Hematology- Hemostasis Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following initiates in vivo
    coagulation by activation of factor VII?
    A. Protein C
    B. Tissue factor
    C. Plasmin activator
    D. Thrombomodulin
A

B. Tissue factor

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factors plays a role
    in clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro
    clot formation and not in vivo coagulation?
    A. VIIa
    B. IIa
    C. XIIa
    D. Xa
A

C. XIIa

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3
Q
  1. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine
    coagulation studies is:
    A. Sodium oxalate
    B. Sodium citrate
    C. Heparin
    D. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
A

B. Sodium citrate

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4
Q
  1. Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct
    for coagulation procedures?
    A. 1:4
    B. 1:5
    C. 1:9
    D. 1:10
A

C. 1:9

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5
Q
  1. Which results would be expected for the
    prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial
    thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with
    polycythemia?
    A. Both prolonged
    B. Both shortened
    C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT
    D. Both normal
A

A. Both prolonged

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6
Q
  1. What reagents are used in the PT test?
    A. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride
    B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
    C. Thromboplastin and calcium
    D. Actin and calcium chloride
A

C. Thromboplastin and calcium

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7
Q
  1. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with
    factor X deficiency?
    A. PT only
    B. APTT only
    C. PT and APTT
    D. Thrombin time
A

C. PT and APTT

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8
Q
  1. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT
    and APTT tests?
    A. Factor VIII
    B. Factor IX
    C. Factor V
    D. Factor XIII
A

D. Factor XIII

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9
Q
  1. A modification of which procedure can be used to
    measure fibrinogen?
    A. PT
    B. APTT
    C. Thrombin time
    D. Fibrin degradation products
A

C. Thrombin time

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following characterizes vitamin K?
    A. It is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis
    B. Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy
    C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate
    residues of some coagulation factors
    D. It is made by the endothelial cells
A

C. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate
residues of some coagulation factors

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11
Q
  1. Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin
    degradation product test is correct?
    A. It detects early degradation products (X and Y)
    B. It is decreased in disseminated intravascular
    coagulation (DIC)
    C. It evaluates the coagulation system
    D. It detects late degradation products (D and E)
A

D. It detects late degradation products (D and E)

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factors are
    measured by the APTT test?
    A. II, VII, IX, X
    B. VII, X, V, II, I
    C. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I
    D. XII, VII, X, V, II, I
A

C. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

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13
Q
  1. Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a
    vitamin K–deficient patient?
    A. PT only
    B. PT and APTT
    C. Fibrinogen level
    D. Thrombin time
A

B. PT and APTT

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding the
    international normalized ratio (INR)?
    A. It uses the International Sensitivity Ratio (ISR)
    B. It standardizes PT results
    C. It standardizes APTT results
    D. It is used to monitor heparin therapy
A

B. It standardizes PT results

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is referred to as an
    endogenous activator of plasminogen?
    A. Streptokinase
    B. Transamidase
    C. Tissue plasminogen activator
    D. Tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor
A

C. Tissue plasminogen activator

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16
Q
  1. Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the
    fibrinolytic system?
    A. Protein C
    B. Protein S
    C. α2-Antiplasmin
    D. α2-Macroglobulin
A

C. α2-Antiplasmin

17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct
    regarding the D-dimer test?
    A. Levels are decreased in DIC
    B. Test detects polypeptides A and B
    C. Test detects fragments D and E
    D. Test has a negative predictive value
A

D. Test has a negative predictive value

18
Q
  1. A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and
    platelet aggregation is:
    A. Factor I
    B. Factor VIII
    C. Factor IX
    D. Factor XI
A

A. Factor I

19
Q
  1. A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL
    of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT
    and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient
    undergoing surgery the following morning for a
    tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the
    necessary course of action by the technologist?
    A. Run both tests in duplicate and report the
    average result
    B. Reject the sample and request a new sample
    C. Report the PT result
    D. Report the APTT result
A

B. Reject the sample and request a new sample

20
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding sample
    storage for the prothrombin time test?
    A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped
    B. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is refrigerated
    at 4°C
    C. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at 4°C
    D. Should be run within 8 hours
A

A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped

21
Q
  1. In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity
    results in response to:
    A. Increased fibrin formation
    B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
    C. Increased fibrin monomers
    D. DIC
A

B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis

22
Q
  1. Plasminogen deficiency is associated with:
    A. Bleeding
    B. Thrombosis
    C. Increased fibrinolysis
    D. Increased coagulation
A

B. Thrombosis

23
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factors are
    activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue
    pathway (TF-VIIa)?
    A. XII, XI
    B. XII, I
    C. I, II
    D. V, VIII
A

D. V, VIII

24
Q
  1. What substrate is used in a chromogenic factor
    assay?
    A. p-nitroanaline
    B. Chloropheonol red
    C. Prussian blue
    D. Ferricyanide
A

A. p-nitroanaline

25
Q
  1. Which of the following antibodies is used in the
    D-dimer assay?
    A. Polyclonal directed against X and Y fragments
    B. Polyclonal directed against D-dimer
    C. Monoclonal against D and E fragments
    D. Monoclonal against D-dimer
A

D. Monoclonal against D-dimer