Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th > Clinical Chemistry-Blood Gases, pH, and Electrolytes > Flashcards

Clinical Chemistry-Blood Gases, pH, and Electrolytes Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the
    Henderson–Hasselbalch equation as applied
    to blood pH?
    A. pH = 6.1 + log HCO3–/PCO2
    B. pH = 6.1 + log HCO3–/(0.03 × PCO2)
    C. pH = 6.1 + log dCO2/HCO3–
    D. pH = 6.1 + log (0.03 × PCO2)/HCO3–
A

B. pH = 6.1 + log HCO3–/(0.03 × PCO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the PO2 of calibration gas containing
    20.0% O2, when the barometric pressure is
    30 in.?
    A. 60 mm Hg
    B. 86 mm Hg
    C. 143 mm Hg
    D. 152 mm Hg
A

C. 143 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the blood pH when the partial pressure
    of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is 60 mm Hg and the
    bicarbonate concentration is 18 mmol/L?
    A. 6.89
    B. 7.00
    C. 7.10
    D. 7.30
A

C. 7.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following best represents the
    reference (normal) range for arterial pH?
    A. 7.35–7.45
    B. 7.42–7.52
    C. 7.38–7.68
    D. 6.85–7.56
A

A. 7.35–7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to
    dissolved carbon dioxide (HCO3
    –
    :dCO2) in
    arterial blood?
    A. 1:10
    B. 10:1
    C. 20:1
    D. 30:1
A

C. 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is the PCO2 if the dCO2 is 1.8 mmol/L?
    A. 24 mm Hg
    B. 35 mm Hg
    C. 60 mm Hg
    D. 72 mm Hg
A

C. 60 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. In the Henderson–Hasselbalch expression
    pH = 6.1 + log HCO3
    –
    /dCO2, the
    6.1 represents:
    A. The combined hydration and dissociation
    constants for CO2 in blood at 37°C
    B. The solubility constant for CO2 gas
    C. The dissociation constant of H2O
    D. The ionization constant of sodium bicarbonate
    (NaHCO3)
A

A. The combined hydration and dissociation
constants for CO2 in blood at 37°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following contributes the most to
    the serum total CO2?
    A. PCO2
    B. dCO2
    C. HCO3–
    D. Carbonium ion
A

C. HCO3–

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. In addition to sodium bicarbonate, what other
    substance contributes most to the amount of base
    in the blood?
    A. Hemoglobin concentration
    B. Dissolved O2 concentration
    C. Inorganic phosphorus
    D. Organic phosphate
A

A. Hemoglobin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following effects results from
    exposure of a normal arterial blood sample to
    room air?
    A. PO2 increased PCO2 decreased pH increased
    B. PO2 decreased PCO2 increased pH decreased
    C. PO2 increased PCO2 decreased pH decreased
    D. PO2 decreased PCO2 decreased pH decreased
A

A. PO2 increased PCO2 decreased pH increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following formulas for O2 content is
    correct?
    A. O2 content = %O2 saturation/100 × Hgb g/dL ×
    1.39 mL/g + (0.0031 × PO2)
    B. O2 content = PO2 × 0.0306 mmol/L/mm
    C. O2 content = O2 saturation × Hgb g/dL
    × 0.003 mL/g
    D. O2 content = O2 capacity × 0.003 mL/g
A

A. O2 content = %O2 saturation/100 × Hgb g/dL ×
1.39 mL/g + (0.0031 × PO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The normal difference between alveolar and
    arterial PO2 (PAO2–PaO2 difference) is:
    A. 3 mm Hg
    B. 10 mm Hg
    C. 40 mm Hg
    D. 50 mm Hg
A

B. 10 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. A decreased PAO2–PaO2 difference is found in:
    A. A/V (arteriovenous) shunting
    B. V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) inequality
    C. Ventilation defects
    D. All of these options
A

C. Ventilation defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The determination of the oxygen saturation of
    hemoglobin is best accomplished by:
    A. Polychromatic absorbance measurements of a
    whole-blood hemolysate
    B. Near infrared transcutaneous absorbance
    measurement
    C. Treatment of whole blood with alkaline
    dithionite prior to measuring absorbance
    D. Calculation using PO2 and total hemoglobin
    by direct spectrophotometry
A

A. Polychromatic absorbance measurements of a
whole-blood hemolysate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Correction of pH for a patient with a body
    temperature of 38°C would require:
    A. Subtraction of 0.015
    B. Subtraction of 0.01%
    C. Addition of 0.020
    D. Subtraction of 0.020
A

A. Subtraction of 0.015

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Select the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas
    studies.
    A. Sodium citrate 3.2%
    B. Lithium heparin 100 U/mL blood
    C. Sodium citrate 3.8%
    D. Ammonium oxalate 5.0%
A

B. Lithium heparin 100 U/mL blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is the maximum recommended storage time
    and temperature for an arterial blood gas sample
    drawn in a plastic syringe?
A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. A patient’s blood gas results are as follows:
    pH = 7.26
    dCO2 = 2.0 mmol/L
    HCO3– = 29 mmol/L

These results would be classified as:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

C. Respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. A patient’s blood gas results are:
    pH = 7.50
    PCO2 = 55 mm Hg
    HCO3– = 40 mmol/L

These results indicate:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis

A

B. Metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which set of results is consistent with
    uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?
    A. pH 7.70 HCO3 30 mmol/L PCO2 25 mm Hg
    B. pH 7.66 HCO3 22 mmol/L PCO2 20 mm Hg
    C. pH 7.46 HCO3 38 mmol/L PCO2 55 mm Hg
    D. pH 7.36 HCO3 22 mmol/L PCO2 38 mm Hg
A

B. pH 7.66 HCO3 22 mmol/L PCO2 20 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following will shift the O2 dissociation
    curve to the left?
    A. Anemia
    B. Hyperthermia
    C. Hypercapnia
    D. Alkalosis
A

D. Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. In which circumstance will the reporting of
    calculated oxygen saturation of hemoglobin
    based on PO2, PCO2, pH, temperature, and
    hemoglobin be in error?
    A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
    B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    C. Patient receiving oxygen therapy
    D. Assisted ventilation for respiratory failure
A

A. Carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which would be consistent with partially
    compensated respiratory acidosis?
    A. pH PCO2 Bicarbonate
    increased increased increased
    B. pH PCO2 Bicarbonate
    increased decreased decreased
    C. pH PCO2 Bicarbonate
    decreased decreased decreased
    D. pH PCO2 Bicarbonate
    decreased increased increased
A

D. pH PCO2 Bicarbonate
decreased increased increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which condition results in metabolic acidosis with
    severe hypokalemia and chronic alkaline urine?
    A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    B. Phenformin-induced acidosis
    C. Renal tubular acidosis
    D. Acidosis caused by starvation
A

C. Renal tubular acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible
    for metabolic acidosis?
    A. Bicarbonate deficiency
    B. Excessive retention of dissolved CO2
    C. Accumulation of volatile acids
    D. Hyperaldosteronism
A

A. Bicarbonate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders is associated
    with lactate acidosis?
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Renal tubular acidosis
    C. Hypoaldosteronism
    D. Alcoholism
A

D. Alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism
    of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
    A. Hyperventilation
    B. Release of epinephrine
    C. Aldosterone release
    D. Bicarbonate excretion
A

A. Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis.
    Which condition is associated with respiratory
    (rather than metabolic) alkalosis?
    A. Anxiety
    B. Hypovolemia
    C. Hyperaldosteronism
    D. Hypoparathyroidism
A

A. Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with both metabolic and respiratory alkalosis?
    A. Hyperchloremia
    B. Hypernatremia
    C. Hyperphosphatemia
    D. Hypokalemia
A

D. Hypokalemia

30
Q
  1. In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which of
    the following will be normal?
    A. Plasma bicarbonate
    B. PCO2
    C. p50
    D. Total CO2
A

B. PCO2

31
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is classified as
    normochloremic acidosis?
    A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    B. Chronic pulmonary obstruction
    C. Uremic acidosis
    D. Diarrhea
A

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis

32
Q
  1. Which PCO2 value would be seen in maximally
    compensated metabolic acidosis?
    A. 15 mm Hg
    B. 30 mm Hg
    C. 40 mm Hg
    D. 60 mm Hg
A

A. 15 mm Hg

33
Q
  1. A patient has the following arterial blood gas results:
    pH = 7.56
    PCO2 = 25 mm Hg
    PO2 = 100 mm Hg
    HCO3– = 22 mmol/L

These results are most likely the result of which
condition?
A. Improper specimen collection
B. Prolonged storage
C. Hyperventilation
D. Hypokalemia

A

C. Hyperventilation

34
Q
  1. Why are three levels used for quality control of
    pH and blood gases?
    A. Systematic errors can be detected earlier than
    with two controls
    B. Analytical accuracy needs to be greater than for
    other analytes
    C. High, normal, and low ranges must always be
    evaluated
    D. A different level is needed for pH, PCO2,
    and PO2
A

A. Systematic errors can be detected earlier than
with two controls

35
Q
  1. A single-point calibration is performed between
    each blood gas sample in order to:
    A. Correct the electrode slope
    B. Correct electrode and instrument drift
    C. Compensate for temperature variance
    D. Prevent contamination by the previous sample
A

B. Correct electrode and instrument drift

36
Q
  1. In which condition would hypochloremia be
    expected?
    A. Respiratory alkalosis
    B. Metabolic acidosis
    C. Metabolic alkalosis
    D. All of these options
A

C. Metabolic alkalosis

37
Q
  1. Given the following serum electrolyte data,
    determine the anion gap.
    Na = 132 mmol/L
    Cl = 90 mmol/L
    HCO3– = 22 mmol/L

A. 12 mmol/L
B. 20 mmol/L
C. 64 mmol/L
D. Cannot be determined from the information
provided

A

B. 20 mmol/L

38
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions will cause an
    increased anion gap?
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Hypoaldosteronism
    C. Hyperkalemia
    D. Renal failure
A

D. Renal failure

39
Q
  1. Alcoholism, liver failure, and hypoxia induce
    acidosis by causing:
    A. Depletion of cellular NAD+
    B. Increased excretion of bicarbonate
    C. Increased retention of PCO2
    D. Loss of carbonic anhydrase
A

A. Depletion of cellular NAD+

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism
    causing respiratory alkalosis?
    A. Hyperventilation
    B. Deficient alveolar diffusion
    C. Deficient pulmonary perfusion
    D. Parasympathetic inhibition
A

A. Hyperventilation

41
Q
  1. Which condition can result in acidosis?
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B. Vomiting
    C. Hyperaldosteronism
    D. Excessive O2 therapy
A

D. Excessive O2 therapy

42
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with an increase in ionized calcium (Cai) in the
    blood?
    A. Alkalosis
    B. Hypoparathyroidism
    C. Hyperalbuminemia
    D. Malignancy
A

D. Malignancy

43
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory results is
    consistent with primary hypoparathyroidism?
    A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus Pi
    B. Low calcium; low Pi
    C. High calcium; high Pi
    D. High calcium; low Pi
A

A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus Pi

44
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with hypophosphatemia?
    A. Rickets
    B. Multiple myeloma
    C. Renal failure
    D. Hypervitaminosis D
A

A. Rickets

45
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is consistently
    abnormal in osteoporosis?
    A. High urinary calcium
    B. High serum Pi
    C. Low serum calcium
    D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of
    type 1 collagen
A

D. High urine or serum N-telopeptide of
type 1 collagen

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a marker for bone
    formation?
    A. Osteocalcin
    B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
    C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
    D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide
    crosslinks (CTx and NTx)
A

A. Osteocalcin

47
Q
  1. What role do CTx and NTx play in the
    management of osteoporosis?
    A. Increased urinary excretion is diagnostic of early
    stage disease
    B. Increased levels indicate a low risk of developing
    osteoporosis
    C. Decreased urinary excretion indicates a positive
    response to treatment
    D. The rate of urinary excretion correlates with the
    stage of the disease
A

C. Decreased urinary excretion indicates a positive
response to treatment

48
Q
  1. What role does vitamin D measurement play in
    the management of osteoporosis?
    A. Vitamin D deficiency must be demonstrated to
    establish the diagnosis
    B. Vitamin D is consistently elevated in
    osteoporosis
    C. A normal vitamin D level rules out osteoporosis
    D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for
    developing osteoporosis
A

D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for
developing osteoporosis

49
Q
  1. Which statement best describes testing
    recommendations for vitamin D?
    A. Vitamin D testing should be reserved only for
    those persons who demonstrate hypercalcemia
    of an undetermined cause
    B. Vitamin D testing should be specific for the
    1,25(OH)D3 form
    C. Testing should be for total vitamin D when
    screening for deficiency
    D. Vitamin D testing should not be performed if
    the patient is receiving a vitamin D supplement
A

C. Testing should be for total vitamin D when
screening for deficiency

50
Q
  1. The serum level of which of the following
    laboratory tests is decreased in both VDDR
    and VDRR?
    A. Vitamin D
    B. Calcium
    C. Pi
    D. Parathyroid hormone
A

C. Pi

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most accurate
    measurement of Pi in serum?
    A. Rate of unreduced phosphomolybdate formation
    at 340 nm
    B. Measurement of phosphomolybdenum blue at
    680 nm
    C. Use of aminonaptholsulfonic acid to reduce
    phosphomolybdate
    D. Formation of a complex with malachite
    green dye
A

A. Rate of unreduced phosphomolybdate formation
at 340 nm

52
Q
  1. What is the percentage of serum calcium that is
    ionized (Cai)?
    A. 30%
    B. 45%
    C. 60%
    D. 80%
A

B. 45%

53
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions will cause
    erroneous Cai results? Assume that the samples
    are collected and stored anaerobically, kept at
    4°C until measurement, and stored for no
    longer than 1 hour.
    A. Slight hemolysis during venipuncture
    B. Assay of whole blood collected in sodium oxalate
    C. Analysis of serum in a barrier gel tube stored at
    4°C until the clot has formed
    D. Analysis of whole blood collected in sodium
    heparin, 20 U/mL (low-heparin tube
A

B. Assay of whole blood collected in sodium oxalate

54
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with a low serum magnesium?
    A. Addison’s disease
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Hyperparathyroidism
    D. Pancreatitis
A

D. Pancreatitis

55
Q
  1. When measuring calcium with the
    complexometric dye o-cresolphthalein
    complexone, magnesium is kept from
    interfering by:
    A. Using an alkaline pH
    B. Adding 8-hydroxyquinoline
    C. Measuring at 450 nm
    D. Complexing to EDTA
A

B. Adding 8-hydroxyquinoline

56
Q
  1. Which electrolyte measurement is least affected by
    hemolysis?
    A. Potassium
    B. Calcium
    C. Pi
    D. Magnesium
A

B. Calcium

57
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with hypokalemia?
    A. Addison’s disease
    B. Hemolytic anemia
    C. Digoxin intoxication
    D. Alkalosis
A

D. Alkalosis

58
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most likely
    to produce an elevated plasma potassium?
    A. Hypoparathyroidism
    B. Cushing’s syndrome
    C. Diarrhea
    D. Digitalis overdose
A

D. Digitalis overdose

59
Q
  1. Which of the following values is the threshold
    critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma
    potassium?
    A. 1.5 mmol/L
    B. 2.0 mmol/L
    C. 2.5 mmol/L
    D. 3.5 mmol/L
A

C. 2.5 mmol/L

60
Q
  1. Which electrolyte is least likely to be elevated in
    renal failure?
    A. Potassium
    B. Magnesium
    C. Inorganic phosphorus
    D. Sodium
A

D. Sodium

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism
    for vasopressin (ADH) release?
    A. Hypovolemia
    B. Hyperosmolar plasma
    C. Renin release
    D. Reduced renal blood flow
A

B. Hyperosmolar plasma

62
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with hypernatremia?
    A. Diabetes insipidus
    B. Hypoaldosteronism
    C. Burns
    D. Diarrhea
A

A. Diabetes insipidus

63
Q
  1. Which of the following values is the threshold
    critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma
    sodium?
    A. 150 mmol/L
    B. 160 mmol/L
    C. 170 mmol/L
    D. 180 mmol/L
A

B. 160 mmol/L

64
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with total body sodium excess?
    A. Renal failure
    B. Hyperthyroidism
    C. Hypoparathyroidism
    D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
A

A. Renal failure

65
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with hyponatremia?
    A. Diuretic therapy
    B. Cushing’s syndrome
    C. Diabetes insipidus
    D. Nephrotic syndrome
A

A. Diuretic therapy

66
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions involving
    electrolytes is described correctly?
    A. Pseudohyponatremia occurs only when
    undiluted samples are measured
    B. Potassium levels are slightly higher in
    heparinized plasma than in serum
    C. Hypoalbuminemia causes low total calcium but
    does not affect Cai
    D. Hypercalcemia may be induced by low serum
    magnesium
A

C. Hypoalbuminemia causes low total calcium but
does not affect Cai

67
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory results is
    usually associated with cystic fibrosis?
    A. Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L
    B. Elevated serum sodium and chloride
    C. Elevated fecal trypsin activity
    D. Low glucose
A

A. Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L

68
Q
  1. When performing a sweat chloride collection,
    which of the following steps will result in
    analytical error?
    A. Using unweighed gauze soaked in pilocarpine
    nitrate on the inner surface of the forearm to
    stimulate sweating
    B. Collecting more than 75 mg of sweat in
    30 minutes
    C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside
    of the arm exposed to air during collection
    D. Rinsing the collected sweat from the gauze pad
    using chloride titrating solution
A

C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside
of the arm exposed to air during collection

69
Q
  1. Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma
    osmolality?
    A. Sodium
    B. Chloride
    C. Bicarbonate
    D. Calcium
A

A. Sodium

70
Q
  1. Which formula is most accurate in predicting
    plasma osmolality?
    A. Na + 2(Cl) + BUN + glucose
    B. 2(Na) + 2(Cl) + glucose + urea
    C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)
    D. Na + Cl + K + HCO3
A

C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)

***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions