Clinical Chemistry- Instrumentation Flashcards
1
Q
- Which formula correctly describes the relationship
between absorbance and %T ?
A. A = 2 – log %T
B. A = log 1/T
C. A = –log T
D. All of these options
A
D. All of these options
2
Q
- A solution that has a transmittance of 1.0 %T
would have an absorbance of:
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 1%
D. 99%
A
B. 2.0
3
Q
- In absorption spectrophotometry:
A. Absorbance is directly proportional to
transmittance
B. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to
concentration
C. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to
the light path length
D. Absorbance is directly proportional to
concentration
A
D. Absorbance is directly proportional to
concentration
4
Q
- Which wavelength would be absorbed strongly
by a red-colored solution?
A. 450 nm
B. 585 nm
C. 600 nm
D. 650 nm
A
A. 450 nm
5
Q
- A green-colored solution would show highest
transmittance at:
A. 475 nm
B. 525 nm
C. 585 nm
D. 620 nm
A
B. 525 nm
6
Q
- SITUATION: A technologist is performing an
enzyme assay at 340 nm using a visible-range
spectrophotometer. After setting the wavelength
and adjusting the readout to zero %T with the
light path blocked, a cuvette with deionized water
is inserted. With the light path fully open and the
100%T control at maximum, the instrument
readout will not rise above 90%T. What is the
most appropriate first course of action?
A. Replace the source lamp
B. Insert a wider cuvette into the light path
C. Measure the voltage across the lamp terminals
D. Replace the instrument fuse
A
A. Replace the source lamp
7
Q
- Which type of monochromator produces the
purest monochromatic light in the UV range?
A. A diffraction grating and a fixed exit slit
B. A sharp cutoff filter and a variable exit slit
C. Interference filters and a variable exit slit
D. A prism and a variable exit slit
A
D. A prism and a variable exit slit
8
Q
- Which monochromator specification is required
in order to measure the true absorbance of a
compound having a natural absorption
bandwidth of 30 nm?
A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass
A
D. 5-nm bandpass
9
Q
- Which photodetector is most sensitive to low
levels of light?
A. Barrier layer cell
B. Photodiode
C. Diode array
D. Photomultiplier tube
A
D. Photomultiplier tube
10
Q
- Which condition is a common cause of stray light?
A. Unstable source lamp voltage
B. Improper wavelength calibration
C. Dispersion from second-order spectra
D. Misaligned source lamp
A
C. Dispersion from second-order spectra
11
Q
- A linearity study is performed on a visible
spectrophotometer at 650 nm and the following absorbance readings are obtained:
The study was repeated using freshly prepared
standards and reagents, but results were identical
to those shown. What is the most likely cause of
these results?
A. Wrong wavelength used
B. Insufficient chromophore concentration
C. Matrix interference
D. Stray light
A
D. Stray light
12
Q
- Which type of filter is best for measuring stray
light?
A. Wratten
B. Didymium
C. Sharp cutoff
D. Neutral density
A
C. Sharp cutoff
13
Q
- Which of the following materials is best suited
for verifying the wavelength calibration of a
spectrophotometer?
A. Neutral density filters
B. Potassium dichromate solutions traceable to the
National Bureau of Standards reference
C. Wratten filters
D. Holmium oxide glass
A
D. Holmium oxide glass
14
Q
- Why do many optical systems in chemistry
analyzers utilize a reference light path?
A. To increase the sensitivity of the measurement
B. To minimize error caused by source lamp
fluctuation
C. To obviate the need for wavelength adjustment
D. To reduce stray light effects
A
B. To minimize error caused by source lamp
fluctuation
15
Q
- Which component is required in a
spectrophotometer in order to produce a
spectral absorbance curve?
A. Multiple monochromators
B. A reference optical beam
C. Photodiode array
D. Laser light source
A
C. Photodiode array
16
Q
- The half-band width of a monochromator is
defined by:
A. The range of wavelengths passed at
50% maximum transmittance
B. One-half the lowest wavelength of optical
purity
C. The wavelength of peak transmittance
D. One-half the wavelength of peak absorbance
A
A. The range of wavelengths passed at
50% maximum transmittance
17
Q
- The reagent blank corrects for absorbance
caused by:
A. The color of reagents
B. Sample turbidity
C. Bilirubin and hemolysis
D. All of these options
A
A. The color of reagents
18
Q
- A plasma sample is hemolyzed and turbid. What
is required to perform a sample blank in order
to correct the measurement for the intrinsic
absorbance of the sample when performing a
spectrophotometric assay?
