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STEP 1 > Guranteed you need to know > Flashcards

Guranteed you need to know Flashcards

1
Q

List 10 HY
XLR diseases
YOU HAVE TO KNOW THIS

A

Glucose-6-phosphate DHase (G6PD) deficiency
Hemophilia A and B
Menkes disease
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID, IL receptor γ-chain deficiency)
Duchenne (and Becker) Muscular Dystrophy
Lesch-Nyhan
Red-green color blindness
Ornithine transcarbomylase (OTC)
Fabry disease
Hunter disease

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2
Q

List 3

XLD disease

A

Fragile X
Hypophosphatemic (vitamin-D resistant) rickets
Alport disease
Rett

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3
Q

Common side-effects of ACE-inhibitors include ________ , ________ , and cough.

______ is a rare, but life-threatening, side-effect.

A

decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
hyperkalemia
Angioedema

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4
Q

Uncal herniation often compresses the ipsilateral ____ resulting in _______

A 
oculomotor nerve (CN III)
CN III palsy with a fixed dilated pupil
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5
Q

Berry aneurysms are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. _______- also predispose certain individuals to SAH.

A

Arteriovenous malformations

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6
Q

Communicating hydrocephalus is a common complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage that presents with deteriorating mental status. It typically results from

A

blood-induced impairment of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the arachnoid granulations.

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7
Q

Contralateral or ipsilateral hemiparesis

and

contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing may also occur in

A

uncal herniation

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8
Q

Turner syndrome chromosome count

A

45XO

female

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9
Q

How to treat Pneumocystis Jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX

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10
Q

TMP and SMX MOA

A

TMP:
Dihydrofolate Reductase inhibitor stops synthesis of Folate (THF)/ DNA/ RNA/ Protein

SMX:
Dihydropteroate Synthase Inhibitor stops synthesis of Folate (DHP)/ DNA/ RNA/ Protein
(Bacteriocidal when used with TMP)

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11
Q

How to treat Toxoplasmosis Gondii

A

TMP-SMX

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12
Q

When to treat
Pneumocystis Jirovecii
Toxoplasmosis Gondii
M. Avium

A

Pneumocystis Jirovecii <200 CD4
Toxoplasmosis Gondii <100 CD4
M. Avium <50 CD4

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13
Q

How to treat M. Avium

A

Azithromycin

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14
Q

Azithromycin MOA

A

Macrolide
inhibits PROTEIN synthesis by blocking

TRANSLOCATION (macroSLIDEs)

via binding to the 23s rRNA of 50s rRNA

(bacteriostatic)

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15
Q

Which substrate is utilized in each blotting procedure

Southern:
Northern:
Western:

A

SNoW DRoP

Southern blots utilize DNA
Northern blots utilize RNA
Western blots utilize Protein.

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16
Q

HBsAg means

A

Acute Hep B infection

if present for more than 6mo = Chronic

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17
Q

HBeAg means

A

Increased Viral Replication
Infective
Acute Infection

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18
Q

Anti- HBc - IgM means

A

Window phase

1st sign of acute infection

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19
Q

Anti- HBs means

A

Cleared infection or Vaccination

Long term immunity

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20
Q

Anti- HBe means

A

Cleared infection
Decreased Viral Replication
Decreased Infectivity

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21
Q

Anti HBc IgG means

A

Acute/ Chronic infection

NOT in vaccination

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22
Q

List the 6 types of DNA Viruses

A

Enveloped: HBV, Herpes, Pox

Non-Enveloped: HPV, Polyoma (JC/BK), Adenovirus

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23
Q

List 7 NEGATIVE sense RNA (single strand)

A 
Bunya (hanta)
Arena (Lassa)
Delta (HepD)
Paramyxo (Measles, Mumps, RSV, Parainfluenza) 
Rhabdo (Rabies)
Ortho (Influenza)
Filo (Ebola, Mayburg)
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24
Q

List 7 POSITIVE sense RNA (single strand)

A 
Calici (Noro)
HepE
Flavi (HepC, WNV, Yellow, Dengue)
Picorna (Polio, Entero, Rhino, HepA) 
Retro (HIV)
Toga (Rubella)
Corona (SARS)
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25
Q

_____, is a double-stranded, +sense, naked RNA virus.

It is a vaccine-preventable disease characterized by profuse, WATERY diarrhea in children.

A

Rotavirus (Reovirus)

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26
Q

List 4 types of Viruses that can establish LATENT infections

A

HHV (HSV, CMV, EBV, HHV6/7, VZV)
Polyomavirus (JC & BK)
HPV
HIV

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27
Q

EBV establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

B cells

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28
Q

HSV and VZV establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

Sensory Neurons

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29
Q

CMV, HHV6/7 establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

Myeloid cells

RBC, Platelets, Granulocytes, Monocytes/MQs, Dendritic cells

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30
Q

HIV establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

CD4 T cells
or
MQs (especially in the brain and late infection)

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31
Q

HPV establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelial cells of cervix

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32
Q

BK virus establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

Renal Tubular Epithelial cells

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33
Q

JC virus establishes latent infection in which cell type?

A

Neuroglial cells

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34
Q

HBV is an encapsulated virus with a partially ___ genome.

It binds to and enters hepatocytes using a host cell _____ and then sheds its coat in the host cytoplasm.

A

double-stranded DNA

bile salt transporter

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35
Q

In HBV
HOST cell machinery, yields a _____ template.

it is converted by VIRAL REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE into the partially double-stranded DNA genome for budding viral particles

A

+ sense single-stranded mRNA

(serves as a pre-genome

and

is translated by HOST ribosomes into the proteins for future progeny)

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36
Q

Ehler Danlos has a Mutation in

A

Collagen Type 5

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37
Q

Osteogenesis IMperfecta has a Mutation in

A

Collagen Type 1

IM perfecta #1

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38
Q

Bleeding gums and Petechiae/Ecchymoses =

A

Scurvy

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39
Q

Broken Bones
Blue Sclera
Bad Teeth

A

Osteogenesis IMperfecta

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40
Q

Recurrent Sino-pulmonary infections
Ataxia
Talengiectasia

A

Hereditary Ataxia Talengiectasia

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41
Q

Light Skin/Eyes Albinism
Pyogenic (PUS forming) Infections
Neuro dysfunction
Microtubules bad

A

Chediak Higashi Syndrome

Shitty Highway

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42
Q

HYPOcalcemia
Weird Face
Heart Defects

A

DiGeorge

Thymic Aplasia

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43
Q

Diarrhea
Candidiasis
Recurrent infections

A

SCID

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44
Q

Recurrent Neisseria (meningitis) infections

A

Terminal Complement (C6-C9) deficiency

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45
Q

ECZEMA
Recurrent Infections
Easy Bleeding

A

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

46
Q

CD40L deficiency/absence

or

Dysfunctional CD40-CD40L interaction

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

47
Q

≥180/120 mmHg

A

Hypertensive Crisis

48
Q

List 3 Adverse effects of ACE-I

A

Angioedema (face)
Cough
HyperKalemia

49
Q

List 2 Adverse effects of CCB (-dipines)

A

Edema (peripheral)

Lightheadedness

50
Q

List 3 Adverse effects of Beta Blockers

A

Sexual Dysfunction
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm (AVOID IN ASTHMA)

51
Q

List 5 Adverse effects of Thiazides (Metolazone, Hydrochlorothiazide, Chlorothalidone)

A

Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Hyperuricemia (gout)
Hyperglucosemia/Hypercholesterolemia

52
Q

Aspirin MOA

A

IRREVERSIBLE

COX-1 and COX-2

53
Q

Probe used in Western Blots

A

Antibody

54
Q

Probe used in Southern or Northern Blots

A 
SINGLE Stranded
DNA
or
RNA
hybridization probe
55
Q

Probe used in Southwestern Blot

what does it detect

A

detects DNA binding protein (like a TF, Histones, Nucleases)

DOUBLE Stranded DNA probe

56
Q

List the Metabolic effects of GLUCAGON

on Liver, Fat, and Heart

A

Liver:
Increases GLYCOGENOLYSIS, Gluconeogenesis
Decreases Lipogenesis, GLYCOLYSIS

Fat:
Increases Lipolysis

Heart:
Increases HR and contractility (High doses)
*useful to treat Beta Blocker OD

57
Q

List 7 metabolic effects of Insulin

A

Increases:
Glucose uptake (Glut-4 in skeletal, fat and liver)
Glycogen synthesis
Protein synthesis

Decreases:
Glycogenolysis
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Glucagon secretion (alpha cells)
58
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST-1)

