient susceptible to when the CD4 count is less than 200?

A
  • PCP
  • Toxoplasma
  • Cryptococcus
  • Histoplasma
  • Coccidioides
  • Bartonella
32
Q

What infections is a patient susceptible to when the CD4 count is less than 50-100?

A
  • Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • Bacillary angiomatosis (disseminated Bartonella)
  • CNS lymphoma
  • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
33
Q

What medications are given to HIV patients as prophylaxis for opportunistic infections, based on a CD4 count of Less than 200?

A

TMP/SMX DS daily (prophylaxis vs. PCP)

34
Q

What medications are given to HIV patients as prophylaxis for opportunistic infections, based on a CD4 count of less than 150?

A

Itraconazole 200 mg daily (if in endemic area for histoplasmosis)

35
Q

What medications are given to HIV patients as prophylaxis for opportunistic infections, based on a CD4 count of less than 100?

A

TMP/SMX DS daily (prophylaxis vs. toxoplasmosis)

36
Q

What medications are given to HIV patients as prophylaxis for opportunistic infections, based on a CD4 count of less than 50?

A

Azithromycin 1250 mg every week (prophylaxis vs. MAC)

37
Q

Name the four classes of medication used in HAART?

A
  1. Protease inhibitors (PIs)
  2. Nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
  3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
  4. Fusion inhibitors (FIs)
38
Q

Which vaccinations should be provided to all HIV patients?

A
  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • pneumococcus
  • influenza (intramuscular)
  • tetanus
39
Q

Which vaccinations should be avoided in HIV patients?

A

vaccines which contain live viruses:

  • measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) and varicella (unless the patient is asymptomatic and with a CD4 count >200)
  • nasal influenza vaccine