Clinical Chemistry-Calculations, QC and Statistics Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. How many grams of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
    are required to prepare 150.0 mL of a 5.0% w/v
    solution?
    A. 1.5 g
    B. 4.0 g
    C. 7.5 g
    D. 15.0 g
A

C. 7.5 g

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2
Q
  1. How many milliliters of glacial acetic acid are
    needed to prepare 2.0 L of 10.0% v/v acetic acid?
    A. 10.0 mL
    B. 20.0 mL
    C. 100.0 mL
    D. 200.0 mL
A

D. 200.0 mL

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3
Q
  1. A biuret reagent requires preparation of a stock
    solution containing 9.6 g of copper II sulfate
    (CuSO4) per liter. How many grams of CuSO4* 5H2O are needed to prepare 1.0 L of the stock
    solution?
    Atomic weights: H = 1.0; Cu = 63.6; O = 16.0; S = 32.1
    A. 5.4 g
    B. 6.1 g
    C. 15.0 g
    D. 17.0 g
A

C. 15.0 g

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4
Q
  1. How many milliliters of HNO3 (purity 68.0%,
    specific gravity 1.42) are needed to prepare 1.0 L
    of a 2.0 N solution?
    Atomic weights: H = 1.0; N = 14.0; O = 16.0
    A. 89.5 mL
    B. 126.0 mL
    C. 130.5 mL
    D. 180.0 mL
A

C. 130.5 mL

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5
Q
  1. Convert 10.0 mg/dL calcium (atomic weight = 40.1)
    to International System of Units (SI).
    A. 0.25
    B. 0.40
    C. 2.5
    D. 0.4
A

C. 2.5

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6
Q
  1. Convert 2.0 mEq/L magnesium (atomic
    weight = 24.3) to milligrams per deciliter.
    A. 0.8 mg/dL
    B. 1.2 mg/dL
    C. 2.4 mg/dL
    D. 4.9 mg/dL
A

C. 2.4 mg/dL

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7
Q
  1. How many milliliters of a 2,000.0 mg/dL glucose
    stock solution are needed to prepare 100.0 mL of a
    150.0 mg/dL glucose working standard?
    A. 1.5 mL
    B. 7.5 mL
    C. 15.0 mL
    D. 25.0 mL
A

B. 7.5 mL

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8
Q
  1. What is the pH of a solution of HNO3, if the
    hydrogen ion concentration is 2.5 × 10–2 M?
    A. 1.0
    B. 1.6
    C. 2.5
    D. 2.8
A

B. 1.6

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9
Q
  1. Calculate the pH of a solution of 1.5 × 10–5 M
    NH4OH.
    A. 4.2
    B. 7.2
    C. 9.2
    D. 11.2
A

C. 9.2

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10
Q
  1. How many significant figures should be reported
    when the pH of a 0.060 M solution of nitric acid
    is calculated?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

B. 2

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11
Q
  1. What is the pH of a 0.05 M solution of acetic
    acid? Ka = 1.75 × 10–5, pKa = 4.76
    A. 1.7
    B. 3.0
    C. 4.3
    D. 4.6
A

B. 3.0

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12
Q
  1. What is the pH of a buffer containing 40.0 mmol/L
    NaHC2O4 and 4.0 mmol/L H2C2O4? (pKa = 1.25)
    A. 1.35
    B. 2.25
    C. 5.75
    D. 6.12
A

B. 2.25

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13
Q
  1. A solvent needed for HPLC requires a 20.0 mmol/L phosphoric acid buffer, pH 3.50, made by mixing KH2PO4 and H3PO4. How many grams of
    KH2PO4 are required to make 1.0 L of this
    buffer?
    Formula weights: KH2PO4 = 136.1; H3PO4 = 98.0;
    pKa H3PO4 = 2.12
    A. 1.96 g
    B. 2.61 g
    C. 2.72 g
    D. 19.2 g
A

B. 2.61 g

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14
Q
  1. A procedure for cholesterol is calibrated with
    a serum-based cholesterol standard that was
    determined by the Abell–Kendall method to
    be 200.0 mg/dL. Assuming the same volume
    of sample and reagent are used, calculate the
    cholesterol concentration in the patient’s sample from the following results.

A. 123 mg/dL
B. 172 mg/dL
C. 232 mg/dL
D. 314 mg/dL

A

B. 172 mg/dL

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15
Q
  1. A glycerol kinase method for triglyceride calls for a
    serum blank in which normal saline is substituted
    for lipase in order to measure endogenous glycerol.
    Given the following results, and assuming the
    same volume of sample and reagent are used for
    each test, calculate the triglyceride concentration
    in the patient’s sample.
    A. 119 mg/dL
    B. 131 mg/dL
    C. 156 mg/dL
    D. 180 mg/dL
A

B. 131 mg/dL

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16
Q
  1. A procedure for aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    is performed manually because of a repeating error
    code for nonlinearity obtained on the laboratory’s
    automated chemistry analyzer; 0.05 mL of serum
    and 1.0 mL of substrate are used. The reaction rate
    is measured at 30°C at 340 nm using a 1.0 cM
    light path, and the delta absorbance (-ΔA) per
    minute is determined to be 0.382. Based upon a
    molar absorptivity coefficient for NADH at
    340 nm of 6.22 X 103 M–1 cM–1 L–1, calculate
    the enzyme activity in international units (IUs)
    per liter.
    A. 26 IU/L
    B. 326 IU/L
    C. 1228 IU/L
    D. 1290 IU/L
A

D. 1290 IU/L

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17
Q
  1. When referring to quality control (QC) results,
    what parameter usually determines the acceptable
    range?
    A. The 95% confidence interval for the mean
    B. The range that includes 50% of the results
    C. The central 68% of results
    D. The range encompassed by ±2.5 standard
    deviations
A

A. The 95% confidence interval for the mean

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following quality control (QC) rules
    would be broken 1 out of 20 times by chance alone?
    A. 1_2s
    B. 2_2s
    C. 1_3s
    D. 1_4s
A

A. 1_2s

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is cause for
    rejecting an analytical run?
    A. Two consecutive controls greater than 2 s above
    or below the mean
    B. Three consecutive controls greater than 1 s above
    the mean
    C. Four controls steadily increasing in value but less
    than ±1 s from the mean
    D. One control above +1 s and the other below –1 s
    from the mean
A

A. Two consecutive controls greater than 2 s above
or below the mean

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20
Q
  1. One of two controls within a run is above +2s
    and the other control is below –2s from the mean.
    What do these results indicate?
    A. Poor precision has led to random error (RE)
    B. A systematic error (SE) is present
    C. Proportional error is present
    D. QC material is contaminated
A

A. Poor precision has led to random error (RE)

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21
Q
  1. Two consecutive controls are both beyond –2s
    from the mean. How frequently would this occur
    on the basis of chance alone?
    A. 1:100
    B. 5:100
    C. 1:400
    D. 1:1,600
A

D. 1:1,600

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22
Q
  1. The term R4S means that:
    A. Four consecutive controls are greater than ±1
    standard deviation from the mean
    B. Two controls in the same run are greater than
    4s units apart
    C. Two consecutive controls in the same run are
    each greater than ±4s from the mean
    D. There is a shift above the mean for four
    consecutive controls
A

B. Two controls in the same run are greater than
4s units apart

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23
Q
  1. A trend in QC results is most likely caused by:
    A. Deterioration of the reagent
    B. Miscalibration of the instrument
    C. Improper dilution of standards
    D. Electronic noise
A

A. Deterioration of the reagent

24
Q
  1. In most circumstances, when two controls within a
    run are both greater than ±2s from the mean, what
    action should be taken first?
    A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by
    selected patient samples if quality control is
    acceptable
    B. Repeat the controls before taking any corrective
    action
    C. Change the reagent lot, then recalibrate
    D. Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate
A

A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by
selected patient samples if quality control is
acceptable

25
Q
  1. When establishing QC limits, which of the
    following practices is inappropriate?
    A. Using last month’s QC data to determine
    current target limits
    B. Exclusion of any QC results greater than ±2s
    from the mean
    C. Using control results from all shifts on which the
    assay is performed
    D. Using limits determined by reference laboratories
    using the same method
A

B. Exclusion of any QC results greater than ±2s
from the mean

26
Q
  1. Which of the following assays has the poorest
    precision?
A

A.

