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***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th > (Self-Assessment) Examination > Flashcards

(Self-Assessment) Examination Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. In absorption spectrophotometry:
    A. Absorbance is directly proportional to
    transmittance
    B. Percent transmittance is directly
    proportional to concentration
    C. Percent transmittance is directly
    proportional to the light path length
    D. Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
A

D. Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

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2
Q
  1. Which type of filter is best for measuring
    stray light?
    A. Wratten
    B. Didymium
    C. Sharp cutoff
    D. Neutral density
A

C. Sharp cutoff

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3
Q
  1. A plasma sample is hemolyzed and turbid.
    What is required to perform a sample blank
    in order to correct the measurement for the
    intrinsic absorbance of the sample when
    performing a spectrophotometric assay?
    A. Substitute deionized water for the sample
    B. Dilute the sample 1:2 with a standard of
    known concentration
    C. Substitute saline for the reagent
    D. Use a larger volume of the sample
A

C. Substitute saline for the reagent

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4
Q
  1. The response of a sodium electrode to a
    10-fold increase in sodium concentration
    should be:
    A. A 10-fold drop in potential
    B. An increase in potential of approximately
    60 mV
    C. An increase in potential of approximately
    10 mV
    D. A decrease in potential of approximately
    10 mV
A

B. An increase in potential of approximately
60 mV

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5
Q
  1. In gas chromatography, the elution order of
    volatiles is usually based upon the:
    A. Boiling point
    B. Molecular size
    C. Carbon content
    D. Polarity
A

A. Boiling point

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6
Q
  1. A patient’s blood gas results are as
    follows:
    pH = 7.26
    dCO2 = 2.0 mmol/L
    HCO3– = 29 mmol/L
    These results would be classified as:
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
A

C. Respiratory acidosis

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7
Q
  1. Which condition results in metabolic
    acidosis with severe hypokalemia and
    chronic alkaline urine?
    A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    B. Phenformin-induced acidosis
    C. Renal tubular acidosis
    D. Acidosis caused by starvation
A

C. Renal tubular acidosis

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions will cause
    an increased anion gap?
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Hypoaldosteronism
    C. Hyperkalemia
    D. Renal failure
A

D. Renal failure

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is consistently
    abnormal in osteoporosis?
    A. High urinary calcium
    B. High serum Pi
    C. Low serum calcium
    D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of
    type I collagen
A

D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of
type I collagen

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10
Q
  1. SITUATION: An EDTA sample for TnI
    assay gives a result of 0.04 ng/mL (reference
    range 0–0.03 ng/mL). The test is repeated
    3 hours later on a new specimen and the
    result is 0.06 ng/mL. A third sample collected
    6 hours later gives a result of 0.07 ng/mL.
    The EKG showed no evidence of ST segment
    elevation (STEMI). What is the most likely
    explanation?
    A. A false-positive result occurred due to
    matrix interference
    B. Heparin should have been used
    instead of EDTA, which causes false
    positives
    C. The patient has suffered cardiac injury
    D. The patient has had an ischemic episode
    without cardiac injury
A

C. The patient has suffered cardiac injury

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11
Q
  1. Which electrolyte level best correlates with
    plasma osmolality?
    A. Sodium
    B. Chloride
    C. Bicarbonate
    D. Calcium
A

A. Sodium

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12
Q
  1. According to American Diabetes Association
    criteria, which result is consistent with a
    diagnosis of impaired fasting glucose?
    A. 99 mg/dL
    B. 117 mg/dL
    C. 126 mg/dL
    D. 135 mg/dL
A

B. 117 mg/dL

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13
Q
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for the
    conjugation of bilirubin?
    A. β-Glucuronidase
    B. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
    C. Bilirubin oxidase
    D. Biliverdin reductase
A

B. UDP-glucuronyl transferase

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is cause
    for rejecting an analytical run?
    A. Two consecutive controls greater than
    2 s above or below the mean
    B. Three consecutive controls greater than
    1 s above the mean
    C. Four controls steadily increasing in value
    but less than ±1 s from the mean
    D. One control above +1 s and the other
    below -1 s from the mean
A