A. Substitute deionized water for the sample
B. Dilute the sample 1:2 with a standard of
known concentration
C. Substitute saline for the reagent
D. Use a larger volume of the sample
A
C. Substitute saline for the reagent
19
Q
- Which instrument requires a highly regulated
DC power supply?
A. A spectrophotometer with a barrier layer cell
B. A colorimeter with multilayer interference
filters
C. A spectrophotometer with a photomultiplier
tube
D. A densitometer with a photodiode detector
A
C. A spectrophotometer with a photomultiplier
tube
20
Q
- Which statement regarding reflectometry is true?
A. The relation between reflectance density and
concentration is linear
B. Single-point calibration can be used to determine
concentration
C. 100% reflectance is set with an opaque film
called a white reference
D. The diode array is the photodetector of choice
A
C. 100% reflectance is set with an opaque film
called a white reference
21
Q
- Bichromatic measurement of absorbance can
correct for interfering substances if:
A. The contribution of the interferent to absorbance
is the same at both wavelengths
B. Both wavelengths pass through the sample
simultaneously
C. The side band is a harmonic of the primary
wavelength
D. The chromogen has the same absorbance at both
wavelengths
A
A. The contribution of the interferent to absorbance
is the same at both wavelengths
22
Q
- Which instrument requires a primary and
secondary monochromator?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
C. Fluorometer
D. Nephelometer
A
C. Fluorometer
23
Q
- Which of the following statements about
fluorometry is accurate?
A. Fluorometry is less sensitive than
spectrophotometry
B. Fluorometry is less specific than
spectrophotometry
C. Unsaturated cyclic molecules are often
fluorescent
D. Fluorescence is directly proportional to
temperature
A
C. Unsaturated cyclic molecules are often
fluorescent
24
Q
- Which of the following components is not needed
in a chemiluminescent immunoassay analyzer?
A. Source lamp
B. Monochromator
C. Photodetector
D. Wash station
A
A. Source lamp
25
Q
- Which substance is used to generate the light
signal in electrochemiluminescence?
A. Acridinium
B. Luminol
C. Dioxetane phosphate
D. Ruthenium
A
D. Ruthenium
26
Q
- Light scattering when the wavelength is greater
than 10 times the particle diameter is described by:
A. Rayleigh’s law
B. The Beer–Lambert law
C. Mie’s law
D. The Rayleigh–Debye law
A
A. Rayleigh’s law
27
Q
- Which statement regarding nephelometry is true?
A. Nephelometry is less sensitive than absorption
spectrophotometry
B. Nephelometry follows Beer’s law
C. The optical design is identical to a turbidimeter
except that a HeNe laser light source is used
D. The detector response is directly proportional to
concentration
A
D. The detector response is directly proportional to
concentration
28
Q
- The purpose of the nebulizer in an atomic
absorption spectrophotometer that uses
a flame is to:
A. Convert ions to atoms
B. Cause ejection of an outer shell electron
C. Reduce evaporation of the sample
D. Burn off organic impurities
A
A. Convert ions to atoms
29
Q
- A flameless atomic absorption spectrophotometer
dehydrates and atomizes a sample using:
A. A graphite capillary furnace
B. An electron gun
C. A thermoelectric semiconductor
D. A thermospray platform
A
A. A graphite capillary furnace
30
Q
- When measuring lead in whole blood using atomic
absorption spectrophotometry, what reagent is
required to obtain the needed sensitivity and
precision?
A. Lanthanum
B. Lithium
C. Triton X-100
D. Chloride
A
C. Triton X-100
31
Q
- Interference in atomic absorption
spectrophotometry caused by differences
in viscosity is called:
A. Absorption interference
B. Matrix effect
C. Ionization interference
D. Quenching
A
B. Matrix effect
32
Q
- All of the following are required when
measuring magnesium by atomic absorption
spectrophotometry except:
A. A hollow cathode lamp with a magnesium
cathode
B. A chopper to prevent optical interference from
magnesium emission
C. A monochromator to isolate the magnesium
emission line at 285 nm
D. A 285-nm reference beam to correct for
background absorption
A
D. A 285-nm reference beam to correct for
background absorption
33
Q
- When measuring calcium by atomic absorption
spectrophotometry, which is required?