MOA

A

TSST-1 binds to TCR and MHC II → release of
TNF-α
IL-1
IL-2

59
Q 
Enterotoxin B (heat stable)
MOA
A

Forms pores in enterocyte membranes →
leakage of Na+ and water into the intestinal lumen

(important mechanism of staphylococcal food poisoning)

60
Q

a protease that is highly specific to DESMOSOME proteins of the stratum granulosum → epidermolysis in SSSS

A

Exfoliative toxin

61
Q

Staph A: Protein A binds to

A

the Fc region of IgG

62
Q

MRSA MOA

A

Modified penicillin-binding protein (PBP)

63
Q

Found on the cell surface of Staph. A

Promote colonization and persistence in host tissues

A

Capsular polysaccharides

64
Q

List 10 diseases caused by Staph A

A 
Cellulitis
Impetigo
Abscess (furuncles)
Acute bacterial endocarditis!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Pneumonia (classically after influenza virus infection)
Septic arthritis
Osteomyelitis
TSS
SSSS (Scalded Skin)
Food poisoning (within 6 hours)
65
Q

Treat MRSA with:

A

vancomycin OR linezolid

66
Q

Urease producer
Adherent biofilm production on prosthetics and IV catheters

Treat with:

A

S. Epidermidis

Like Staph A. use Oxacillin OR Clindamycin

67
Q

2 S. Pneumo Virulence factors

A

Capsular polysaccharides

IgA1 protease

68
Q

5 infections caused by S. Pneumo

A

Meningitis
Otitis Media
Pneumonia (rusty spit)/Pharyngitis
Sinusitis

69
Q

A bacterial enzyme that cleaves mucosal IgA and allows organisms to adhere to and colonize mucous membranes. Produced by (3)

A

IgA protease

Streptococcus P.
Haemophilus I.
Neisseria species

70
Q

How to treat S. Penumo

A

Penicillin (or Azithromycin if allergic)

Ceftriaxone

71
Q

CHAIN like formation

Virulence Factors:
Dextran (facilitates binding to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves)
Biofilm formation (dental plaque)

A

S. Viridans

Biofilm by S. mutans and S. mitis

72
Q

can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

S. sanguinis

Enterococcus faecium and E. faecalis

73
Q

Facultative anaerobe
Bacitracin-sensitive
Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) positive

A

GA strep

Pyogenes

74
Q

degrades cell membranes, mainly of RBC →

beta-hemolysis

A

Streptolysin O: GAS

75
Q

A protein produced by group A streptococci. It catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which is responsible for clot breakdown.

Can be used as a thrombolytic in patients with acute coronary syndrome, pulmonary embolism, or ischemic stroke.

A

Streptokinase

76
Q

Produced by group A streptococci prevents opsonization by C3b

A

M protein (virulence factor)

77
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

can be caused by

A

Strep Pyogenes (GAS)

C. Perfringes (Gas gangrene)

Streptococcus anginosus

78
Q

Patients present with fever, pharyngitis, flushed cheeks with perioral pallor, a white-coated or strawberry-red tongue, as well as an erythematous, sandpaper-like rash.

A

Scarlet fever

Group A streptococci: Pyogenes

79
Q

A complication of untreated or subclinical infection with group A streptococcus (GAS), particularly tonsillopharyngitis.

Causes nonspecific symptoms (fever, malaise, and fatigue)
pancarditis,
migratory polyarthritis,
skin findings (subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum rash)
Sydenham chorea

A

Rheumatic Fever

Can cause Mitral valve regurgitation and later Stenosis

80
Q

GAS Pharyngitis or Impetigo can cause

A

PSGN (2 weeks later)

81
Q

CAMP factor : enlarges the hemolysis area in a culture formed by S. aureus

A

Group B Strep

Agalactiae

82
Q

Hippurate positive
Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) negative
Bacitracin-resistant

A

Group B Strep

Agalactiae

83
Q

Group B Strep (Agalactiae)

can cause what 3 illnesses in neonates

A

Neonatal meningitis
pneumonia
Neonatal sepsis

84
Q

Growth in bile, not 6.5% NaCl

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus

85
Q

causes:
Bacteremia
Endocarditis
Colorectal carcinoma

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus (Bovis)

86
Q 
Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) positive
Growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl
A