A. Two consecutive controls greater than 2 s above or below the mean

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15
Q
  1. In the ultraviolet enzymatic method for
    BUN, the urease reaction is coupled to a
    second enzymatic reaction using:
    A. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
    C. Glutamine synthetase
    D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
A

B. Glutamate dehydrogenase

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16
Q
  1. In the Oliver–Rosalki method, the reverse
    reaction is used to measure creatine kinase
    activity. The enzyme(s) used in the coupling
    reactions are:
    A. Hexokinase and glucose-6-phosphate
    dehydrogenase
    B. Pyruvate kinase and lactate dehydrogenase
    C. Luciferase
    D. Adenylate kinase
A

A. Hexokinase and glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase

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17
Q
  1. In familial β dyslipoproteinemia (formerly
    Type III hyperlipoproteinemia), which
    lipoprotein accumulates?
    A. Chylomicrons
    B. VLDL
    C. IDL
    D. VLDL
A

C. IDL

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18
Q
  1. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was
    performed. A total of 36 cells were counted
    in all 9-mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled
    hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used.
    What is the WBC count?
    A. 0.4 × 109/L
    B. 2.5 × 109/L
    C. 4.0 × 109/L
    D. 8.0 × 109/L
A

A. 0.4 × 109/L

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19
Q
  1. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is
    correct for coagulation procedures?
    A. 1:4
    B. 1:5
    C. 1:9
    D. 1:10
A

C. 1:9

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20
Q
  1. Given the following values, which set of red
    blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis?

A. MCV MCH MCHC
76 μm3 19.9 pg 28.5%

B. MCV MCH MCHC
90 μm3 30.5 pg 32.5%

C. MCV MCH MCHC
80 μm3 36.5 pg 39.0%

D. MCV MCH MCHC
81 μm3 29.0 pg 34.8%

A

C. MCV MCH MCHC
80 μm3 36.5 pg 39.0%

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21
Q
  1. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias
    (CDAs) are characterized by:
    A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
    B. Cytogenetic disorders
    C. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
    D. An elevated M:E ratio
A

A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts

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22
Q
  1. Which anemia has red cell morphology
    similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia?
    A. Sickle cell anemia
    B. Thalassemia syndrome
    C. Pernicious anemia
    D. Hereditary spherocytosis
A

B. Thalassemia syndrome

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23
Q
  1. A 50-year-old patient is suffering from pernicious anemia. Which of the following laboratory data are most likely for this patient?
A

D.

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24
Q
  1. Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle
    ingestion are associated with an increase in
    oxygen utilization referred to as respiratory
    burst. What are the two most important
    products of this biochemical reaction?
    A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide
    anion
    B. Lactoferrin and NADPH oxidase
    C. Cytochrome b and collagenase
    D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid
A

A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide
anion

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25
Q
  1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    (DIC) is most often associated with which
    of the following types of acute leukemia?
    A. Acute myeloid leukemia without
    maturation
    B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
    C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
    D. Acute monocytic leukemia
A

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

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26
Q
  1. What would be the most likely designation
    by the WHO for the FAB AML M2 by the
    French–American–British classification?
    A. AML with t(15;17)
    B. AML with mixed lineage
    C. AML with t(8;21)
    D. AML with inv(16)
A

C. AML with t(8;21)

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27
Q
  1. A patient’s peripheral blood smear and bone
    marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells
    are negative for Sudan Black B stain. Given
    these data, which of the following is the most
    likely diagnosis?
    A. Acute myeloid leukemia
    B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
    D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
A

D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) commonly
    found in CML?
    A. Many teardrop-shaped cells
    B. Intense LAP staining
    C. A decrease in granulocytes
    D. An increase in basophils
A

D. An increase in basophils

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29
Q
  1. SITUATION: A peripheral smear shows
    75% blasts. These stain positive for both
    Sudan Black B (SBB) and peroxidase. Given
    these values, which of the following disorders
    is most likely?
    A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
    B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
    C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL)
    D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
A

A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is often associated
    with CML but not with AML?
    A. Infections
    B. WBCs greater than 20.0 × 109/L
    C. Hemorrhage
    D. Splenomegaly
A

D. Splenomegaly

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31
Q
  1. Review the following CBC results:

Which of the following additional laboratory
tests would yield informative diagnostic
information for this patient?
A. Osmotic fragility
B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. Sugar water test
D. Bone marrow examination

A

B. Hgb electrophoresis

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following platelet aggregating
    agents demonstrates a monophasic
    aggregation curve when used in optimal
    concentration?
    A. Thrombin
    B. Collagen
    C. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
    D. Epinephrine
A

B. Collagen

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33
Q
  1. Which factor deficiency is associated with a
    prolonged PT and APTT?
    A. X
    B. VIII
    C. IX
    D. XI
A

A. X

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate
    screening test for the diagnosis of lupus
    anticoagulant?
    A. Thrombin time test
    B. Diluted Russell’s viper venom test
    (DRVVT)
    C. D-dimer test
    D. FDP test
A

B. Diluted Russell’s viper venom test
(DRVVT)

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35
Q
  1. Factor V Leiden promotes thrombosis by
    preventing:
    A. Deactivation of factor Va
    B. Activation of factor V
    C. Activation of protein C
    D. Activation of protein S
A

A. Deactivation of factor Va

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36
Q
  1. Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker
    appears during the first stage of T-cell
    development and remains present as an
    identifying marker for T cells?
    A. CD1
    B. CD2
    C. CD3
    D. CD4 or CD8
A

B. CD2

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37
Q
  1. Which MHC class of molecule is necessary
    for antigen recognition by CD4-positive
    T cells?
    A. Class I
    B. Class II
    C. Class III
    D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen
    recognition
A

B. Class II

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38
Q
  1. What has happened in a titer, if tube
    Nos. 5–7 show a stronger reaction than tube
    Nos.1–4?
    A. Prozone reaction
    B. Postzone reaction
    C. Equivalence reaction
    D. Poor technique
A

A. Prozone reaction

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39
Q
  1. What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1
    is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
    A. 64
    B. 128
    C. 256
    D. 512
A

B. 128

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40
Q
  1. Which is most likely a positive Western blot
    result for infection with HIV?
    A. Band at p24
    B. Band at gp60
    C. Bands at p24 and p31
    D. Bands at p24 and gp120
A

D. Bands at p24 and gp120

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41
Q
  1. Serological tests for which disease may give a
    false-positive result if the patient has Lyme
    disease?
    A. AIDS
    B. Syphilis
    C. Cold agglutinins
    D. Hepatitis C
A

B. Syphilis

42
Q
  1. Which of the following methods used for
    HIV identification is considered a signal
    amplification technique?
    A. Branched-chain DNA analysis
    B. DNA PCR
    C. Reverse transcriptase PCR
    D. Nucleic acid sequence–based assay
    (NASBA)
A

A. Branched-chain DNA analysis

43
Q
  1. What antibodies are represented by the
    nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence
    test for antinuclear antibodies?
    A. Antihistone antibodies
    B. Anti-dsDNA antibodies
    C. Anti-ENA (anti-Sm and anti-RNP)
    antibodies
    D. Anti-RNA antibodies
A

D. Anti-RNA antibodies

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is used in rapid slide
    tests for detection of rheumatoid factors?
    A. Whole IgM molecules
    B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule
    C. Fab portion of the IgG molecule
    D. Fc portion of the IgM molecule
A

B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule

45
Q
  1. A patient deficient in the C3 complement
    component would be expected to mount a
    normal:
    A. Type I and IV hypersensitivity response
    B. Type II and IV hypersensitivity response
    C. Type I and III hypersensitivity response
    D. Type II and III hypersensitivity response
A

A. Type I and IV hypersensitivity response

46
Q
  1. Which disease may be expected to show an
    IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern?
    A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
    B. Multicystic kidney disease
    C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
    D. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
A

C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

47
Q
  1. Interpret the following description of an
    immunofixation electrophoresis assay of
    urine. Dense wide bands in both the κ
    and λ lanes. No bands present in the heavy
    chain lanes.
    A. Normal
    B. Light chain disease
    C. Increased polyclonal Fab fragments
    D. Multiple myeloma
A