A. An organic extraction reagent to deconjugate
calcium from protein
B. An internal standard
C. A magnesium chelator
D. Lanthanum oxide to chelate phosphates
A
D. Lanthanum oxide to chelate phosphates
34
Q
- Ion selective analyzers using undiluted samples
have what advantage over analyzers that use a
diluted sample?
A. Can measure over a wider range of
concentration
B. Are not subject to pseudohyponatremia caused
by high lipids
C. Do not require temperature equilibration
D. Require less maintenance
A
B. Are not subject to pseudohyponatremia caused
by high lipids
35
Q
- Select the equation describing the potential that
develops at the surface of an ion-selective
electrode.
A. van Deemter equation
B. van Slyke equation
C. Nernst equation
D. Henderson–Hasselbalch equation
A
C. Nernst equation
36
Q
- The reference potential of a silver–silver chloride
electrode is determined by the:
A. Concentration of the potassium chloride filling
solution
B. Surface area of the electrode
C. Activity of total anion in the paste covering the
electrode
D. The concentration of silver in the paste covering
the electrode
A
A. Concentration of the potassium chloride filling
solution
37
Q
- The term RT/nF in the Nernst equation
defines the:
A. Potential at the ion-selective membrane
B. Slope of the electrode
C. Decomposition potential
D. Isopotential point of the electrode
A
B. Slope of the electrode
38
Q
- The ion-selective membrane used to measure
potassium is made of:
A. High-borosilicate glass membrane
B. Polyvinyl chloride dioctylphenyl phosphonate
ion exchanger
C. Valinomycin gel
D. Calomel
A
C. Valinomycin gel
39
Q
- The response of a sodium electrode to a 10-fold
increase in sodium concentration should be:
A. A 10-fold drop in potential
B. An increase in potential of approximately 60 mV
C. An increase in potential of approximately 10 mV
D. A decrease in potential of approximately 10 mV
A
B. An increase in potential of approximately 60 mV
40
Q
- Which of the electrodes below is a currentproducing (amperometric) rather than a
voltage-producing (potentiometric) electrode?
A. Clark electrode
B. Severinghaus electrode
C. pH electrode
D. Ionized calcium electrode
A
A. Clark electrode
41
Q
- Which of the following would cause a “response”
error from an ion-selective electrode for sodium
when measuring serum but not the calibrator?
A. Interference from other electrolytes
B. Protein coating the ion-selective membrane
C. An overrange in sodium concentration
D. Protein binding to sodium ion
A
B. Protein coating the ion-selective membrane
42
Q
- In polarography, the voltage needed to cause
depolarization of the cathode is called the:
A. Half-wave potential
B. Isopotential point
C. Decomposition potential
D. Polarization potential
A
C. Decomposition potential
43
Q
- Persistent noise from an ion-selective electrode is
most often caused by:
A. Contamination of sample
B. Blocked junction at the salt bridge
C. Overrange from high concentration
D. Improper calibration
A
B. Blocked junction at the salt bridge
44
Q
- Which element is reduced at the cathode of a
Clark polarographic electrode?
A. Silver
B. Oxygen
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
A
B. Oxygen
45
Q
- Which of the following statements accurately
characterizes the coulometric titration of chloride?
A. The indicator electrodes generate voltage
B. Constant current must be present across the
generator electrodes
C. Silver ions are formed at the generator cathode
D. Chloride concentration is inversely proportional
to titration time
A
B. Constant current must be present across the
generator electrodes
46
Q
- In the coulometric chloride titration:
A. Acetic acid in the titrating solution furnishes
the counter ion for reduction
B. The endpoint is detected by amperometry
C. The titrating reagent contains a phosphate buffer
to keep pH constant
D. Nitric acid (HNO3) is used to lower the
solubility of AgCl
A
B. The endpoint is detected by amperometry
47
Q
- Which of the following compounds can interfere
with the coulometric chloride assay?
