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***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th > Education and Management > Flashcards

Education and Management Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. A comparison of methods for the determination
    of alkaline phosphatase is categorized in which
    domain of educational objectives?
    A. Affective
    B. Psychomotor
    C. Cognitive
    D. Behavioral
A

C. Cognitive

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2
Q
  1. Attitude, judgment, and interest refer to which
    domain of educational objectives?
    A. Cognitive
    B. Affective
    C. Psychomotor
    D. Competency
A

B. Affective

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3
Q
  1. Criterion-referenced examinations are used in
    order to determine the:
    A. Competency of a student according to a
    predetermined standard
    B. Validity of a test
    C. Status of one student compared to the whole
    group
    D. Accuracy of a test
A

A. Competency of a student according to a predetermined standard

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4
Q
  1. An instructor “curved” a blood bank exam given
    to medical laboratory science students. The
    highest grade was an 85% and the lowest grade
    was a 60%. What type of test is this?
    A. Subjective
    B. Objective
    C. Norm referenced
    D. Criterion referenced
A

C. Norm referenced

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5
Q
  1. A stated competency requirement for a medical
    laboratory science student is to perform
    calibration, plot data, and evaluate the
    acceptability of controls. This competency
    requirement encompasses which educational
    objective?
    A. Cognitive
    B. Psychomotor
    C. Affective
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

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6
Q
  1. A chemistry test result from a chemotherapy
    patient was within normal limits on Tuesday.
    The same test was reported as abnormal on
    Monday (“flagged” high and approaching a
    critical value). The technologist performing the
    test noted a delta-check error and remembered
    that both controls ran much higher on Monday
    although they were within acceptable limits.
    The technologist’s decision to follow-up this
    discrepancy before reporting the results is an
    example of which domain of behavioral
    objectives?
    A. Cognitive
    B. Affective
    C. Psychomotor
    D. Organizational
A

B. Affective

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7
Q
  1. In general, academic evaluation of students
    depends on the ability of the instructor to create a
    test that reflects the stated objectives of the course
    material as well as making the test:
    A. Reliable and valid
    B. Normally distributed and practical
    C. Fair and short
    D. Written and oral
A

A. Reliable and valid

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8
Q
  1. When dealing with the instruction of complex
    instrumentation, a demonstration by the
    instructor is necessary and should include the
    following:
    A. Detailed diagrams of the electrical system
    B. A blueprint of the optical system
    C. A step-by-step narrative with comparisons to a
    manual method
    D. A quiz as soon as the demonstration is complete
A

C. A step-by-step narrative with comparisons to a
manual method

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9
Q
  1. One method of learning is by giving a small group
    of students a topic to discuss or a problem to solve
    rather than a formal lecture by the instructor.
    Each participant is given a portion of the topic
    to discuss or solve. This method of learning is
    popular and used easily with which of the
    following approaches?
    A. Case study
    B. Manual demonstration
    C. Implementing new equipment
    D. Histogram evaluation
A

A. Case study

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10
Q
  1. An instructor of medical laboratory science was
    given the task of expanding the curriculum for the
    senior (baccalaureate degree) medical laboratory
    science students. Which of the following subjects
    should be included in the curriculum?
    A. Cytology—cytogenetics
    B. Histology—special stains
    C. Computer (laboratory information
    systems [LIS])
    D. Economics—budget analysis
A

C. Computer (laboratory information
systems [LIS])

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11
Q
  1. McGregor’s X–Y theory advocates managing
    employees by stressing:
    A. Equal pay for equal work
    B. A pyramid of attainable goals for satisfaction
    at work
    C. Respect for the worker and acknowledgment of
    his/her ability to perform a task
    D. Collective bargaining
A

C. Respect for the worker and acknowledgment of
his/her ability to perform a task

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12
Q
  1. Maslow’s theory of management is based upon:
    A. The premise that all workers are unmotivated
    B. A pyramid of goals for the satisfaction of
    employee needs
    C. Use of detractors and perks to keep employees
    happy
    D. The professional development of the employee
A

B. A pyramid of goals for the satisfaction of
employee needs

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13
Q
  1. Herzberg’s theory relies on motivators that are
    part of the job design in order to instill job
    satisfaction. These same motivators can become
    dissatisfiers if they are lacking in a job. Herzberg’s
    motivators are:
    A. Opportunity for achievement and advancement
    B. Performance evaluations every 24 months
    C. Continuing education sessions requiring
    supervisory approval
    D. Punitive actions taken when improvement
    diminishes
A

