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***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th > Micro-Mycobacteria > Flashcards

Micro-Mycobacteria Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q
  1. The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria
    from a sputum sample is:
    A. First morning specimen
    B. 10-hour evening specimen
    C. 12-hour pooled specimen
    D. 24-hour pooled specimen
A

A. First morning specimen

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2
Q
  1. What concentration of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
    is used to prepare a working decontamination
    solution for the processing of not normally sterile
    specimens for mycobacteria?
    A. 1% NaOH
    B. 4% NaOH
    C. 8% NaOH
    D. 12% NaOH
A

B. 4% NaOH

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3
Q
  1. Which is the most appropriate nonselective
    medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a
    heavily contaminated specimen?
    A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
    B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
    C. Petragnani’s agar
    D. American Thoracic Society medium
A

C. Petragnani’s agar

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4
Q
  1. Mycobacteria stained by the Ziehl–Neelsen or
    Kinyoun methods with methylene blue
    counterstain are seen microscopically as:
    A. Bright red rods against a blue background
    B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
    C. Orange-red rods against a black background
    D. Bright blue rods against a pink background
A

A. Bright red rods against a blue background

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5
Q
  1. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from
    digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved,
    beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on
    Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored
    microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after
    14 days at 37°C. Niacin and nitrate reduction
    tests were positive. What is the most probable
    presumptive identification?
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
    C. Mycobacterium kansasii
    D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
A

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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6
Q
  1. Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in
    cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially in
    regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
    A. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
    B. Mycobacterium kansasii
    C. Mycobacterium marinum
    D. Mycobacterium bovis
A

D. Mycobacterium bovis

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms are used as
    controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
    A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium
    tuberculosis
    B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
    and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    C. Mycobacterium chelonei and Mycobacterium
    fortuitum
    D. Mycobacterium kansasii and Mycobacterium
    tuberculosis
A

A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium
tuberculosis

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp.
    produce(s) pigmented colonies in the dark (is a
    scotochromogen)?
    A. M. szulgai
    B. M. kansasii
    C. M. tuberculosis
    D. All of these options
A

A. M. szulgai

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9
Q
  1. All of the following mycobacteria are associated
    with skin infections except:
    A. Mycobacterium marinum
    B. Mycobacterium haemophilum
    C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
    D. Mycobacterium kansasii
A

D. Mycobacterium kansasii

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10
Q
  1. All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce
    the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin
    ribonucleotide except:
    A. M. kansasii
    B. M. tuberculosis
    C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    D. M. szulgai
A

B. M. tuberculosis

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11
Q
  1. The catalase test for mycobacteria differs from that
    used for other types of bacteria by using:
    A. 1% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80
    B. 3% H2O2 and phosphate buffer, pH 6.8
    C. 10% H2O2 and 0.85% saline
    D. 30% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80
A

D. 30% H2O2 and 10% Tween 80

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12
Q
  1. Growth inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic
    hydrazide (T2H) is used to differentiate
    M. tuberculosis from which other Mycobacterium
    specie?
    A. M. bovis
    B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    C. M. kansasii
    D. M. marinum
A

A. M. bovis

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best
    differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?
    A. M. fortuitum
    B. M. chelonae
    C. M. kansasii
    D. M. gordonae
A

C. M. kansasii

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14
Q
  1. Mycobacteria isolated from the hot water
    system of a hospital grew at 42°C. Colonies on
    Löwenstein–Jensen medium were not pigmented
    after exposure to light and were negative for niacin
    accumulation and nitrate reduction. The most
    likely identification is:
    A. Mycobacterium xenopi
    B. Mycobacterium marinum
    C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
    D. Mycobacterium haemophilum
A

A. Mycobacterium xenopi

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15
Q
  1. A Mycobacterium species recovered from a patient
    with AIDS gave the following results:
    Niacin = Neg
    T2H = +
    Tween 80 hydrolysis = Neg Nitrate reduction = Neg
    Heat-stable catalase (68°C) = ±
    Nonphotochromogen
    What is the most likely identification?
    A. M. gordonae
    B. M. bovis
    C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    D. M. kansasii
A

C. M. avium–intracellulare complex

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16
Q
  1. The urease test is needed to differentiate
    Mycobacterium scrofulaceum from which
    of the following mycobacteria?
    A. M. gordonae
    B. M. kansasii
    C. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    D. M. bovis
A

A. M. gordonae

17
Q
  1. A laboratory provides the following services for
    identification of mycobacteria:
    Acid-fast staining of clinical specimens
    Inoculation of cultures
    Shipment of positive cultures to a reference
    laboratory for identification
    According to the American Thoracic Society’s
    definition for levels of service this laboratory is:
    A. Level I
    B. Level II
    C. Level III
    D. Level IV
A

A. Level I

18
Q
  1. According to the College of American Pathologists
    (CAP) guidelines, which services for mycobacteria
    would be performed by a Level II laboratory?
    A. No procedures performed
    B. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a
    reference laboratory
    C. Isolation and identification of Mycobacterium
    tuberculosis; preliminary identification of other
    species
    D. Definitive identification of all mycobacteria
A

B. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a
reference laboratory

19
Q
  1. Culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of
    a tropical fish store grew on Löwenstein–Jensen
    agar slants at 30°C in 10 days but did not grow on
    the same media at 37°C in 20 days. Given the
    following results, what is the most likely
    identification?
    Photochromogen = +
    Niacin = Neg
    Urease = +
    Heat-stable catalase (68°C) = Neg
    Nitrate reduction = Neg Tween 80 hydrolysis = +
    A. Mycobacterium marinum
    B. Mycobacterium kansasii
    C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
    D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

A. Mycobacterium marinum

20
Q
  1. Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium specie is
    isolated most often from clinical specimens and is
    called the “tapwater bacillus”?
    A. M. kansasii
    B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
    C. M. leprae
    D. M. gordonae
A

D. M. gordonae

21
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs are first-line
    antibiotics used to treat classic tuberculosis for
    which susceptibility testing is performed by the
    disk diffusion method on Middlebrook 7H10 or
    7H11 agar plates?
    A. Ampicillin, penicillin, streptomycin, and
    carbenicillin
    B. Ampicillin, penicillin, and methicillin
    C. Vancomycin, methicillin, and carbenicillin
    D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH), rifampin,
    ethambutol, and pyrazinamide
A

D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH), rifampin,
ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

22
Q
  1. How long should Mycobacterium
    tuberculosis–positive cultures be kept by the
    laboratory after identification and antibiotic
    susceptibility testing have been performed?
    A. 1–2 months
    B. 2–4 months
    C. 5–6 months
    D. 6–12 months
A

D. 6–12 months

23
Q
  1. According to the reporting standards of the
    American Thoracic Society, one or more acid-fast
    bacilli (AFB) per oil immersion field (1,000×) are
    reported as:
    A. Numerous or 3+
    B. Few or 2+
    C. Rare or 1+
    D. Indeterminate; a new specimen should be
    requested
A

A. Numerous or 3+

24
Q
  1. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would
    be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
    A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex
    B. M. ulcerans
    C. M. marinum
    D. M. avium–intracellulare complex
A

A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex

25
Q
  1. Rapid methods for identifying classic infection
    with M. tuberculosis include:
    A. Gas–liquid chromatography
    B. Nucleic acid probes
    C. Acid-fast smears
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

26
Q
  1. Individuals showing a positive purified protein
    derivative (PPD) skin test for M. tuberculosis are
    usually:
    A. Infective
    B. Symptomatic of pulmonary disease
    C. Latently infected
    D. Falsely positive
A

C. Latently infected

27
Q
  1. Which of the following Mycobacterium species is
    diagnosed by means other than culture?
    A. M. leprae
    B. M. bovis
    C. M. canetti
    D. M. avium
A

A. M. leprae

28
Q
  1. Which M. avium complex (MAC) organism is the
    most frequently isolated mycobacterium from
    AIDS patients?
    A. M. avium
    B. M. intracellulare
    C. M. scrofulaceum
    D. M. bovis
A

A. M. avium

29
Q
  1. Which mycobacterium of the M. tuberculosis
    complex fails to grow in culture and has a
    characteristic “croissant-like” morphology in
    stained smears?
    A. M. africanum
    B. M. microti
    C. M. bovis
    D. M. leprae
A

B. M. microti

30
Q
  1. Which two mycobacteria commonly isolated from
    subcutaneous skin have an optimal growth
    temperature of 30°C?
    A. M. haemophilum and M. ulcerans
    B. M. kansasii and M. xenopi
    C. M. gordonae and M. avium
    D. M. simiae and M. avium
A

A. M. haemophilum and M. ulcerans

31
Q
  1. Which mycobacterium is associated with Crohn’s
    disease?
    A. M. marinum
    B. M. paratuberculosis
    C. M. avium
    D. M. gordonae
A

B. M. paratuberculosis

32
Q
  1. Which temperature range is ideal for the recovery
    of M. marinum?
    A. 24°C–26°C
    B. 30°C–32°C
    C. 42°C–44°C
    D. 44°C–48°C
A

B. 30°C–32°C

***Medical Lab science review- Robert Harr 4th (63 decks)

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