A. Bromide
B. Ascorbate
C. Acetoacetate
D. Nitrate
A
A. Bromide
48
Q
- All of the following compounds contribute to the
osmolality of plasma except:
A. Lipids
B. Creatinine
C. Drug metabolites
D. Glucose
A
A. Lipids
49
Q
- One mole per kilogram H2O of any solute will
cause all of the following except:
A. Lower the freezing point by 1.86°C
B. Raise vapor pressure by 0.3 mm Hg
C. Raise the boiling point by 0.52°C
D. Raise osmotic pressure by 22.4 atm
A
B. Raise vapor pressure by 0.3 mm Hg
50
Q
- What component of a freezing point osmometer
measures the sample temperature?
A. Thermistor
B. Thermocouple
C. Capacitor
D. Electrode
A
A. Thermistor
51
Q
- What type of measuring circuit is used in a
freezing point osmometer?
A. Electrometer
B. Potentiometer
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. Thermal conductivity bridge
A
C. Wheatstone bridge
52
Q
- Which measurement principle is employed in a
vapor pressure osmometer?
A. Seebeck
B. Peltier
C. Hayden
D. Darlington
A
A. Seebeck
53
Q
- The freezing point osmometer differs from the
vapor pressure osmometer in that only the freezing
point osmometer:
A. Cools the sample
B. Is sensitive to ethanol
C. Requires a thermoelectric module
D. Requires calibration with aqueous standards
A
B. Is sensitive to ethanol
54
Q
- The method for measuring iron or lead by plating
the metal and then oxidizing it is called:
A. Polarography
B. Coulometry
C. Anodic stripping voltometry
D. Amperometry
A
C. Anodic stripping voltometry
55
Q
- The term isocratic is used in high-performance
liquid chromatography (HPLC) to mean the:
A. Mobile phase is at constant temperature
B. Stationary phase is equilibrated with the mobile
phase
C. Mobile phase consists of a constant solvent
composition
D. Flow rate of the mobile phase is regulated
A
C. Mobile phase consists of a constant solvent
composition
56
Q
- The term reverse phase is used in HPLC to indicate
that the mobile phase is:
A. More polar than the stationary phase
B. Liquid and the stationary phase is solid
C. Organic and the stationary phase is aqueous
D. A stronger solvent than the stationary phase
A
A. More polar than the stationary phase
57
Q
- What is the primary means of solute separation
in HPLC using a C18 column?
A. Anion exchange
B. Size exclusion
C. Partitioning
D. Cation exchange
A
C. Partitioning
58
Q
- The most commonly used detector for clinical
gas–liquid chromatography (GLC) is based upon:
A. Ultraviolet light absorbance at 254 nm
B. Flame ionization
C. Refractive index
D. Thermal conductance
A
B. Flame ionization
59
Q
- What type of detector is used in high-performance
liquid chromatography with electrochemical
detection (HPLC–ECD)?
A. Calomel electrode
B. Conductivity electrode
C. Glassy carbon electrode
D. Polarographic electrode
A
C. Glassy carbon electrode
60
Q
- In gas chromatography, the elution order of
volatiles is usually based upon the:
A. Boiling point
B. Molecular size
C. Carbon content
D. Polarity
A
A. Boiling point
61
Q
- Select the chemical that is used in most HPLC
procedures to decrease solvent polarity.
A. Hexane
B. Nonane
C. Chloroform
D. Acetonitrile
A
D. Acetonitrile
62
Q
- In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), the distance
the solute migrates divided by the distance the
solvent migrates is the:
A. tR
B. Kd
C. Rf
D. pK
A
C. Rf
63
Q
- Which reagent is used in thin-layer
chromatography (TLC) to extract cocaine
metabolites from urine?
A. Acid and sodium chloride
B. Alkali and organic solvent
C. Chloroform and sodium acetate
D. Neutral solution of ethyl acetate
A
B. Alkali and organic solvent
64
Q
- What is the purpose of an internal standard in
HPLC and GC methods?
A. To compensate for variation in extraction and
injection
B. To correct for background absorbance
C. To compensate for changes in flow rate
D. To correct for coelution of solutes
A
A. To compensate for variation in extraction and
injection
65
Q
- What is the confirmatory method for measuring
drugs of abuse?