A. Opportunity for achievement and advancement

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14
Q
  1. Management by objective (MBO) is least effective
    for managing employees in which situation?
    A. Employees must be creative in their work
    B. The laboratory is converting to a new computer
    system
    C. The laboratory is undergoing a renovation
    D. Employees jointly agree to institutional goals
A

A. Employees must be creative in their work

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15
Q
  1. The four essential functions of a manager are:
    A. Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
    B. Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
    C. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
    D. Innovating, designing, coordinating, problem
    solving
A

C. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following questions is allowable
    during a pre-employment interview?
    A. How many times have you been pregnant?
    B. Have you been convicted of any felonies?
    C. Does your husband belong to any religious
    societies?
    D. Are you planning to use the hospital day care
    center?
A

B. Have you been convicted of any felonies?

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17
Q
  1. Direct laboratory costs for tests include which
    of the following?
    A. Equipment maintenance
    B. Insurance
    C. Depreciation
    D. Overtime pay
A

D. Overtime pay

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following accounts for the largest
    portion of the direct cost of a laboratory test?
    A. Reagents
    B. General supplies
    C. Technologist labor
    D. Instrument depreciation
A

C. Technologist labor

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19
Q
  1. Using the surcharge/cost-plus method for
    determining test charges, determine the charge
    for an ova and parasite examination on fecal
    specimens, given the following information:
    Collection, handling, clerical, and so forth = $2.00
    Reference lab charge to lab = $20.00
    Lab “markup” = 100%
    A. $22.00
    B. $32.00
    C. $42.00
    D. $122.00
A

C. $42.00

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20
Q
  1. In deciding whether to adopt a new test on the
    laboratory’s automated chemistry analyzer, which
    parameters are needed to determine the number of
    tests that must be performed to break even?
    A. Test turnaround time
    B. Cost of labor per hour
    C. Number of other tests performed per month
    D. Total fixed laboratory costs
A

D. Total fixed laboratory costs

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21
Q
  1. Which statement best represents the relationship
    between test volume and revenue or costs for
    batch-run tests?
    A. As volume increases, the fixed cost per test also
    increases
    B. As volume increases, the revenue also increases
    C. Revenue is approximately equal for both
    high- and low-volume tests
    D. 90% of the revenue is generated by 5% of the
    tests offered
A

B. As volume increases, the revenue also increases

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22
Q
  1. A hospital submits a bill for $200.00 to the patient’s
    insurance company for the cost of outpatient
    laboratory tests. The laboratory services rendered
    by the hospital are paid according to an agreed fee
    schedule. The specific laboratory procedures are
    billed according to which system of coding?
    A. Diagnosis-related group (DRG)
    B. Current procedural terminology (CPT)
    C. Medicare
    D. Medicaid
A

B. Current procedural terminology (CPT)

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23
Q
  1. A hospital has a contract with a major medical
    insurer that reimburses the laboratory at a rate
    of $1.00 per insured life per year. This type of
    reimbursement is called:
    A. A prospective payment system
    B. A preferred provider discount
    C. Capitation
    D. Diagnosis-related group
A

C. Capitation

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24
Q
  1. According to federal and state regulations, a
    hospital’s capital budget should include which
    of the following before projects that cost $150,000
    can be submitted for approval?
    A. A time table of completion
    B. A cost analysis
    C. Salaries and wages for new employees
    D. A certificate of need
A

D. A certificate of need

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25
Q
  1. A rural hospital laboratory employs 8.25 FTEs
    (full-time equivalents). In order to budget for next
    year’s salaries for these employees, the laboratory
    manager needs to submit which figures for the
    laboratory’s projected annual budget?
    A. Total (paid) hours
    B. Productive (worked) hours
    C. Total hours of full-time employees
    D. Total hours of part-time employees
A

A. Total (paid) hours

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26
Q
  1. A chemistry profile that includes electrolytes,
    glucose, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and
    creatinine is ordered on an 80-year-old woman
    with symptoms of vomiting and dizziness. How
    should the laboratory submit the charge for these
    tests for reimbursement by Medicare?
    A. Submit as one test
    B. Submit each test separately
    C. Submit Medicare-approved tests only
    D. Submit as four individual tests
A

A. Submit as one test

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27
Q
  1. According to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement
    Act of 1988 (CLIA ’88), control of laboratory test
    reliability is accomplished by all of the following
    requirements except:
    A. Documentation of quality control results and
    corrective actions
    B. Participation in proficiency testing for all
    nonwaivered tests
    C. Professional certification of all testing personnel
    D. Demonstration that all quantitative tests meet
    manufacturer’s performance specifications
A

