Micro-Aerobic Gram-Positive Rods, Spirochetes, Mycoplasmas and Ureaplasmas, and Chlamydia Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Large gram-positive spore-forming rods growing
    on blood agar as large, raised, β-hemolytic colonies
    that spread and appear as frosted green-gray glass
    are most likely:
    A. Pseudomonas spp.
    B. Bacillus spp.
    C. Corynebacterium spp.
    D. Listeria spp.
A

B. Bacillus spp.

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2
Q
  1. Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be
    differentiated by which tests?
    A. Motility and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
    B. Oxidase and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate
    C. Lecithinase and glucose
    D. Lecithinase and catalase
A

A. Motility and β-hemolysis on a blood agar plate

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3
Q
  1. Which is the specimen of choice for proof of food
    poisoning by Bacillus cereus?
    A. Sputum
    B. Blood
    C. Stool
    D. Food
A

D. Food

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4
Q
  1. A suspected Bacillus anthracis culture obtained
    from a wound specimen produced colonies that
    had many outgrowths (Medusa-head appearance),
    but were not β-hemolytic on sheep blood agar.
    Which test should be performed next?
    A. Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test
    B. Lecithinase test
    C. Glucose test
    D. Motility test
A

A. Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following tests should be performed
    for initial differentiation of Listeria monocytogenes
    from group B streptococci?
    A. Gram stain, motility at room temperature,
    catalase
    B. Gram stain, CAMP test, H2S/TSI
    C. Oxidase, CAMP test, glucose
    D. Oxidase, bacitracin
A

A. Gram stain, motility at room temperature,
catalase

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6
Q
  1. Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat
    packer produced short gram-positive bacilli on a
    blood agar plate with no hemolysis. Given the
    following test results at 48 hours, what is the most
    likely identification?
    Catalase = Neg
    H2S/TSI = +
    Motility (wet prep) = Neg
    Motility (media) = Neg (bottle-brush growth in stab
    culture)
    A. Bacillus cereus
    B. Listeria monocytogenes
    C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
    D. Bacillus subtilis
A

C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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7
Q
  1. A non–spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod
    forming palisades and chains was recovered from a
    vaginal culture and grew well on tomato juice agar.
    The most likely identification is:
    A. Lactobacillus spp.
    B. Bacillus spp.
    C. Neisseria spp.
    D. Streptococcus spp.
A

A. Lactobacillus spp.

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8
Q
  1. A Corynebacterium species recovered from a throat
    culture is considered a pathogen when it produces:
    A. A pseudomembrane of the oropharynx
    B. An exotoxin
    C. Gray-black colonies with a brown halo on
    Tinsdale’s agar
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

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9
Q
  1. A presumptive diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginalis
    can be made using which of the following
    findings?
    A. Oxidase and catalase tests
    B. Pleomorphic bacilli heavily colonized on vaginal
    epithelium
    C. Hippurate hydrolysis test
    D. All of these options
A

D. All of these options

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10
Q
  1. A gram-positive branching filamentous organism
    recovered from a sputum specimen was found to
    be positive with a modified acid-fast stain method.
    What is the most likely presumptive identification?
    A. Bacillus spp.
    B. Nocardia spp.
    C. Corynebacterium spp.
    D. Listeria spp
A

B. Nocardia spp.

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11
Q
  1. Routine laboratory testing for Treponema
    pallidum involves:
    A. Culturing
    B. Serological analysis
    C. Acid-fast staining
    D. Gram staining
A

B. Serological analysis

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12
Q
  1. Spirochetes often detected in the hematology
    laboratory, even before the physician suspects the
    infection, are:
    A. Borrelia spp.
    B. Treponema spp.
    C. Campylobacter spp.
    D. Leptospira spp.
A

A. Borrelia spp.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms is the cause of
    Lyme disease?
    A. Treponema pallidum
    B. Neisseria meningitidis
    C. Babesia microti
    D. Borrelia burgdorferi
A

D. Borrelia burgdorferi

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14
Q
  1. The diagnostic method most commonly used for
    the identification of Lyme disease is:
    A. Serology
    B. Culture
    C. Gram stain
    D. Acid-fast stain
A

A. Serology

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15
Q
  1. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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16
Q
  1. Which organism typically produces “fried-egg”
    colonies on agar within 1–5 days of culture from a
    genital specimen?
    A. Mycoplasma hominis
    B. Borrelia burgdorferi
    C. Leptospira interrogans
    D. Treponema pallidum
A

A. Mycoplasma hominis

17
Q
  1. The manganous chloride–urea test is used for the
    identification of which organism?
    A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
    C. Bacillus cereus
    D. Borrelia burgdorfer
A

B. Ureaplasma urealyticum

18
Q
  1. A gram-positive (gram-variable), beaded organism
    with delicate branching was recovered from the
    sputum of a 20-year-old patient with leukemia.
    The specimen produced orange, glabrous, waxy
    colonies on Middlebrook’s agar that showed
    partial acid-fast staining with the modified
    Kinyoun stain. What is the most likely
    identification?
    A. Rhodococcus spp.
    B. Actinomadura spp.
    C. Streptomyces spp.
    D. Nocardia spp.
A

D. Nocardia spp.

19
Q
  1. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab
    stained with Loeffler methylene blue stain showed
    various letter shapes and deep blue, metachromatic
    granules. The most likely identification is:
    A. Corynebacterium spp.
    B. Nocardia spp.
    C. Listeria spp.
    D. Gardnerella spp.
A

A. Corynebacterium spp.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best, rapid,
    noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella
    vaginalis is suspected in a patient with vaginosis?
    A. 10% KOH test
    B. 3% H2O2 test
    C. 30% H2O2 test
    D. All of these options
A

A. 10% KOH test

21
Q
  1. Which is the test of choice for the confirmation of
    Chlamydia trachomatis infection in urine?
    A. Enzyme immunoassay antigen testing
    B. PCR molecular testing
    C. Culture using McCoy and Hela cells
    D. Microimmunofluorescence (MIF) test
A

B. PCR molecular testing

22
Q
  1. Which test is the most reliable for the detection of
    Mycoplasma pneumonia in serum and for the
    confirmation of diagnosis?
    A. EIA testing and direct antigen testing
    B. Cold agglutinin testing using Group O RBCs
    C. Culture on SP4 glucose broth with arginine
    D. Complement fixation
A

A. EIA testing and direct antigen testing

23
Q
  1. Identify the following bacterium and specimen
    pairing that is mismatched (specimen not
    appropriate for isolation).
    A. Chlamydia (Chlamydophila) psittaci: fecal swab
    B. Chlamydia trachomatis: first voided urine
    C. Chlamydia trachomatis: endocervical swab
    D. Chlamydia pneumonia: throat swab or sputum
A

A. Chlamydia (Chlamydophila) psittaci: fecal swab

24
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms are transmitted
    to animals and humans after a tick bite?
    A. Leptospira.
    B. Chlamydia and Mycoplasma spp.
    C. Neisseria sicca
    D. Ehrlichia and Anaplasma spp.
A

D. Ehrlichia and Anaplasma spp.

25
Q
  1. Following a hike in the woods, a young male
    noted a tick on his ankle. He removed the tick,
    but 2 weeks later noticed a circular, bull’s eye rash
    at the site of the bite. Which specimen(s) should
    be obtained to establish a diagnosis of Lyme
    borreliosis?
    A. Lymph node biopsy, skin scraping
    B. Blood, CSF, and skin biopsy
    C. Hair, fingernails
    D. Saliva, sputum
A

B. Blood, CSF, and skin biopsy