Bacteria as causes of diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the resolving power of the naked eye

A

100 micrometers

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2
Q

What is the resolving power of a light microscope

A

0.2 micrometer

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3
Q

Nomenclature of bacteria

A

Genus followed by species name

e.g. Staphylococcus (genus) aureus (species)

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4
Q

Define pathogen

A

Organism that causes disease

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5
Q

Define commensals

A

Organism which colonises the host but causes no disease in normal circumstances

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6
Q

Define Opportunist Pathogen

A

Microbe that only causes disease if host defences are compromised

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7
Q

Define Virulence/Pathogenicity

A

The degree to which a given organism is pathogenic

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8
Q

Define asymptomatic carriage

A

When a pathogen is carried harmlessly at a tissue site where it causes no disease

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9
Q

What does Trypanosoma Gambiense cause

A

Sleeping sickness

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10
Q

What do entamoeba histolytic cause

A

Amoebic dysentery

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11
Q

What are trypanosomes and entamoeba examples of

A

Eukaryotic cells

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12
Q

What does Borrellia recurrent cause

A

recurring fever

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13
Q

What does Borrellia Burgdorferi cause

A

Lyme disease

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14
Q

What does treponema palladium cause

A

Syphillis

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15
Q

What are Borrellia and Treponema palladium

A

Spiral bacteria

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16
Q

What does rotavirus cause

A

Vomiting and Diarrhea

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17
Q

What areas are open to bacteria

A
ALL mucosal surfaces
Skin
Beginning of urethra
Kidneys
Colon 
Mouth
Eyes
Anus
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18
Q

Are the lungs prone to bacterial colonisation

A

No, they should be sterile

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19
Q

What two shapes are most bacteria found in

A

Round (cocci)

Rod-shaped (bacilli)

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20
Q

How do gam stains help identify bacteria

A

Divides them into either gram positive or negative bacteria

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21
Q

How do we know what bacteria is gram positive

A

Stains purple

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22
Q

How do we know what bacteria is gram negative

A

Stains pink

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23
Q

What are two cocci gram positive bacteria called

A

diplococcus

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24
Q

What is a vibrio

A

Curved rod

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25
Q

What is a spirochaete

A

A spiral rod

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26
Q

Examples of spiral rods

A

Borrellia and Treponema palladium

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27
Q

Describe the structure of a bacteria

A

In order:

  1. Inner membrane
  2. Outer membrane
  3. Cell wall
  4. Capsule
    - ——
  5. Single chromosome of circular double stranded DNA free floating
  6. Pilli projecting from outermsmbrane into area (leg-like projections)
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28
Q

What bacteria has a double membrane

A

Gram negative

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29
Q

What bacteria has a single membrane

A

Gram positive

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30
Q

role of pilli

A

Used to attach to the host

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31
Q

Role of capsule

A

Protect from immune system/complement system

Difficult for immune system to recognise bacteria

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32
Q

Structure of a gram positive bacteria envelope

A
  1. Single cytoplasmic membrane
  2. Layer of peptidoglycan attached to outer part of cytoplasmic membrane
  3. Capsule
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33
Q

What binds the peptidoglycan layer to the membrane of a gram positive bacteria

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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34
Q

Structure of gram negative envelope

A
  1. Inner membrane
  2. THIINNER peptidoglycan sheet
  3. Lipoproteins
  4. Outer membrane
  5. A lipopolysaccharide layer (Endotoxin)
  6. Capsule
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35
Q

What are the spaces found between the lipoproteins called

A

Periplasmic space

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36
Q

What is the role of the lipopolysaccharide layer

A

It is a PAMP so can trigger immune response

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37
Q

Temperature range for bacteria survival

A

between -80 and 80 degrees

38
Q

Temperature range for spores

A

120 degrees

39
Q

pH of bacterial environment

A

<4

above 9

40
Q

Define desiccation

A

Process of extracting moisture

41
Q

Desiccation survival time for bacteria

A

2hrs - 3months

42
Q

What lightwave can some bacteria survive

A

UV

43
Q

What bacteria can survive radiation

A

Radmococcus by surviving on uranium

44
Q

Doubling time for most viruses

A

1 hour

45
Q

What environment allows microbes to double faster

A

Broth or media

46
Q

How long does it take to diagnose conditions caused by mycobacterium

A

6-8 weeks (a LOT longer than other viruses and bacteria)

47
Q

Describe the growth curve of bacteria

A
  1. Lag (slow growth - bacteria getting used to the environment and changing metabolic pathways and producing nutrients)
  2. Exponential (rapid increase in colony numbers)
  3. Stationary (nutrients run out and competition increases + toxic compounds produced)
48
Q