C. Professional certification of all testing personnel

28
Q
  1. CLIA ’88 specifies that the minimum
    requirements for proficiency testing (PT) of
    analytes for which PT is required (excluding
    cytology) are:
    A. One challenge per analyte and one testing event
    per year
    B. Ten challenges per analyte and five testing events
    per year
    C. Five challenges per analyte and at least three
    testing events per year
    D. Twelve challenges per analyte and one testing
    event per month
A

C. Five challenges per analyte and at least three
testing events per year

29
Q
  1. According to CLIA ’88, satisfactory performance
    for ABO, Rh, and compatibility tests requires a
    score of:
    A. 100%
    B. 90%
    C. 80%
    D. 75%
A

A. 100%

30
Q
  1. In order to comply with CLIA ’88, calibration
    materials must:
    A. Be purchased by an authorized agency such as
    the College of Pathology
    B. Have concentration values that cover the
    laboratory’s reportable range
    C. Be traceable to the National Calibration Board
    D. Be identical in concentration to those sold by
    the reagent manufacturer
A

B. Have concentration values that cover the
laboratory’s reportable range

31
Q
  1. According to CLIA ’88, calibration materials
    should be appropriate for the methodology
    and be:
    A. Of bovine origin
    B. Three times the normal range for the specific
    analyte
    C. Traceable to a reference method and reference
    material of known value
    D. Twice the laboratory’s reference range for the
    analyte
A

C. Traceable to a reference method and reference
material of known value

32
Q
  1. Under CLIA ’88, testing personnel with an
    associate degree and appropriate training in the
    clinical laboratory are authorized to perform:
    A. Waived tests only
    B. Tests that are qualitative or waived and some
    moderate-complexity tests
    C. Waived and moderate-complexity tests
    D. Waived, moderate-complexity, and highcomplexity tests
A

D. Waived, moderate-complexity, and high complexity tests

33
Q
  1. Sexual harassment is a form of discrimination
    and therefore is prohibited by the:
    A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
    (OSHA)
    B. Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VII)
    C. Right to Privacy Act of 1974
    D. Department of Health and Human Services
A

B. Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VII)

34
Q
  1. Which order of events should be followed at the
    conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order
    to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?
    A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands,
    remove lab coat
    B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat,
    wash hands
    C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands,
    remove lab coat
    D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat,
    disinfect area
A

B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat,
wash hands

35
Q
  1. Records of a patient’s laboratory test results may
    not be released without his or her consent to
    anyone outside the clinical laboratory except to the:
    A. American Red Cross
    B. Department of Health and Human Services
    C. Insurance carrier
    D. Physician who ordered the tests
A

D. Physician who ordered the tests

36
Q
  1. Unethical behavior by a laboratory supervisor
    that results in a compromise of employee safety
    should be:
    A. Reported to a higher authority
    B. Directly confronted
    C. Reported to the EEOC
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

37
Q
  1. The most common deficiency cited during an
    onsite laboratory inspection by the College of
    American Pathologists (CAP) and the Joint
    Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
    Organizations (JCAHO) is:
    A. Improper documentation
    B. Insufficient work space area
    C. Improper reagent storage
    D. Improper instrument calibration frequency
A

A. Improper documentation

38
Q
  1. Which of the following circumstances is
    considered a form of sexual harassment?
    A. Unwelcome sexual advances by a supervisor
    B. Requests for favors of a sexual nature from a
    fellow laboratory employee
    C. Physical conduct of a sexual nature from an
    employee working in another department
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

39
Q
  1. The material safety data sheets (MSDSs) for
    hazardous chemicals address which of the
    following conditions?
    A. Physical characteristics of the chemical
    B. Safe handling and storage of the chemical
    C. Specific health hazards associated with the
    chemical
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

40
Q
  1. A new employee’s performance is to be evaluated
    at the end of his or her probationary period, and
    must relate to:
    A. The person’s job description
    B. Verbal instructions given
    C. Wage and salary policies
    D. Recruitment practices
A

A. The person’s job description

41
Q
  1. Which regulatory agency mandates the following
    requirements for protection of employees of
    clinical laboratories?
    * Provide personal protective equipment (PPE)
    * Require hepatitis B vaccinations at no cost
    * Require specific biohazard materials labeling
    * Provide training and updating yearly of safety
    standards
    A. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
    B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
    (OSHA)
    C. American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)
    D. American Society of Clinical Pathologists
    (ASCP)
A

