Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 2 > Genitourinary: Part 3 > Flashcards

Genitourinary: Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What people are effected by minimal change disease

A

Boys under 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes minimal change disease

A

Idiopathic

Atrophy and allergic reactions can trigger nephrotic syndrome

Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drugs can cause minimal change disease

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Lithium
  3. Antibiotics (CEPHALOSPORIN, RIFAMPICIN)
  4. Bisphosphonates
  5. Sulfasalazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease is associated with minimal change disease

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pathophysiology of minimal change disease

A

NORMAL glomeruli on light microscopy

FUSION of foot processes of the podocytes on electron microscopy due to disrupted podocyte actin cytoskeleton

Immature differentiating CD35 stem cells are responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical presentation of of minimal change disease

A
  1. Proteinuria
  2. Periorbital oedema
  3. Fatigue
  4. Frothy urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnosis of minimal change disease

A
  1. BIOPSY:
    - normal under light microscopy
    - Electron microscopy shows FUSED PODOCYTE FOOT PROCESSES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is minimal change disease treated

A
  1. PREDNISOLONE (reverses proteinuria)

2. CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE or CYCLOSPORIN for relapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can cause asymptomatic urinary abnormalities

A
  1. IgA nephropathy

2. Thin Membrane disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is IgA nephropathy treated

A

RAMIPRIL and CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is thin membrane disease

A

More likely to leak blood into urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define CKD

A

Long standing, progressive, impairment in renal function for more than 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GFR threshold for CKD

A

GFR < 60mL/min/1.73 M^2 for more than 3 months with/without evidence of kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What gender is effected in CKD

A

FEMALES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What GFR threshold defines established renal failure

A

<15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can cause CKD

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hypertension
  3. Atheroscloertic renal vascular disease
  4. Polycystic kidney disease
  5. Tuberous sclerosis
  6. Primary glomerulonephritides (IgA nephropathy)
  7. SLE
  8. Amyloidosis
  9. Hypertensive nephrosclerosis (common in black africans)
  10. Small and medium-sized vessel vasculitis
  11. Family history of stage 5 CKD or hereditary kidney disease
  12. Hypercalcaemia
  13. Neoplasma
  14. Myeloma
  15. Idiopathic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risk factors for CKD

A
  1. Diabetes Mellitus
  2. Hypertension
  3. Old Age
  4. CVD
  5. Renal stones or benign prostatic hyperplasia
  6. Recurrent UTIs
  7. SLE
  8. Proteinuria
  9. AKI
  10. Smoking
  11. African, afro-caribbean or asian origin
  12. Chronic use of NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can CKD progress to

A

End-stage kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Factors effecting speed of decline in CKD

A

Underlying nephropathy and BP control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens in CKD

A
  1. Nephrons failed and burden of filtration falls on fewer functioning nephrons
  2. Functioning nephrons experience increased flow per nephron as blood flow has not changed, and adapt with glomerular hypertrophy and reduced arteriolar resistance
  3. Increased flow, increased pressure and increased shear stress set in motion a VICIOUS CYCLE of raised intraglomerular capillary pressure and strain which accelerates remnant nephron failure

PROTEINURIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ROLE OF ANGIOTENSIN II

A

Produced locally, modulates intraglomerular capillary pressure and GFR, causing vasoconstriction of postglomerular arterioles and increasing the glomerular hydraulic pressure and filtration fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does angiotensin II effect mesangial cells and podocytes

A

Increases pore size and impairs the size-selective function of the basement membrane for macromolecules - increased proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What molecules does angiotensin II up regulate

A

TGF-beta and PAI-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Result of angiotensin II up regulating TGF-beta

A

Increases collagen synthesis and epithelial cell transdifferentiation to myofibroblasts that contribute to excessive matrix formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is PAI-1

A

Plasminogen activator inhibitor - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Role of PAI-1

