urinalysis and body fluids- Amniotic, Gastrointestinal, and Seminal Fluids Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about
    amniotic fluid bilirubin measured by scanning
    spectrophotometry is true?
    A. The 410-nm peak is due to hemoglobin and the
    450-nm peak is due to bilirubin
    B. Baseline correction is not required if a scanning
    spectrophotometer is used
    C. Chloroform extraction is necessary only when
    meconium is present
    D. In normal amniotic fluid, bilirubin increases
    with gestational age
A

A. The 410-nm peak is due to hemoglobin and the
450-nm peak is due to bilirubin

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2
Q
  1. Which test best correlates with the severity
    of HDN?
    A. Rh antibody titer of the mother
    B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
    C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
    D. Urinary estradiol
A

C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin

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3
Q
  1. Which is the reference method for determining
    fetal lung maturity?
    A. Human placental lactogen
    B. L/S ratio
    C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
    D. Urinary estriol
A

B. L/S ratio

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    the L/S ratio is true?
    A. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates
    adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent
    respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
    B. A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in
    pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus
    C. Sphingomyelin levels increase during the third
    trimester, causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly
    during the last 2 weeks of gestation
    D. A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the
    presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid
A

A. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates
adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most likely
    to cause a falsely low L/S ratio?
    A. The presence of PG in amniotic fluid
    B. Freezing the specimen for one month at –20°C
    C. Centrifugation at 1,000 × g for 10 minutes
    D. Maternal diabetes mellitus
A

C. Centrifugation at 1,000 × g for 10 minutes

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately
    describes hCG levels in pregnancy?
    A. Levels of hCG rise throughout pregnancy
    B. In ectopic pregnancy, serum hCG doubling time
    is below expected levels
    C. Molar pregnancies are associated with lower
    levels than expected for the time of gestation
    D. hCG returns to nonpregnant levels within
    2 days following delivery, stillbirth, or abortion
A

B. In ectopic pregnancy, serum hCG doubling time
is below expected levels

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    pregnancy testing is true?
    A. β Subunits of human chorionic gonadotropin
    (hCG), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH),
    and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are
    very similar
    B. Antibodies against the β subunit of hCG
    cross-react with luteinizing hormone (LH)
    C. A false-positive result may occur in patients with
    heterophile antibodies
    D. Serum should not be used for pregnancy tests
    because proteins interfere
A

C. A false-positive result may occur in patients with
heterophile antibodies

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8
Q
  1. SITUATION: A pregnant female was seen by her
    physician who suspected a molar pregnancy. An
    hCG test was ordered and found to be low. The
    sample was diluted 10-fold and the assay was
    repeated. The result was found to be grossly
    elevated. What best explains this situation?
    A. The wrong specimen was diluted
    B. A pipeting error was made in the first analysis
    C. Antigen excess caused a falsely low result in the
    undiluted sample
    D. An inhibitor of the antigen–antibody reaction
    was present in the sample
A

C. Antigen excess caused a falsely low result in the
undiluted sample

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9
Q
  1. Most cases of Down syndrome are the result of:
    A. Nondisjunction of an E chromosome (E trisomy)
    B. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 (G trisomy)
    C. A 14–21 chromosome translocation
    D. Deletion of the long arm of chromosome 21
A

B. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 (G trisomy)

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10
Q
  1. Which assay result is often approximately 25%
    below the expected level in pregnancies associated
    with Down syndrome?
    A. Serum unconjugated estriol
    B. L/S ratio
    C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
    D. Urinary chorionic gonadotropin
A

A. Serum unconjugated estriol

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about AFP is
    correct?
    A. Maternal serum may be used to screen for open
    neural tube defects
    B. Levels above 4 ng/mL are considered positive
    C. Elevated levels in amniotic fluid are specific for
    spina bifida
    D. AFP levels increase in pregnancies associated
    with Down syndrome
A

A. Maternal serum may be used to screen for open
neural tube defects

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12
Q
  1. First-trimester screening for Down syndrome can
    be performed using which markers?
    A. Alpha fetoprotein and unconjugated estriol
    B. Free β hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma
    protein A
    C. Intact hCG and dimeric inhibin A
    D. Dimeric inhibin B and α fetoprotein
A