B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)

42
Q
  1. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988
    (CLIA ’88) was enacted to regulate the following:
    A. All clinical laboratories in the United States
    B. Independent labs not regulated by OSHA
    C. Environmental Protection Agency laboratories
    D. Industrial laboratories
A

A. All clinical laboratories in the United States

43
Q
  1. Records of a patient’s laboratory test results may
    be released without the prior consent of the patient
    to all of the following except:
    A. An insurance carrier
    B. Physician on call
    C. Nursing staff
    D. An employer
A

D. An employer

44
Q
  1. The following is (are) successful indicator(s) of
    Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Improvement
    (QI) programs in a clinical laboratory:
    A. A “log” of incident report and solutions attained
    B. Emergency department and STAT “turnaround
    times”
    C. Positive patient identification wristbands for
    blood bank operations
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

45
Q
  1. Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) is a team
    effort approach for clinical laboratories to:
    A. Identify potential problems and correct them
    B. Set lab financial benchmarks for the year
    C. Make up new CPT codes
    D. Improve overall wages for lab employees
A

A. Identify potential problems and correct them

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an appropriate
    guideline for phlebotomists to follow in order to
    prevent a malpractice lawsuit?
    A. Use one form of patient ID, such as a last name
    B. Keep patient confidentiality at all times
    C. Use aseptic venipuncture technique at all times
    D. Label specimens only after the blood has been
    drawn
A

A. Use one form of patient ID, such as a last name

47
Q
  1. According to CLIA ’88, testing personnel
    performing high-complexity laboratory tests must
    have at least a:
    A. Bachelor of Arts degree
    B. Bachelor of Science degree in medical laboratory
    science (MLS)
    C. Associate degree in medical laboratory
    science (MLT)
    D. High school diploma
A

C. Associate degree in medical laboratory
science (MLT)

48
Q
  1. During an interview, an employer may request the
    following from a prospective new employee:
    A. Marital status
    B. Age of children
    C. Arrest record for driving under the influence
    of alcohol
    D. Professional certification
A

D. Professional certification

49
Q
  1. A new laboratory information system (LIS) will be
    evaluated by the laboratory staff. Which of the
    following points should be considered in the
    evaluation?
    A. Cost of updating software
    B. Interface ability with existing laboratory
    instruments
    C. Tracking of uncrossmatched blood units in
    Blood Bank
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

50
Q
  1. Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:
    A. All testing done to the patient to save time
    B. All lab testing done in the central lab
    C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s
    bedside
    D. Satellite lab testing
A

C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s
bedside

51
Q
  1. “Six sigma” is a method used in industry and
    business as well as the clinical laboratory in
    order to:
    A. Allow for improved performance
    B. Prevent and remove defects in production
    C. Improve customer satisfaction
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

52
Q
  1. The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for
    hazardous materials must be reviewed by
    personnel per Occupational Safety and Health
    Administration (OSHA) regulations:
    A. Weekly
    B. Monthly
    C. Every 6 months
    D. Yearly
A

D. Yearly

53
Q
  1. SITUATION: A medical laboratory science student
    in training accidentally splashed a few drops of an
    extraction reagent from an enzyme immunoassay
    kit for group A Streptococcus into her right eye,
    and felt an immediate burning sensation. What
    should she do first?
    A. Locate the MSDS sheet for the EIA test kit
    B. Go directly to the emergency department for
    treatment
    C. Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye
    thoroughly with water
    D. Report directly to her immediate supervisor
A

C. Go to the eye-wash station and rinse the eye
thoroughly with water

54
Q
  1. A laboratory information system (LIS) uses an
    algorithm based on the delta check process to
    identify erroneous results. This process is a part
    of which LIS function?
    A. Quality control management
    B. Real-time instrument interfacing
    C. Autoverification of test results
    D. Electronic crossmatching
A

C. Autoverification of test results

55
Q
  1. According to CLIA ’88, when performing and
    documenting linearity, the following samples are
    required:
    A. A single calibrator and a zero set point
    B. One normal and one abnormal level
    C. Three levels of known concentration and a
    zero level
    D. A high and low control material
A

C. Three levels of known concentration and a
zero level

56
Q
  1. Which of the following would not be appropriate
    for point-of-care testing?
    A. Cardiac markers
    B. Thyroid stimulating hormone
    C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
    D. Blood gases
A