A

Inhibits matrix proteolysis by plasmin - results in accumulation of excessive matrix and scarring in both the glomeruli and interstitium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical presentation of CKD

A
  1. Early symptomatic as kidney has a lot of reserve
  2. Serum urea and creatinine are raised
  3. Malaise
  4. Anorexia and weight loss
  5. Insomnia
  6. Nocturne and polyuria due to impaired concentrating ability
  7. Pruritus
  8. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
  9. Symptoms due to salt and water retention (PULMONARY OEDEMA or peripheral oedema)
  10. Amenorrhea in women and erectile dysfunction in men
    11.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

At what concentration do uraemic symptoms appear

A

40mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Complications of CKD

A
  1. Anaemia
  2. Bone disease
  3. Neurological syndromes
  4. CVD
  5. Skin disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What anaemia occurs in CKD

A

Normochromic normocytic anaemia due to decreased ERYTHROPOIETIN secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What bone diseases are associated with CKD

A
  1. Bone pain
  2. Renal osteodystrophy - osteomalacia, osteoporosis, hyperparathyroidism
  3. Renal phosphate retention and impaired 1,25(dihydroxy) Vit D production = loss in ca and compensatory PTH = skeletal decalcification leading to bone disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Neurological effects in CKD

A
  1. Autonomic dysfunction = postural hypotension and disturbed GI motility
  2. Polyneuropathy resulting in peripheral paraesthesiae and weakness
  3. Advanced uraemia = depressed cerebral function (loss of consciousness) and myoclonic twitching and seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What CVD risk are there with CKD

A
  1. MI, Cardiac failure, stroke
  2. Increased frequency of hypertension , hyperlipidaemia and vascular calcification
  3. Pericarditis and pericardial effusion due to ANAEMIA
  4. Pericardial friction rub
  5. Flow murmurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Skin disease in CKD

A
  1. Pruritus due to urea’s nitrogenous waste product

2. Brown discolouration in nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Differential diagnosis of CKD

A

AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can i distinguish between AKI and CKD

A
  1. Duration of symptoms
  2. History
  3. Previous urinalysis
  4. Normocytic anaemia, small kidneys on ultrasound and presence of renal osteodystrophy = CKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Diagnosis of CKD

A
  1. ECG for high K signs
  2. Urinalysis
  3. Urine microscopy
  4. FBC
  5. Immunology
  6. Imaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Urinalysis in CKD

A
  1. Proteinuria
  2. Haematuria
  3. Mid-stream urine sample
  4. Albumin to creatinine ratio OR protein to creatinine ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would be seen in urine microscopy for CKD

A
  1. White cells = bacterial UTI
  2. Eosinophilia = allergic tubulointerstitial nephrotis/cholesterol emboli
  3. Granular casts - active renal disease
  4. Red cells = glomerulonephritis
40
Q

FBC in CKD

A
  1. Urea
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Bicarbonate
  4. Creatinine HIGH
  5. Low eGFR
  6. Raised alkaline phosphatase due to renal osteodystrophy
  7. Raised PTH if CKD is in stage 3
  8. Anaemia
  9. Fragmented red cells due to haemolysis
  10. Raised viscosity
41
Q

What conditions can cause CKD

A
  1. Auto-antibody screening for SLE, scleroderma and good pastures
  2. Hep B, C, HIV and streptococcal antigen tests
42
Q

What imagine is used to diagnose CKD

A
  1. Ultrasound
  2. CT
  3. Biopsy
43
Q

Why is ultrasound used in CKD

A
  1. Check renal size and exclude hydronephrosis
44
Q

Why is CT used in CKD

A
  1. Detect stones, retroperitoneal fibrosis and other causes of urinary obstruction
45
Q

What is retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Abnormal formation of tissue occurs behind cavity of perioenium, spreads to tubes that carries urine