27
Q
  1. Given the following data, calculate the coefficient
    of variation for glucose.

A. 3.0%
B. 4.6%
C. 7.6%
D. 33.0%

A

A. 3.0%

28
Q
  1. Which of the following plots is best for detecting
    all types of QC errors?
    A. Levy–Jennings
    B. Tonks–Youden
    C. Cusum
    D. Linear regression
A

A. Levy–Jennings

29
Q
  1. Which of the following plots is best for
    comparison of precision and accuracy among
    laboratories?
    A. Levy–Jennings
    B. Tonks–Youden
    C. Cusum
    D. Linear regression
A

B. Tonks–Youden

30
Q
  1. Which plot will give the earliest indication of a
    shift or trend?
    A. Levy–Jennings
    B. Tonks–Youden
    C. Cusum
    D. Histogram
A

C. Cusum

31
Q
  1. All of the following are requirements for a
    QC material except:
    A. Long-term stability
    B. The matrix is similar to the specimens being
    tested
    C. The concentration of analytes reflects the clinical
    range
    D. Analyte concentration must be independent of
    the method of assay
A

D. Analyte concentration must be independent of
the method of assay

32
Q
  1. Examine the Levy–Jennings chart at the bottom of the previous page and identify the QC problem
    that occurred during the first half of the month.
    A. Shift
    B. Trend
    C. Random error
    D. Kurtosis
A

B. Trend

33
Q
  1. Referring to the Levy–Jennings chart, what is the
    first day in the month when the run should be
    rejected and patient results should be repeated?
    A. Day 6
    B. Day 7
    C. Day 8
    D. Day 9
A

C. Day 8

34
Q
  1. Referring to the Levy–Jennings chart, what
    analytical error is present during the second
    half of the month?
    A. Shift
    B. Trend
    C. Random error
    D. Kurtosis
A

A. Shift

35
Q
  1. What is the first day in the second half of the
    month that patient results would be rejected?
    A. Day 16
    B. Day 17
    C. Day 18
    D. Day 19
A

B. Day 17

36
Q
  1. Given the following QC chart, identify the day in
    which a violation of the R4s QC rule occurs.

A. Day 3
B. Day 8
C. Day 10
D. Day 15

A

D. Day 15

37
Q
  1. What is the minimum requirement for performing
    QC for a total protein assay?
    A. One level assayed every 8 hours
    B. Two levels assayed within 8 hours
    C. Two levels assayed within 24 hours
    D. Three levels assayed within 24 hours
A

C. Two levels assayed within 24 hours

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statistical tests is used to
    compare the means of two methods?
    A. Student’s t test
    B. F distribution
    C. Correlation coefficient (r)
    D. Linear regression analysis
A

A. Student’s t test

39
Q
  1. Two freezing point osmometers are compared by running 40 paired patient samples one time on
    each instrument, and the following results are
    obtained:

If the critical value for F = 2.8, then what
conclusion can be drawn regarding the
precision of the two instruments?
A. There is no statistically significant difference in
precision
B. Osmometer A demonstrates better precision that
is statistically significant
C. Osmometer B demonstrates better precision that
is statistically significant
D. Precision cannot be evaluated statistically when
single measurements are made on samples

A

A. There is no statistically significant difference in
precision

40
Q
  1. Two methods for total cholesterol are compared
    by running 40 paired patient samples in duplicate
    on each instrument. The following results are
    obtained:

Assuming the samples are collected and stored
in the same way and the analysis done by a
technologist who is familiar with both methods,
what is the bias of method y?
A. 0.4
B. 7.2
C. 10.6
D. 11.0

A

D. 11.0

41
Q
  1. When the magnitude of error increases with
    increasing sample concentration, it is called:
    A. Constant error
    B. Proportional error
    C. Random error
    D. Bias
A

B. Proportional error

42
Q
  1. Which explanation is the best interpretation of the
    following BUN bias plot?

A. The new method consistently overestimates the
BUN by a constant concentration
B. The new method is greater than the reference
method but not by a statistically significant
margin
C. The new method is lower than the reference
method by 5 mg/dL
D. The new method is lower than the reference and
the magnitude is concentration dependent

A

D. The new method is lower than the reference and
the magnitude is concentration dependent

43
Q
  1. Serum samples collected from hospitalized patients
    over a 2-week period are split into two aliquots
    and analyzed for prostate specific antigen (PSA)
    by two methods. Each sample was assayed by both
    methods within 30 minutes of collection by a
    technologist familiar with both methods. The
    reference method is method × (upper reference
    limit = 4.0 μg/L). Linear regression analysis was
    performed by the least-squares method, and results
    are as follows:

Which statement best characterizes the
relationship between the methods?
A. There is a significant bias caused by constant
error
B. There is a significant proportional error
C. There is no disagreement between the methods
because the correlation coefficient approaches 1.0
D. There is no systematic error, but the random
error of the new method is unacceptable

A

A. There is a significant bias caused by constant
error

44
Q
  1. Which statement best summarizes the relationship
    between the new BUN method and reference
    method based upon the following linear regression
    scatterplot?