B. Thyroid stimulating hormone

57
Q
  1. SITUATION: A shipment from a laboratory
    supply company arrived over the weekend. The
    shipment consisted of glass slides, latex gloves,
    and plastic test tubes—all nonperishable items.
    It was left on the outside loading dock overnight.
    Are these supplies useable for patient care/testing?
    A. Yes, with no further quality assurance testing
    required
    B. Yes, but only after quality analysis is performed
    to ensure they were not affected adversely
    C. No, the latex gloves might be contaminated, but
    the slides and test tubes may be used
    D. No, all supplies left outside for 24 hours
    unattended must be discarded
A

B. Yes, but only after quality analysis is performed
to ensure they were not affected adversely

58
Q
  1. SITUATION: An immunology supervisor ordered
    several antinuclear antibody and influenza A kits.
    The outside packaging of both kits was marked to
    store at 2°C–8°C. The kits were shipped with dry
    ice, but were unpacked at 7:00 p.m. and left in
    the mailroom at room temperature until 7:00 a.m.
    the next morning. What should be done with
    the kits?
    A. They can be placed into inventory
    B. They must be tested using quality controls before
    use and used only if QC performance is
    acceptable
    C. The kits should not be used for clinical testing
    D. The disposition of the kits depends on the
    manufacturer’s documentation for stability and
    the lab’s lot-to-lot analysis
A

D. The disposition of the kits depends on the
manufacturer’s documentation for stability and
the lab’s lot-to-lot analysis

59
Q
  1. SITUATION: Your immediate supervisor requests
    that you back date and complete the QC log for
    RPR test controls that were supposed to have been
    performed the previous day. You did not work that
    day, and suspect that the technologist who did
    work that day failed to enter the QC results. Such
    an ethical dilemma falls under which behavioral
    domain?
    A. Cognitive
    B. Psychomotor
    C. Affective
    D. None of these options
A

C. Affective

60
Q
  1. What documents are needed to meet the
    ISO-9000 standards for laboratory certification?
    A. Quality manual, document control, internal
    audits, corrective and preventive actions
    B. Work performance evaluation, maintenance,
    budgeting
    C. Inventory, quality control, customer satisfaction
    D. Risk prevention, quality control, personnel
A

A. Quality manual, document control, internal
audits, corrective and preventive actions

61
Q
  1. In the field of clinical laboratory testing and in
    vitro diagnostic test systems, ISO/TC 212 is the
    document used for standardization and guidance
    in all of the following areas except:
    A. Quality management and quality assurance
    B. Scheduling, yearly evaluations, and workloads
    C. Pre- and postanalytical procedures
    D. Laboratory safety and reference systems
A

B. Scheduling, yearly evaluations, and workloads

62
Q
  1. SITUATION: In the course of isolation,
    B. anthracis is recovered that may be implicated
    in an act of bioterrorism. Such an organism
    would fall under which Centers for Disease
    Control category of biological agent?
    A. Category A
    B. Category B
    C. Category C
    D. None of these options
A

A. Category A

63
Q
  1. SITUATION: A patient refuses to have his blood
    drawn for a routine laboratory test request made
    by his physician. What is the most appropriate
    course of action?
    A. Perform the venipuncture against the patient’s will
    B. Do not attempt the venipuncture and file an
    incident report with the laboratory manager
    C. Request that the patient be sedated, then collect
    the sample
    D. Request assistance from the legal department
A

B. Do not attempt the venipuncture and file an
incident report with the laboratory manager

64
Q
  1. Which of the following accurately describes the
    steps involved in a LEAN process?
    A. Lower cost, efficient flow, added value, net result
    B. Customer value, value stream map, flow, pull,
    improved outcome
    C. Satisfaction, cost savings, turnaround time
    D. Efficiency study, modeling, construct,
    step-by-step process
A

B. Customer value, value stream map, flow, pull,
improved outcome

65
Q
  1. SITUATION: A lab wishes to evaluate its specimen
    processing operations to improve test turnaround
    time for cardiac markers using a LEAN process.
    To accomplish this, the lab manager measures the
    time it takes for specimens to be collected and
    transported to the lab, entered into the LIS and
    instrument data link, centrifuged, and placed on
    the automated track. This process is called:
    A. Establishing pull
    B. Creating a flow diagram
    C. Mapping the value stream
    D. Process analysis
A

C. Mapping the value stream

***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th (63 decks)

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