What is an ENDOTOXIN

A

Component of the outer membrane of bacteria (lipopolysaccharide)

49
Q

Define an EXOTOXIN

A

Secreted proteins of gram positive and gram negative bacteria

50
Q

Consequence of an endotoxic shock

A

Inflammation response

51
Q

Example of an exotoxin

A

Protein

52
Q

Example of an endotoxin

A

Lipopolysaccharide

53
Q

Exotoxin vs Endotoxin (specific or non-specific action)

A

Exotoxin - Specific

Endotoxin - Non-specific

54
Q

How does heat effect exotoxins vs endotoxins

A

Exotoxins - inactivate

Endotoxins - not effected

55
Q

Extent to how well exotoxins and endotoxins work as an antigen

A

Exotoxin - strong

Endotoxin - weak

56
Q

What bacteria produces exotoxins

A

Gram Positive

Gram Negative

57
Q

What bacteria produces Endotoxins

A

Gram Negative (LPS)

58
Q

Can we use an endotoxin as a toxoid

A

No

59
Q

Can we use an exotoxin as a toxoid

A

Yes

60
Q

Three ways DNA can mutate

A

Base substitution
Deletion
Insertion

61
Q

How many base pairs does bacterial chromosome consist of

A

2-4 x 10^3 Kb

62
Q

Other than bacterial chromosome, where else is DNA found

A

Bacterial plasmids

63
Q

How many bases are found in plasmid DNA

A

10-60Kb

64
Q

What are Plasma DNA

A

Autonomously repeated packets of DNA that are shared between different bacteria (needed for adaptations - e.g. resistance)

65
Q

How are plasmids shared between different types of bacteria

A
  1. Tra locus contains pilin and regulatory genes which form pili
  2. Conjugation is initiated by a signal the relaxes enzyme creates nick in one of the strands of the conjugative plasmid.
  3. Nicked strand is unwound
  4. Strand is replicated
66
Q

Why is a plasmid called an episome

A

It can integrate itself on bacterial chromosome by homologous recombination

67
Q

Why can some of the host’s genes be donated to the recipient

A

Because plasmids may have replicated genes from host’s DNA

68
Q

What three ways are genes spread between bacteria

A
  1. Transformation via plasmids
  2. Transduction via Bacteriaphages
  3. Conjugation via sex pilus
69
Q

What are bacteriophages and how do they spread DNA between bacteria

A
  1. Viruses that infect bacteria

2. Spread DNA as they jump from one bacteria to the next

70
Q

What is an obligate intracellular bacteria

A

Parasites that can’t reproduce outside their host cell

71
Q

Three obligate intracellular bacteria

A
  1. Rickettsia
  2. Chlamydia
  3. Coxiella
72
Q

How do we distinguish between enterobacteriacae and other forms of bacteria

A

Add lactose fermenter solution to agar plate (should be able to ferment them)

73
Q

Name three types of enterobacteriacae

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Klebsiella
  3. Enterobacter
  4. Citrobacter
74
Q

What can cause problems when trying to detect lactose-fermenting bacteria

A
  1. Some are late-lactose fermenters
75
Q

How do we detect late-lactose fermenters

A

Positive ONPG test

76
Q

Two examples of late-lactose fermentors

A

Serratia

Citrobacter

77
Q

5 examples of lactose non-fermentors

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Yesrinia
  4. Proteus
  5. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
78
Q

Name an anaerobic gram negative bacteria

A

Bacteroides (B. fragilis)

79
Q

What are coliform

A

rod-shaped gram-negative non-spore bacteria

80
Q

What are Vibrio bacteria

A

Gram negative, curved-rod shaped

81
Q

What type of bacteria is Helicobacter

A

Vibrio

82
Q

What type of bacteria is salmonella

A

Coliform

83
Q

How can motility help distinguish bacteria

A

We can see motility patterns showing up on the agar

84
Q

How can we detect if Proteus mirabilis is present on a petri dish

A

Concentric circles formed by swimming

85
Q

What type of bacteria is Proteus

A

Coliforms

86
Q

Role of the oxidase test

A

Tests if micro-organisms contain cytochrome oxidase or indophenol oxidase

87
Q

What is a redox indicator

A

an indicator which undergoes a definite color change at a specific electrode potential.

88
Q

Give an example of a redox indicator used in the oxidase test

A

TMPD

89
Q

When oxidised state, what colour is TMPD

A

Dark blue or maroon

90
Q

What does the oxidised state mean

A

Organism is able to use oxygen as terminal electron acceptor