A. HPLC
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
(EMIT)
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy
(GC-MS)
D. TLC
A
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy
(GC-MS)
66
Q
- The fragments typically produced and analyzed in
methods employing mass spectroscopy are
typically:
A. Of low molecular size ranging from
10–100 daltons
B. Cations caused by electron loss or proton
attachment
C. Anions caused by bombarding the molecule
with an electron source
D. Neutral species formed after excited molecules
form a stable resonance structure
A
B. Cations caused by electron loss or proton
attachment
67
Q
- What component is used in a GC-MS but not used
in an LC-MS?
A. Electron source
B. Mass filter
C. Detector
D. Vacuum
A
A. Electron source
68
Q
- What process is most often used in LC-MS to
introduce the sample into the mass filter?
A. Electrospray ionization
B. Chemical ionization
C. Electron impact ionization
D. Fast atom bombardment
A
A. Electrospray ionization
69
Q
- In mass spectroscopy, the term base peak typically
refers to:
A. The peak with the lowest mass
B. The peak with the most abundance
C. A natural isotope of the molecular ion
D. The first peak to reach the mass detector
A
B. The peak with the most abundance
70
Q
- Which method is the most useful when screening
for errors of amino and organic acid metabolism?
A. Two-dimensional thin-layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Electrospray ionization tandem-mass
spectroscopy
D. Inductively charged coupled-mass spectroscopy
A
C. Electrospray ionization tandem-mass
spectroscopy
71
Q
- In tandem-mass spectroscopy, the first mass filter
performs the same function as:
A. The ion source
B. The chromatography column
C. Extraction
D. The vacuum system
A
B. The chromatography column
72
Q
- SITUATION: A GC-MS analysis using nitrogen as
the carrier gas shows an extensively noisy baseline.
A sample of the solvent used for the extraction
procedure, ethyl acetate, was injected and showed
the same noise. Results of an Autotune test
showed the appearance of a base peak at 16 with
two smaller peaks at 17 and 18. These results
indicate:
A. The solvent is contaminated
B. The carrier gas is contaminated
C. There is electrical noise in the detector
D. The ion source is dirty
A
B. The carrier gas is contaminated
73
Q
- Why is vacuum necessary in the mass filter of a
mass spectrometer?
A. Ionization does not occur at atmospheric
pressure
B. It prevents collision between fragments
C. It removes electrons from the ion source
D. It prevents contamination
A
B. It prevents collision between fragments
74
Q
- What method is used to introduce the sample into
a mass spectrometer for analysis of a trace element?
A. Electrospray ionization
B. Laser desorption
C. Inductively charged plasma (ICP) ionization
D. Direct injection
A
C. Inductively charged plasma (ICP) ionization
75
Q
- Which component is needed for a thermal cycler
to amplify DNA?
A. Programmable heating and cooling unit
B. Vacuum chamber with zero head space
C. Sealed airtight constant-temperature chamber
D. Temperature-controlled ionization chamber
A
A. Programmable heating and cooling unit
76
Q
- In real-time PCR, what value is needed in order to
determine the threshold?
A. Background signal
B. Melt temperature
C. Maximum fluorescence
D. Threshold cycle
A
A. Background signal
77
Q
- Given the following real-time PCR amplification
curve, what is the threshold cycle?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
A
C. 25
78
Q
- In addition to velocity, what variable is also
needed to calculate the relative centrifugal force
(g force) of a centrifuge?
A. Head radius
B. Angular velocity coefficient
C. Diameter of the centrifuge tube
D. Ambient temperature in degrees Centigrade
A
A. Head radius
79
Q
- Which of the following situations is likely to cause
an error when weighing with an electronic
analytical balance?
A. Failure to keep the knife edge clean
B. Failure to close the doors of the balance before
reading the weight
C. Oxidation on the surface of the substitution
weights
D. Using the balance without allowing it to warm
up for at least 10 minutes
A
B. Failure to close the doors of the balance before
reading the weight
80
Q
- When calibrating a semiautomatic pipet that has
a fixed delivery of 10.0 μL using a gravimetric
method, what should be the average weight of
deionized water transferred?
A. 10.0 μg
B. 100.0 μg
C. 1.0 mg
D. 10.0 mg
A
D. 10.0 mg