46
Q

3 main areas of treatment to CKD

A
  1. Slow deterioration of kidney function
  2. Reduce CVD risk
  3. Treat complications (anaemia)
47
Q

How do we identify and treat reversible causes of CKD

A
  1. Relieve obstruction
  2. Stop nephrotoxic drugs
  3. Stop smoking and achieve healthy weight to deal with CVD risk
  4. Tight glucose control in diabetics
48
Q

How do we limit BP complications of CKD

A
  1. ACEI - RAMPRIL
  2. ARBs (CANESARTAN)
  3. Diuretics (ORAL BENDROFLUMETHIAZIDE)
  4. VERAPAMIL (calcium channel blocker)
49
Q

In diabetes what drugs is given as first line treatment of BP

A

CANDESARTAN

50
Q

How is bone disease caused in CKD treated

A
  1. monitor PTh levels = restrict dietary phosphate
  2. Give phosphate binders to decrease absorption
  3. CALCITRIOL
51
Q

How is CVD complications caused by CKD treated

A

SIMVASTATIN

ASPIRIN

52
Q

How is anaemia treated

A

Iron/oflate

53
Q

How is acidosis treated

A

Sodium Bicarbonaye

54
Q

How is Oedema treated

A

Furosemide

55
Q

What is the best form of renal replacement therapy

A

Transplantation

56
Q

Indications for dialysis

A
  1. Sympatic uraemia = pericarditis or tamponade
  2. Hyperkalaemia not controlled by conservative measures
  3. Severe acids
  4. Pulmonary oedema not responsive to diuretics
  5. Tall T waves, flat P waves, broad QRS complex or arrhythmias
  6. Metabolic acidosis
  7. Fluid overload resistant to diuretics
57
Q

How does haemofiltration work

A

Achieves blood flow using a blood pump to draw and return blood from the lumen of a dual-lumen catheter placed in the jugular, subclavian or femoral vein

Ultrafiltrate is continuously removed from patient combined with simultaneous infusion of replacement solution

Less haemodynamic instability than haemodialysis

58
Q

How does haemodialysis work

A
  1. Blood is passed over a semi-permeable membrane against dialysis fluid flowing in the opposite direction, thus blood always meets a less-concentrated solution

Blood is taken from artery and returned into a vein at atrioventricular fistula

59
Q

Cons of haemodialysis

A

Larger solutes of not clear as effectively

Time-consuming

60
Q

Pros of haemodiyalysis

A

Allows good clearance of solutes in short periods but requires patient to be haemodynamically stable

61
Q

IF a patient has an AV fistula how is haemodialysis done

A

A synthetic graft is used as you don’t need to wait for a vein dilatation

62
Q

Complications of haemodialysis

A
  1. Hypotension/Cramps
  2. Nausea/headache
  3. Chest pain
  4. Fever/rigors
  5. Infected dialysis catheter
63
Q

When is peritoneal dialysis used

64
Q

How does peritoneal dialysis work

A
  1. Uses peritoneum in the abdomen as a membrane which fluids and solutes are exchanged in the blood
65
Q

When is peritoneal dialysis done

A

Home at night

66
Q

Complications of peritoneal dialysis

A
  1. Infection (peritonitis)
  2. Abdo wall herniation
  3. Intestinal perforation
  4. Loss of membrane function over time
67
Q

Complications of RRTs

A
  1. MI
  2. INFECTION
  3. Amyloid accumulates in long-term dialysis = carpal tunnel syndrome, arthralgia nd fractures
  4. Malignancy
68
Q

When do renal cysts become more common

A

As age advances

69
Q

When are kidney cysts found

A

Ultrasound examination

70
Q

Types of kidney cysts

A
  1. Simple cysts - benign
  2. Polycystic
  3. Hydronephrosis when ureter blocks
  4. Dysplasia - when not formed properly
  5. Medullary sponge - dilatation of collecting ducts
  6. Acquired cystic disease - medullary uraemia, dialysis cystic
71
Q