C. Increased polyclonal Fab fragments

48
Q
  1. Which of the following serial dilutions
    contains an incorrect factor?
    A. 1:4, 1:8, 1:16
    B. 1:1, 1:2, 1:4
    C. 1:5, 1:15, 1:45
    D. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12
A

D. 1:2, 1:6, 1:12

49
Q
  1. A patient with joint swelling and pain
    tested negative for serum RF by both latex
    agglutination and ELISA methods. What
    other test would help establish a diagnosis
    of RA in this patient?
    A. Anti CCP antibody
    B. ANA testing
    C. Flow cytometry
    D. Complement levels
A

A. Anti CCP antibody

50
Q
  1. Which hepatitis B marker is the best
    indicator of early acute infection?
    A. HBsAg
    B. HBeAg
    C. Anti-HBc
    D. Anti-HBs
A

A. HBsAg

51
Q
  1. Which genotype(s) will give rise to the
    Bombay phenotype?
    A. HH only
    B. HH and Hh
    C. Hh and hh
    D. hh only
A

D. hh only

52
Q
  1. A patient’s red cells forward as group O,
    serum agglutinates B cells (4+) only. Your
    next step would be:
    A. Extend reverse typing for 15 minutes
    B. Perform an antibody screen including a
    room temperature incubation
    C. Incubate washed red cells with anti-A1 and
    Anti-A,B for 30 minutes at room temperature
    D. Test patient’s red cells with Dolichos biflorus
A

C. Incubate washed red cells with anti-A1 and Anti-A,B for 30 minutes at room temperature

53
Q
  1. A physician orders 2 units of leukocyte
    reduced red blood cells. The patient is a
    55-year-old male with anemia. He types as
    an AB negative, and his antibody screen is
    negative. There is only 1 unit of AB negative
    in inventory. What is the next blood type
    that should be given?
    A. AB positive (patient is male)
    B. A negative
    C. B negative
    D. O negative
A

B. A negative

54
Q
  1. What type of blood should be given an
    individual who has an anti-Leb that reacts
    1+ at the IAT phase?
    A. Blood that is negative for the Leb antigen
    B. Blood that is negative for both the Lea and
    Leb antigens
    C. Blood that is positive for the Leb antigen
    D. Lewis antibodies are not clinically significant,
    so any type of blood may be given
A

A. Blood that is negative for the Leb antigen

55
Q
  1. Which antibody is frequently seen in patients
    with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
    A. Anti-Jka
    B. Anti-e
    C. Anti-K
    D. Anti-Fyb
A

B. Anti-e

56
Q
  1. Which procedure would help to distinguish
    between an anti-e and anti-Fya in an
    antibody mixture?
    A. Lower pH of test serum
    B. Run an enzyme panel
    C. Use a thiol reagent
    D. Run a LISS panel
A

B. Run an enzyme panel

57
Q
  1. A donor was found to contain anti-K using
    pilot tubes from the collection procedure.
    How would this affect the compatibility test?
    A. The AHG major crossmatch would be
    positive
    B. The IS (immediate spin) major crossmatch
    would be positive
    C. The recipient’s antibody screen would be
    positive for anti-K
    D. Compatibility testing would not be affected
A

D. Compatibility testing would not be affected

58
Q
  1. Six units are crossmatched. Five units are
    compatible, one unit is incompatible, and the
    recipient’s antibody screen is negative.
    Identify the problem:
    A. Patient may have an alloantibody to a
    high-frequency antigen
    B. Patient may have an abnormal protein
    C. Donor unit may have a positive DAT
    D. Donor may have a high-frequency antigen
A

C. Donor unit may have a positive DAT

59
Q
  1. How long must a recipient sample be kept in
    the blood bank following compatibility
    testing?
    A. 3 days
    B. 5 days
    C. 7 days
    D. 10 days
A

C. 7 days

60
Q
  1. A patient had a transfusion reaction to
    packed red blood cells. The medical
    laboratory scientist began the laboratory
    investigation of the transfusion reaction by
    assembling pre- and post-transfusion
    specimens and all paperwork and computer
    printouts. What should he do next?
    A. Perform a DAT on the post-transfusion
    sample
    B. Check for a clerical error(s)
    C. Repeat ABO and Rh typing of patient and
    donor unit
    D. Perform an antibody screen on the
    post-transfusion sample
A