B. Free β hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma
protein A

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13
Q
  1. When performing marker screening tests for
    Down syndrome, why are results expressed in
    multiples of the median (MoM) rather than
    concentration?
    A. Concentration is not normally distributed
    B. MoM normalizes for gestational age
    C. Some tests cannot be reported in mass units
    D. Mean cannot be determined accurately for these
    analytes
A

B. MoM normalizes for gestational age

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14
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the fetal fibronectin
    test is true?
    A. A positive test is correlated with a low probability
    of delivery within 14 days
    B. The test should not be performed before
    week 24 or after the end of week 34
    C. The test is performed on amniotic fluid
    D. The test is used to identify amniotic fluid after
    rupture of the fetal membranes
A

B. The test should not be performed before
week 24 or after the end of week 34

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15
Q
  1. What is the term for sperm when the anterior
    portion of the headpiece is smaller than normal?
    A. Azoospermia
    B. Microcephaly
    C. Acrosomal deficiency
    D. Necrozoospermia
A

C. Acrosomal deficiency

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16
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of male
    infertility?
    A. Mumps
    B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    C. Varicocele
    D. Malignancy
A

C. Varicocele

17
Q
  1. Which of the following values is the lower
    limit of normal for sperm concentration?
    A. 15 million per mL
    B. 40 million per mL
    C. 60 million per mL
    D. 100 million per mL
A

A. 15 million per mL

18
Q
  1. Which morphological abnormality of sperm is
    most often associated with varicocele?
    A. Tapering of the head
    B. Cytoplasmic droplet below the neckpiece
    C. Lengthened neckpiece
    D. Acrosomal deficiency
A

A. Tapering of the head

19
Q
  1. Which of the following stains is used to determine
    sperm viability?
    A. Eosin Y
    B. Hematoxylin
    C. Papanicolaou
    D. Methylene blue
A

A. Eosin Y

20
Q
  1. Which of the following semen analysis results is
    abnormal?
    A. Volume 1.0 mL
    B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
    C. pH 7.6
    D. Motility 50% progressive movement
A

A. Volume 1.0 mL

21
Q
  1. Which of the following sample collection and
    processing conditions will lead to inaccurate
    seminal fluid analysis results?
    A. Sample stored at room temperature for 1 hour
    before testing
    B. Sample collected following coitus
    C. Sample collected without an anticoagulant
    D. Sample collected without use of a condom
A

B. Sample collected following coitus

22
Q
  1. When performing a seminal fluid analysis, what is the upper limit of normal for WBCs?
    A. 1 × 106/mL
    B. 5 × 106/mL
    C. 10 × 106/mL
    D. 20 × 106/mL
A

A. 1 × 106/mL

23
Q
  1. Which carbohydrate measurement is clinically
    useful when performing a seminal fluid analysis?
    A. Glucose
    B. Galactose
    C. Fructose
    D. Maltose
A

C. Fructose

24
Q
  1. Which condition is most often associated with
    gastric ulcers?
    A. Cancer of the stomach
    B. H. pylori infection
    C. Zollinger–Ellison (Z–E) syndrome
    D. Pernicious anemia
A

B. H. pylori infection

25
Q
  1. In which condition is the highest level of serum
    gastrin usually seen?
    A. Atrophic gastritis
    B. Pernicious anemia
    C. Z–E syndrome
    D. Cancer of the stomach
A

C. Z–E syndrome

26
Q
  1. In determining free HCl, the gastric fluid is
    titrated to pH ___.
    A. 6.5
    B. 4.5
    C. 3.5
    D. 2.0
A

C. 3.5

27
Q
  1. Which test can identify persons with gastrinsecreting tumors who do not demonstrate a
    definitively increased plasma gastrin
    concentration?
    A. Secretin stimulation
    B. Pentagastrin
    C. Cholecystokinin–pancreozymin
    D. Trypsinogen
A

A. Secretin stimulation

28
Q
  1. Which of the following tests would be normal in
    pancreatic insufficiency?
    A. Secretin stimulation
    B. D-Xylose absorption
    C. Twenty-four-hour fecal fat
    D. β Carotene absorption
A

B. D-Xylose absorption

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is commonly associated
    with occult blood?
    A. Colon cancer
    B. Atrophic gastritis
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Pancreatitis
A

A. Colon cancer

30
Q
  1. Which test is most sensitive in detecting persons
    with chronic pancreatitis?
    A. Fecal trypsin
    B. Fecal chymotrypsin
    C. Fecal elastin-1
    D. Plasma lipase
A

C. Fecal elastin-1