A. The methods agree very well but show a high
standard error of estimate
B. There is little or no constant error, but some
proportional error
C. There will be a significant degree of uncertainty
in the regression equation
D. There is significant constant and proportional
error but little random error

A

B. There is little or no constant error, but some
proportional error

45
Q
  1. A new method for BUN is evaluated by comparing
    the results of 40 paired patient samples to the
    urease-UV method. Normal and high controls
    were run on each shift for 5 days, five times per
    day. The results are as follows:

What is the total analytical error estimate for a
sample having a concentration of 50 mg/dL?
A. –2.2 mg/dL
B. –2.8 mg/dL
C. –7.5 mg/dL
D. –10.0 mg/dL

A

C. –7.5 mg/dL

46
Q
  1. In addition to the number of true negatives (TN), which of the following measurements is needed to
    calculate specificity?
    A. True positives
    B. Prevalence
    C. False negatives
    D. False positives
A

D. False positives

47
Q
  1. A new tumor marker for ovarian cancer is
    evaluated for sensitivity by testing serum samples
    from patients who have been diagnosed by staging
    biopsy as having malignant or benign lesions.
    The following results were obtained:
    Number of malignant patients who are positive for
    CA 125 = 21 out of 24
    Number of benign patients who are negative for
    CA 125 = 61 out of 62
    What is the sensitivity of the new CA 125 test?
    A. 98.4%
    B. 95.3%
    C. 87.5%
    D. 85.0%
A

C. 87.5%

48
Q
  1. A new test for prostate cancer is found to have a
    sensitivity of 80.0% and a specificity of 84.0%. If
    the prevalence of prostate cancer is 4.0% in men
    over 42 years old, what is the predictive value of a
    positive test result (PV+) in this group?
    A. 96.0%
    B. 86.0%
    C. 32.4%
    D. 17.2%
A

D. 17.2%

49
Q
  1. What measurement in addition to true negatives
    and prevalence is required to calculate the
    predictive value of a negative test result (PV–)?
    A. False negatives
    B. Variance
    C. True positives
    D. False positives
A

A. False negatives

50
Q
  1. A laboratory is establishing a reference range for a
    new analyte and wants the range to be determined
    by the regional population of adults age 18 and
    older. The analyte concentration is known to be
    independent of race and gender. Which is the
    most appropriate process to follow?
    A. Determine the mean and standard deviation of
    the analyte from 40 healthy adults and calculate
    the ±2s limit
    B. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and
    calculate the central 95th percentile
    C. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and
    use the lowest and highest as the reference range
    limits
    D. Measure the analyte in 60 healthy adults and
    60 adults with conditions that affect the analyte
    concentration; calculate the concentration of
    least overlap
A

B. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and
calculate the central 95th percentile

51
Q
  1. When comparing the laboratory’s monthly mean
    to its peer group to determine if bias is present,
    what statistic is most appropriate?
    A. F test
    B. Linear regression analysis
    C. Correlation coefficient
    D. Standard deviation index
A

D. Standard deviation index

52
Q
  1. Which of the following methods is most useful
    in order to detect sample misidentification?
    A. Cumulative summation
    B. Critical limit
    C. Delta limit
    D. Significant change limit
A

C. Delta limit

53
Q
  1. Which of the following total quality management
    tools can be used to calculate the analytical error
    rate for an analyte in the clinical laboratory?
    A. LEAN
    B. Six sigma
    C. ISO 9000
    D. Laboratory information system
A

B. Six sigma

54
Q
  1. In which circumstances is a validation study
    (versus performing routine quality control)
    required?
    A. Instrument recalibration
    B. Source lamp or ion selective electrode change
    C. Change in reagent lot
    D. Change in calibrator lot
A

C. Change in reagent lot

55
Q
  1. The following plot represents a study of a
    screening test for malignant prostate cancer using
    plasma PSA (ng/mL). The outcome measured
    was positive cytology results obtained by biopsy.
    What concentration gives the highest sensitivity with the last number of unnecessary biopsies ?

A. 2.6
B. 3.6
C. 3.8
D. 5.2

A

B. 3.6