Enterococcus

E. faecium and E. faecalis

87
Q

May be triggered by GI/GU procedures

Can Cause:
UTI
Cholecystitis
Subacute endocarditis

A

Enterococcus

E. faecium and E. faecalis

88
Q

How to treat Enterococcus
and
VRE

A

Ampicillin
Vancomycin (patients with penicillin allergy)

VRE: linezolid OR daptomycin

89
Q

Hemolysis “double zone” in blood agar

A

C. Perfringes

90
Q

The toxin undergoes retrograde axonal transport back to the CNS, binds inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Tetanustoxin

91
Q

Listeria in pregnancy is transmitted

A

Transplancental or during birth

92
Q

Neisser stain: detection of characteristic metachromatic granules (red and blue)

A

Corynebacteria Diptheriae

93
Q

Black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar

Löffler medium: metachromatic granules

A

Corynebacteria Diptheriae

94
Q

transmitted via respiratory droplets. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and development of a grayish-white pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall.

A

Diptheria

Treat with: erythromycin OR Penicillin G
Diphtheria antitoxin can be added as well

95
Q

A bacterial AB toxin (with edema factor as the active component) produced by Bacillus anthracis that mimics adenylate cyclase, increasing production of cAMP. Thought to be responsible for the edematous borders of black eschars that form in patients with cutaneous anthrax.

A

Edema Toxin

similar toxin in Pertussis

96
Q

A component of the anthrax toxin that disrupts cell signaling pathways (mitogen-activated protein kinase pathway), which results in cellular death.

A

Lethal Factor

97
Q

exotoxin

Consists of lethal factor, edema factor, and a protective antigen that facilitates entry into host cells.

A

Anthrax Toxin

98
Q

How to treat Anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin (OR penicillin G)
PLUS
Clindamycin (OR linezolid)

*PLUS meropenem (if meningitis is present)

99
Q

The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain, released by almost half of brain synapses.

A

Glutamate

100
Q

Thayer-Martin agar

Maltose and glucose fermenter

A

N. Meningititis

N. Gonorrhea is a NON maltose fermenter

101
Q

Bacterial Septicemia characterized by disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands with resulting acute adrenal insufficiency.

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

(N. meningititis)

*give Certriaxone

102
Q

A syndrome characterized by inflammation of the liver capsule that occurs in women as a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease. Clinical features include fever, nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant pain, and/or pleuritic chest pain.

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

N. Gonorrhea

103
Q

STD that most commonly manifests as an infection of the genitourinary tract
urethritis
cervicitis
pelvic inflammatory disease
epididymitis (penile discharge, but aseptic UA)

A

Gonorrhea

Treat with
ceftriaxone PLUS azithromycin

OR doxycycline

104
Q

List 5 illnesses that can be caused by Gonorrhea

A 
Gonorrhea
Septic arthritis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Neonatal conjunctivitis
105
Q

Sinusitis
Otitis media
Bronchitis
Bronchopneumonia in COPD

can be caused by

A

Moraxella

aspiration pneumonia

106
Q

Satellitism in culture: S. aureus produces factor V via hemolysis →

A

H. influenzae can grow in the hemolytic zone

107
Q

Hemophilic bacteria: isolation on chocolate agar

A

H. influenzae

H. Ducreyi

108
Q 
Mucosal infection
Otitis media
Conjunctivitis
Epiglottitis
Sinusitis
Pneumonia (CAP)
Invasive infections: meningitis
A

H. influenzae

109
Q

An AB exotoxin that inhibits host phagocytic activity.

The toxin increases adenylate cyclase activity by inactivating the Gi subunit.

A

Pertussis Toxin

110
Q

lactose fermenters
pink colonies on MacConkey agar
green colonies with a metallic sheen on eosin-methylene blue agar
Produce beta-galactosidase
Resistance against bile salts → proliferates in GI tract

A

E. Coli

except for EHEC, which does not ferment sorbitol

111
Q

found in the outer cell membrane of several gram-negative bacteria. Consists of O antigen, a core polysaccharide, and lipid A. Released by living bacteria through membrane blebbing and upon bacterial cell death, inducing host release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α, which cause fever and hypotension leading to septic shock. Can also trigger the coagulation cascade, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A

LPS endotoxin

E.Coli

112
Q

Bipolar staining (“closed safety pin” appearance)

A

Y. Pestis

Pasturella

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