B. Check for a clerical error(s)

61
Q
  1. What may be found in the serum of a
    person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI
    (transfusion-related acute lung injury)?
    A. Red blood cell alloantibody
    B. IgA antibody
    C. Antileukocyte antibody
    D. Allergen
A

C. Antileukocyte antibody

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is acceptable
    according to AABB standards?
    A. Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within
    3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen
    within 24 hours of rejuvenation
    B. Frozen RBCs must be prepared within
    30 minutes of collection and may be used
    within 10 years
    C. Irradiated RBCs must be treated within
    8 hours of collection and transfused within
    6 hours
    D. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs must be prepared
    within 6 hours of collection and transfused
    within 6 hours of preparation
A

A. Rejuvenated RBCs may be made within
3 days of outdate and transfused or frozen
within 24 hours of rejuvenation

63
Q
  1. A unit of packed RBCs is split using the
    open system. One of the half units is
    used. What may be done with the second
    half unit?
    A. Must be issued within 24 hours
    B. Must be issued within 48 hours
    C. Must be irradiated
    D. Retains the original expiration date
A

A. Must be issued within 24 hours

64
Q
  1. What percentage of red cells must be
    retained in leukocyte-reduced red cells?
    A. 75%
    B. 80%
    C. 85%
    D. 100%
A

C. 85%

65
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is
    acceptable as a blood donor?
    A. A 29-year-old man who received the
    hepatitis B vaccine last week
    B. A 21-year-old woman who has had her
    nose pierced last week
    C. A 30-year-old man who lived in Zambia
    for 3 years and returned last month
    D. A 54-year-old man who tested positive for
    hepatitis C last year, but has no active
    symptoms of disease
A

A. A 29-year-old man who received the
hepatitis B vaccine last week

66
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccinations carries
    no deferral period?
    A. Rubella
    B. Varicella zoster
    C. Recombinant HPV
    D. Smallpox
A

C. Recombinant HPV

67
Q
  1. Can an autologous donor donate blood on
    Monday, if he is having surgery on Friday?
    A. Yes, he or she can donate up to 72 hours
    before surgery
    B. No, he or she cannot donate with 7 days of
    surgery
    C. Yes, he or she can donate, but only a half
    a unit
    D. No, he or she cannot donate within 5 days
    of surgery
A

A. Yes, he or she can donate up to 72 hours
before surgery

68
Q
  1. A fetal screen yielded negative results on a
    mother who is O negative and infant who is
    O positive. What course of action should be
    taken?
    A. Perform a Kleihauer–Betke test
    B. Issue one full dose of RhIg
    C. Perform a DAT on the infant
    D. Perform an antibody screen on the mother
A

B. Issue one full dose of RhIg

69
Q
  1. Should an A-negative woman who has just
    had a miscarriage receive RhIg?
    A. Yes, but only if she does not have evidence
    of active Anti-D
    B. No, the type of the baby is unknown
    C. Yes, but only a minidose regardless of
    trimester
    D. No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only
A

A. Yes, but only if she does not have evidence
of active Anti-D

70
Q
  1. John comes in to donate a unit of whole
    blood at the collection center of the
    community blood supplier. The EIA screen is
    reactive for anti-HIV-1/2. The test is
    repeated in duplicate and is nonreactive.
    John is:
    A. Cleared for donation
    B. Deferred for six months
    C. Status is dependent on confirmatory test
    D. Deferred for 12 months
A

A. Cleared for donation

71
Q
  1. Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:
    A. Acute glomerulonephritis
    B. Renal tubular failure
    C. Diabetes insipidus
    D. Addison’s disease
A

C. Diabetes insipidus

72
Q
  1. What is the principle of the colorimetric
    reagent strip determination of SG in urine?
    A. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a
    polyelectrolyte
    B. Sodium and other cations are chelated by a
    ligand that changes color
    C. Anions displace a pH indicator from a
    mordant, making it water soluble
    D. Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye
A

A. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a
polyelectrolyte

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for protein?
    A. Urine of high SG
    B. Highly buffered alkaline urine
    C. Bence–Jones proteinuria
    D. Salicylates
A

B. Highly buffered alkaline urine

74
Q
  1. A discrepancy between the urine SG
    determined by measuring refractive index
    and urine osmolality would be most likely to
    occur:
    A. After catheterization of the urinary tract
    B. In diabetes mellitus
    C. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
    D. In uremia
A

C. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

75
Q
  1. In what condition may urinary ketone tests
    underestimate ketosis?
    A. Acidosis
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Renal failure
    D. Excessive use of vitamin C
A

A. Acidosis

76
Q
  1. Which of the following results are
    discrepant?
    A. Small blood but negative protein
    B. Moderate blood but no RBCs in
    microscopic exam
    C. Negative blood but 6–10 RBCs/HPF
    D. Negative blood, positive protein
A

C. Negative blood but 6–10 RBCs/HPF

77
Q
  1. Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into
    the urine in largest numbers in which
    condition?
    A. Malignant renal disease
    B. Acute glomerulonephritis
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney
A

D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

78
Q
  1. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often
    based upon which finding?
    A. The presence of elevated protein and low
    glucose
    B. A decreased IgG index
    C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by
    electrophoresis
    D. An increased level of CSF β microglobulin
A

C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by
electrophoresis

79
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory results is
    characteristic of a transudative fluid?
    A. SG = 1.018
    B. Total protein = 3.2 g/dL
    C. LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25
    D. Total protein fluid/serum ratio = 0.65
A

C. LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25

80
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is
    commonly associated with an exudative
    effusion?
    A. Congestive heart failure
    B. Malignancy
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. Cirrhosis
A

B. Malignancy

81
Q
  1. Which of the following sample collection and
    processing conditions will lead to inaccurate
    seminal fluid analysis results?
    A. Sample stored at room temperature for
    1 hour before testing
    B. Sample collected following coitus
    C. Sample collected without an anticoagulant
    D. Sample collected without use of a condom
A

B. Sample collected following coitus

82
Q
  1. A blood-tainted pleural fluid is submitted for
    culture. Which test result would be most
    conclusive in classifying the fluid as an
    exudate?
    A. LD fluid/serum = 0.65
    B. Total protein = 3.2 g/dL
    C. RBC count = 10,000/μL
    D. WBC count = 1,500/uL
A

A. LD fluid/serum = 0.65

83
Q
  1. What is the purpose of adding
    0.025%–0.050% sodium polyanethol
    sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media
    for the collection of blood cultures?
    A. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement
    B. It promotes formation of a blood clot
    C. It enhances growth of anaerobes
    D. It functions as a preservative
A

A. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement

84
Q
  1. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar is a
    highly selective medium used for the recovery
    of which bacteria?
    A. Staphylococcus spp. from normal flora
    B. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on
    Hektoen agar
    C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal
    specimens
    D. Streptococcus spp. from stool cultures
A

C. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal
specimens

85
Q
  1. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine
    deaminase?
    A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
    B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
    C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
    D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
A

B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus

86
Q
  1. Four blood cultures were taken over
    a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old
    woman with severe diarrhea. The
    cultures grew motile (room temperature),
    gram-negative rods. A urine specimen
    obtained by catheterization also showed
    gram-negative rods, 100,000 col/mL. Given the following results, which is the most likely organism?
    TSI = A/A gas
    Indole = +
    VP = Neg
    MR = +
    H2S = Neg
    Citrate = Neg
    Urease = Neg
    Lysine decarboxylase = +
    Phenylalanine deaminase = Neg

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. E. coli

A

D. E. coli

87
Q
  1. A bloody stool from a 26-year-old woman
    with 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the
    following results at 48 hours after being
    plated on the following media:
    MacConkey agar: little normal flora with
    many nonlactose-fermenting colonies
    Hektoen enteric agar: many blue-green
    colonies
    Campylobacter blood agar and C. difficile agar:
    no growth
    Clear colonies (from MacConkey agar) tested
    negative for oxidase, indole, urease, motility,
    and H2S
    The most likely identification is:
    A. Shigella spp.
    B. Salmonella spp.
    C. Proteus spp.
    D. E. coli
A

A. Shigella spp.

88
Q
  1. The following results were obtained from a pure culture of gram-negative rods recovered from the pulmonary secretions of a 10-year-old cystic fibrosis patient with pneumonia:
    Oxidase = +
    Motility = +
    Glucose OF (open) = +
    Gelatin hydrolysis = +
    Pigment = Red (nonfluorescent)
    Growth at 42°C = +
    Flagella = + (polar monotrichous)
    Arginine dihydrolase = +

Which is the most likely organism?
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
B. Pseudomonas stutzeri
C. Burkholderia cepacia
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

89
Q
  1. A yellow pigment–producing organism that
    is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not
    grow on MacConkey agar is:
    A. Acinetobacter baumannii
    B. Acinetobacter lwoffii
    C. Burkholderia cepacia
    D. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
A

D. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum

90
Q
  1. Which of the following tests should be done
    first in order to differentiate Aeromonas spp.
    from the Enterobacteriaceae?
    A. Urease
    B. OF glucose
    C. Oxidase
    D. Catalase
A

C. Oxidase

91
Q
  1. The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test:

Coagulase at 4 hours = +
Coagulase at 18 hours = Neg
Novobiocin = Sensitive
Hemolysis on blood agar = β (16-mm zone)
Mannitol salt plate = +
DNase = + (acid production)

What is the most probable identification?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus hominis

A

C. Staphylococcus aureus

92
Q
  1. Two blood cultures on a newborn grew β-hemolytic streptococci with the following reactions:

CAMP test = +
Hippurate hydrolysis = +
Bile solubility = Neg
6.5% salt = +
Bacitracin = Resistant
Bile esculin = Neg
PYR = Neg
Trimethoprim–
sulfamethoxazole =
Resistant

Which is the most likely identification?
A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Group D streptococci
D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup
D streptococci

A

B. Group B streptococci

93
Q
  1. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus
    growing on sheep-blood agar anaerobically
    produces a double zone of β-hemolysis and
    is positive for lecithinase. What is the
    presumptive identification?
    A. Bacteroides ureolyticus
    B. Bacteroides fragilis
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium difficile
A

C. Clostridium perfringens

94
Q
  1. A small, gram-negative coccobacillus
    recovered from the CSF of a 2-year-old
    child gave the following results:
    Indole = +
    Glucose = + (acid)
    X requirement = +
    V requirement = +
    Urease = +
    Lactose = Neg
    Sucrose = Neg
    Hemolysis = Neg

Which is the most likely identification?
A. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Haemophilus aphrophilus

A

B. Haemophilus influenzae

95
Q
  1. Growth inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide (T2H) is used to differentiate M. tuberculosis from which other Mycobacterium specie?
    A. M. bovis
    B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    C. M. kansasii
    D. M. marinum
A

A. M. bovis

96
Q
  1. Arthrospore (arthroconidia) production
    is used to differentiate which two yeast
    isolates?
    A. Candida albicans and Candida
    stellatoidea
    B. Trichosporon spp. and Cryptococcus spp.
    C. Candida albicans and Candida
    tropicalis
    D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Candida
    (Torulopsis) glabrata
A

B. Trichosporon spp. and Cryptococcus spp.

97
Q
  1. A thermally dimorphic fungus shows a filamentous mold form with tuberculate macroconidia at room temperature, and a
    yeast form above 35°C.

Which organism
best fits this description?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
C. Candida albicans
D. Coccidioides immitis

A

A. Histoplasma capsulatum

98
Q
  1. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics:
    A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested
    RBCs, and clear pseudopodia
    B. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane
    C. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and
    large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
    D. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested white blood cells (WBCs), and granular
    pseudopods
A

A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia

99
Q
  1. Cysts of Iodamoeba bütschlii typically have:
    A. Chromatoidal bars with rounded ends
    B. A heavily vacuolated cytoplasm
    C. A large glycogen vacuole
    D. Many ingested bacteria and yeast cells
A

C. A large glycogen vacuole

100
Q
  1. What gene must be amplified in PCR to differentiate methicillin-resistant
    Staphylococcus aureus from methicillin resistant coagulase-negative
    Staphylococcus?
    A. orfX
    B. mecA
    C. VanA
    D. iles-2
A

A. orfX

***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th (63 decks)

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