Types of kidney cysts

A
  1. Simple cysts - benign
  2. Polycystic
  3. Hydronephrosis when ureter blocks
  4. Dysplasia - when not formed properly
  5. Medullary sponge - dilatation of collecting ducts
  6. Acquired cystic disease - medullary uraemia, dialysis cystic
72
Q

How does congenital renal cysts occur

A
  1. Genetic mutation leaves predisposition
  2. Increased abnormal cell hyper proliferation -> loss of planar polarity -> cysts initiation -> fluid secretion of epithelial cells -> cyst
73
Q

How long does it take for renal simple cysts to form

74
Q

What condition can cause cysts to form

75
Q

What drug can cause CKD

76
Q

When is lithium given

A

Depression

77
Q

What can cause renal cyst syndrome

A

Tuberous sclerosis

78
Q

What is autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A

Where multiple cysts develop, gradually and progressively thought the kidney eventually resulting in renal enlargement and kidney tissue destruction

79
Q

When does ADPKD arise

A

Males in adulthood

80
Q

Chance of transmission if one parent is effected with ADPKD

81
Q

In ADPKD, where does genetic mutations occur

A

Chromosome 16 (85%)

Chromosome 4 (15%)

82
Q

What gene does PKD1 code for

A

Plycystin 1 which is involved in cell-cell interactions - regulates tubular and vascular development of kidney

83
Q

What protein does PKD2 code for

A

Polycystic 2 which functions as calcium ion channels

84
Q

What is the role of polycystic complex that occurs in the cilia

A

Senses flow in tubule

85
Q

Consequence of disruption of polycystic pathway

A

Reduced cytoplasmic ca in principal cells of collecting ducts, causes defective ciliary signalling and disorientated cell division = cyst formation

86
Q

What causes progressive loss of renal function in ADPKD

A

progressive loss of renal function due to mechanical compression, apoptosis of healthy tissue and reactive fibrosis

87
Q

What factors contribute to decline of renal function in ADPKD

A

Growth and size of cyst
Rate of growth

Patients with rapidly growing cysts on MRI lose function more rapidly

88
Q

Clinical presentation of ADPKD

A
  1. Asymptomatic (screening ended) until 20
  2. Loin pain and haematuria from haemorrhage , cyst infection or stone formation
  3. Excessive water and salt loss
  4. Nocturne
  5. Bilateral kidney enlargement
  6. Renal colic due to clots
  7. Hypertension
  8. Renal stones (uric acid)
  9. progressive renal failure
    1
89
Q

Extra renal presentation of ADPKD

A
  1. Subarachnoid haemorrhage due to berry aneurysm rupture
  2. Polycystic liver disease
  3. Pancreatitis
  4. Mitral valve prolapse
  5. Ovarian cyst
  6. Diverticular disease
90
Q

Differential diagnosis of ADPKD

A
  1. Simple cysts
  2. Autosomal recessive PKD
  3. Medullary sponge kidney
  4. Tuberous sclerosis
91
Q

How is ADPKD diagnosed

A
  1. Family history
  2. BP raised
  3. ULTRASOUND
92
Q

Diagnosis classification of ADPKD

A
  1. 15-39 yrs > 3 cysts
  2. 40-59 years < 2 cysts (each kidney
  3. 60 years > 4 cysts in each kidney
93
Q

When do you exclude ADPKD

A

greater than 40 and less than 2 cysts present

94
Q

When can you not exclude ADPKD by ultrasound

A

Less than 30 years

95
Q

How is ADPKD treated

A
  1. BP control - RAMIPRIL
  2. Treat stones + analgesia
  3. Laparoscopic removal of cyst
  4. Disease progression monitored by serum creatinine
  5. Renal replacement therapy for ESRF
  6. Children and siblings of patients with the disease should be offered screening by renal ultrasound in 20s
  7. Counselling and support

Year 2 (155 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions