Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > METABOLIC PROFILE DRUGS - Immunotropic & Antiallergic Agents > Flashcards

METABOLIC PROFILE DRUGS - Immunotropic & Antiallergic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

True or False. Immune system is the integrated body system of organs, tissues, cells, and cell products that differentiates self from nonself and neutralizes potentially pathogenic organisms or substances.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False. Antigen is any of various substances, including toxins, bacteria, and the cells of transplanted organs, that when introduced into the body stimulate the production of antibodies. It is also called an allergen or immunogen.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False. Antibody is a protein substance produced in the blood or tissues in response to a specific antigen, such as a bacterium or a toxin that destroys or weakens bacteria and neutralizes organic poisons, thus forming the basis of immunity.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Innate immunity refers to

A

Antigen-nonspecific defense mechanisms that a host uses immediately or within several hours after exposure to an antigen. This is the immunity one is born with and is the initial response by the body to eliminate microbes and prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adaptive (acquired) immunity refers to

A

Antigen-specific defense mechanisms that take several days to become protective and are designed to react with and remove a specific antigen. This is the immunity one develops throughout life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Allergic reaction is

A

A local or generalized reaction of an organism to internal or external contact with a specific allergen to which the organism has been previously sensitized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immediate allergy reaction (type I allergic reaction) is

A

An allergic or immune response that begins within a period lasting from a few minutes to about an hour after exposure to an antigen to which the individual has been sensitized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Delayed allergy reaction (type IV allergic reaction) is

A

An allergic reaction that becomes apparent only hours after contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Immunodeficiency

A

A disorder or deficiency of the normal immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, sometimes fatal allergic reaction characterized by a sharp drop in blood pressure, urticaria, and breathing difficulties that is caused by exposure to a foreign substance, such as a drug or bee venom, after preliminary or sensitizing exposure.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

H1 histamine receptor subtype is distributed in

A

Smooth muscle, endothelium and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

H2 histamine receptor subtype is distributed in

A

Gastric mucosa, cardiac muscle, mast cells and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most tissue histamine is sequestered and bound in

A
  • Granules in mast cells or basophils
  • Cell bodies of histaminergic neurons
  • Enterochromaffin-like cell of the fondus of the stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for sedative effects

A
  • Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Dimedrol, Clistin
  • Ethylenediamines; i.e. Suprastine
  • Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the best antiemetic action?

A

Ethanolamines (aminoalkyl ethers); i.e. Doxylamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These categories of histamine H1 antagonists are noted for the anticholinergic effect

A
  • Alkylamines (propylamines); i.e. Brompheniramine
  • Ethylenediamines; i.e. Suprastine
  • Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor-blocking effect?

A

Phenothiazines; i.e. Diprazine, Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the highest local anesthetic effect?

A

Phenothiazines; i.e. Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is recognized for as second-generation antihistamines?

A

Piperidines; i.e. Loratadine, Fexofenadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

These histamine H1 antagonists are recognized for as second-generation antihistamines

A
  • Astemizole
  • Loratadine (Claritin)
  • Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the serotonin-blocking effect?

A

Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which histamine H1 antagonists is a long-acting (up to 24-48 h) antihistamine drug?

A

Diazoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for the ulcerogenic effect?

A

Diazoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Indication for administration of histamine H1 antagonists is

A
  • Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
  • Motion sickness and vestibular disturbances
  • Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (“morning sickness”)
25
Q

Indications for administration of histamine H1 antagonists are

A
  • Prevention or treatment of the symptoms of allergic reactions (rhinitis, urticaria)
  • Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (“morning sickness”)
  • Treatment of sleep disorders
26
Q

Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is

27
Q

True or False. For those first-generation histamine H1 antagonists that cause significant sedation, addition of other drugs that cause central nervous system depression produces additive effects and is contraindicated while driving or operating machinery.

28
Q

True or False. Immunosuppressive drug is any of a variety of substances used to prevent production of antibodies, protein produced by the immune system in response to the presence in the body of antigens: foreign proteins or polysaccharides such as bacteria, bacterial toxins, viruses, or other cells or proteins.

29
Q

Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is caused by

A

Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B cells) and inhibiting function of tissue macrophages and
other antigen-presenting cells

30
Q

Antiallergic effect of glucocorticoids is caused by

A
  • Suppression of leukocyte migration and stabilizing lysosomal membranes
  • Reverse the capillary permeability associated with histamine release
  • Suppression of the immune response by inhibiting antibody synthesis
31
Q

The Immunosuppressive agent is

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Cyclosporine
  • Tacrolimus (FK 506)
32
Q

Class of cyclosporine A is

A

Immunosuppressive agents

33
Q

Mechanism of action of cyclosporine A is

A

Inhibits calcineurin

34
Q

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

A
  • Tremor
  • GI disturbance
  • Hepatotoxicity
35
Q

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

36
Q

Side effect of cyclosporine A is

A

GI disturbance

37
Q

Indication of cyclosporine A is

A

Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

38
Q

Half-life of cyclosporine A is

39
Q

Class of I.V. IgG preparation is

A

Immunoglobulins

40
Q

Mechanism of action of I.V. IgG preparation is

A

Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies

41
Q

Half-life of I.V. IgG preparation is:

42
Q

Indication for I.V. IgG preparation administration is

A

Prophylaxis of certain infections

43
Q

Cytotoxic agents are

A
  • Azathioprine
  • Leflunomide
  • Cyclophosphamide
44
Q

Class of sirolimus (rapamycin) is

A

Immunosuppressive agents

45
Q

Mechanism of action of sirolimus (rapamycin) is

A

Inhibits calcineurin

46
Q

Monoclonal antibodies is

A
  • Trastuzumab
  • Rituximab
  • OKT-3
47
Q

Class of OKT-3 is

A

Monoclonal antibodies

48
Q

Half-life of OKT-3 is

A

18-24 hours

49
Q

The indication for interferon gamma administration is

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

50
Q

The side effect of interferon gamma is

51
Q

Half-life of interferon gamma is

A

25-35 minutes

52
Q

Half-life of interferon alpha is

A

4-16 hours

53
Q

The indication for interferon alpha administration is

A
  • Hepatitis C virus infection
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Condyloma acuminatum
54
Q

Class of tacrolimus (FK-506) is

A

Immunosuppressive agents

55
Q

Mechanism of action of tacrolimus (FK-506) is

A

Inhibits calcineurin

56
Q

Immunomodulating agent is

A

Levamisole

57
Q

Immunomodulating agents are

A

Tacrolimus (FK-506)

58
Q

Mechanism of action of levamisole is

A

Increase the number of T-cells

Pharmacology (41 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions