Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 Steps (Questions) to determining what the Inheritance pattern is?

A
  1. Mitochondrial, If Yes. (If no, move on)
    • Does a sick mom have all sick kids: Yes
    • Does a sick dad have no sick kids: Yes
  2. Does the sick kid(s) have a sick parent?
    • If yes → Dominant
    • If no → Recessive
  3. If Yes to Q2
    • has dad given it to sons? If yes, Autosomal
    • has dad given it to only daughters? if yes, XLD
  4. If No to Q2
    • Are mostly males affected? If yes, XLR
    • Are both genders affected? if yes, autosomal
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2
Q

How to go about determining is someone is a carrier?

A

The less you know about an individual the more possibilities there are to divide from (ie 4)

The more you know the less possibilities there are to divide from (ie 1-3)

Example: How likely is an unaffected person with an affected sibling, likely to be a carrier for a autosomal recessive?

Based on Punnet Square

AA 25%

Aa 50 % (Carrier)

aa 25% (affected)

BUT we know this person is unaffected so we can elimnate the aa 25% box

so we are left with

AA 1/3 = 33%

Aa 2/3 = 67% (Brother has 67% chance of being carrier)

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3
Q

How to calculate recurrence risk knowing gender in an XLR disease?

A

From a basic punnet square of XX/XY we know

50% XX

50% XY

If previous soon is affected then we know forsure mom is the carrier since dad can’t give the son an X

Thus X0X/ XY results in

25% X0Y 25% XY

25% X0X 25% XX

But we know baby is female so we can eliminate XY & X0Y possibilities

leaving 50% → X0X genotype probability

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4
Q

People are sick with same disease, but some are more/less sick than others

Phenotype varies among individuals with same genotype/disease

A

Variable Expression

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5
Q

Some people have the mutation but show NO signs of sickness, while some do

A

Incomplete penetrance

Will affect recurrence risk (Phenotypic risk = probability of genotype * probability of penetrance)

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6
Q

People are sick with similar/same disease but have completely different mutated genes/chromosomes

A

Locus Heterogenicity

ex: Albinism

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7
Q

Relative amount of normal vs. mutated mitochondria inherited from mother

A

Heteroplasmy

*Type of Variable Expression

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8
Q

missense vs. nonsense mutation in the same gene, but demonstrating different severity

A

Allelic heterogenicity

*Type of Variable expression

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9
Q

Certain genes are only active if they are transmitted from the appropriate parent.

  • During gametogenesis, methylation (inactivation) of specific genes occurs in sperm and in eggs.
  • Women imprint (inactivate) the _____ gene.
  • Men provide a copy of the imprinted gene unless it was deleted during gametogenesis (_______ phase of meiosis)
  • Men imprint (inactivate) the _____ gene.
A

Prader-Willi

prophase I of meiosis

Angelman

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10
Q

Rare condition where both chromosomes carrying a certain gene are given by only one parent.

Can be another cause of prader-willi/angelman

A

Uniparental disomy

*random event = reccurence risk almost 0

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11
Q

Sperm or egg undergo

nondisjunction during development

(incorrect separation of chromosomes during meiosis)

List 5 examples

A

aneuploidy

Turner Syndrome – 45, XO

Down Syndrome – 47, Trisomy 21

Edwards Syndrome – 47, Trisomy 18

Patau Syndrome – 47, Trisomy 13

Kleinfelter Syndrome – 47, XXY

( i KEPTD the chromosome)

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12
Q

what 2 forms of euploidy are not viable (compatible with life)

A

Triploid – 3 copies of each, 69 total – non-viable

Tetraploid – 4 copies of each (92 total) – non-viable

(too many sperm fertilized one egg)

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13
Q

Non- Disjunction during Meiosis 1 occurs when ______ were supposed to separate during metaphase 1.

Non-Disjunction during Meiosis 2 occurs when _______ were supposed to separate during metaphase 2.

Where is non-disjunction most likely to occur?

A

Homologs

Sister chromatids

most likely to occur in Meiosis 1

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14
Q

Structural Abnormalities in chromosomes like non-disjunction or translocations best visualized via

A

Karyotyping

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15
Q

Structural Abnormalities like Deletions best visualized via

A

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

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16
Q

During ______ of spermatogenesis and oogenesis, homologous chromosomes “trade” DNA → genetic diversity of offspring.

A

prophase I

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17
Q

Unbalanced trading of genes in meiosis 1 (prophase 1)

(during homologous recombination)

causes:

A

chromosomal deletions

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18
Q

list 4 examples of Interstitial (middle) deletions

and

1 example of Terminal deletions

*bonus if you can also recall the chromosome:)

A

Interstitial (middle) deletions:

Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes (Chromosome 15q)

DiGeorge syndrome (Chromosome 22q)

Wilms tumor (Chromosome 11p)

Williams syndrome (Chromosome 7q)

(Why Wait, Please Delete)

Terminal deletions:

Cri-du-chat syndrome (Chromosome 5p)

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19
Q

Most common Congenital metal retardation

A

Down’s

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20
Q

List (6-ish) associated illnesses for DOWN syndrome

(Trust me this comes up in ALL practice exams)

A

ASD/VSD

Alzehimers

AML/ALL

Hirschsprung

Duodenal Atresia (vomit + double bubble)

Heart Defects (endocardial cusion and AV canal)

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21
Q

High hCG

High Inhibin A

Low alpha-feto protein

Nucal Transluscency

A

Down Syndrome Trisonomy 21

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22
Q

mental retardation

rocker-bottom feet

small jaw (micrognathia)

low-set ears

clenched hands with overlapping fingers

prominent occiput

congenital heart disease (VSD)

A

Edwards

Trisonomy 18

non-disjunction

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23
Q

Mental Retardation

microphthalmia (small eyes)

microcephaly

cleft lip/palate

holoprosencephaly

polydactyly

VSD

cystic kidneys

A

Patau

Non-Disjunction Trisonomy 13

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24
Q

microcephaly

moderate to severe mental retardation

epicanthal folds

VSD

high pitched cry

A

Cri-Du Chat

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25
Q

what anomaly causes cri-du-chat

A

microdeletion of short arm of chromosome 5

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26
Q

mental retardation

hypercalcemia

↑ sensitivity to Vitamin D
musical talent

supravalvular aortic stenosis

well-developed verbal skills

extreme friendliness with strangers

A

Williams

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27
Q

what cause Williams

A

microdeletion of long arm of chromosome 7

APT7B gene region lost includes elastin gene

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28
Q

abnormal embryological development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch and Defective neural crest migration to these pouches caused by

A

microdeletion at chromosome 22q11

  • Catch 22 disease
  • DiGeroge
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29
Q

Dysmorphic facial features include orbital hypertelorism (widely spaced eyes), short palpebral fissures and short philtrum, cleft palate, and bifid uvula.

A

DiGeorge

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30
Q

Conotruncal cardiac defects (Tof etc.)

Thymic hypoplasia/aplasia (T-cell deficiency)

Craniofacial deformities (cleft palate)

Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism

A

DI George

(Palate, Face, Heart problems)

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31
Q

CATCH-22 disease

refers to DiGeorge whats it stand for

A

cleft palate

abnormal facies

T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia)

cardiac abnormalities

hypocalcemia (parathyroid aplasia= tetany)

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32
Q

Huntington’s can present with a grimace or other involuntary facial movements. How does Anticipation occur?

A

During spermatogenesis, CAG repeats in the abnormal HTT gene (chromosome 4p) can rapidly increase

Hunter’s think ANTICIPATION always. ALWAYS

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33
Q

Two allele loci are said to be in ____ when a pair of alleles are inherited together in the same gamete (haplotype) more often or less often than would be expected given random pairing.

A

linkage disequilibrium

This most often occurs when the genes are in close physical proximity on the same chromosome.

aka Observe Frequencey >> Expected frequency

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34
Q

3 causes of Down

A

Non-disjunction

Robertsonian Translocation

Mosaicism

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35
Q

Duschenne Muscular Dystrophy is caused by frameshift mutations (most common) or ____ mutations in the dystrophin gene that lead to the formation of a truncated, defective protein.

A

nonsense

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36
Q

Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame of the genetic code, resulting in the formation of nonfunctional proteins.

How is the Gel Electrophoresis affected

A

If it causes the gene to be shorter than the band will move further down the gel

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37
Q

Inheritance:

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

Rett syndrome

Huntington’s

Hemophilia

Galactosemia

A

mitochondrial inheritance disorder

XLD

AD

XLR

AR

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38
Q

A Child has a trisomy and is showing three bands on the Gel.

When did Non-disjunction occur

A

Meiosis I (3 bands)

Meiosis II (2 bands)

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39
Q

presents with myopathy (muscle weakness, myalgia), lactic acidosis due to impaired aerobic glycolysis, and nervous system dysfunction (neuropathy, seizures). Muscle biopsy classically shows ragged red fibers.

Inheritance Pattern

A

Mitochondrial Myopathy

Mitochondrial inheritance (all kids of affected mother have it)

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40
Q

Achondroplasia is an ____ disorder that results in a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene.

A

autosomal dominant (AD)

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41
Q

Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disease.

Offspring of carrier parents have a ___ chance of being affected and a ___ chance of being heterozygous carriers, resulting in a ___chance of inheriting at least one mutant allele.

A

25%

50%

75%

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42
Q

____ describes instances where multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single genetic mutation.

A

Pleiotropy

Ex) PKU

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43
Q

_____ refers to the differences in severity of autosomal dominant disorders.

A

Variable expressivity

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44
Q

some cells may have completely healthy mitochondria, while other cells contain mitochondria affected by genetic mutation

A

heteroplasmy

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45
Q

In siblings:

__ chance of inheriting all the same HLA genes (identical HLA match).

__ chance of inheriting half of the same HLA genes (haploidentical HLA match)

__ chance of inheriting none of the same HLA genes (HLA mismatch).

A

1/4

1/2

1/4

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46
Q

tuberous sclerosis and neurofibromatosis exhibit

A

Variable Expressivity

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47
Q

BRCA1 mutation is inherited in an _____pattern and exhibits a phenotypically variable presentation. This is called _______.

A

autosomal dominant

incomplete penetrance

(mutation does not always cause cancer)

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48
Q

_____ occurs when more than one set of genetic information is found within the gamete cells. A pedigree is shown.

A

Germline mosaicism

Ex: OI

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49
Q

The guanine-to-cytosine bond is stronger than the adenine-to-thymine bond because guanine and cytosine form

A

three hydrogen bonds,

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50
Q

3 Ps” Pituitary, Parathyroid, and Pancreas

A

Men 1

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51
Q

MEN syndromes follow an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. MEN-2A and MEN-2B are both linked to distinct mutations in the

A

ret proto-oncogene.

52
Q

Like MEN-2A, MEN-2B is also characterized by pheochromocytoma and medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. But unlike MEN2A, MEN2B is also associated with

A

marfanoid habitus

ganglioneuromas (GI/mouth)

53
Q

Mutations in ___have been associated with papillary carcinoma of the thyroid. This is the most common thyroid malignancy, and it has been associated with a remote history of radiation exposure

A

BRAF

54
Q

The _____ mutation is associated with follicular thyroid carcinoma

A

RAS oncogene

55
Q

caused by a genetic defect in the NADPH oxidase enzyme, resulting in impaired phagocytosis. These patients are especially susceptible to infections with catalase-positive bacteria and fungal organisms such as Aspergillus, Nocardia, Serratia, and Staphylococcus aureus, among others.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

56
Q

CGD is inherited in an ____ manner.

A

X-linked recessive

(X-linked skewed in girls)

57
Q

Infant with a flank mass

A

Wilm’s Tumor (WT1) Kindey

or

Neuroblastoma (n-myc) Adrenal Gland

58
Q

Presents with no symptoms or fever and weight loss in advanced disease.

Can also present with abdominal or back pain, constipation, opsoclonus myoclonus syndrome, or unexplained secretory diarrhea due to paraneoplastic production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

A

Neuroblastoma

59
Q

Colon cancer is associated with 4 mutations.

A

KRAS, RAF, p53, and APC

60
Q

Chromosome count for

Turner Syndrome

Kleinfelter Syndrome

A

Turner Syndrome – 45, XO

Kleinfelter Syndrome – 47, XXY

61
Q

Down Syndrome – 47, Trisomy __

Edwards Syndrome – 47, Trisomy __

Patau Syndrome – 47, Trisomy __

A

21

18

13

62
Q

one gene causes multiple pheontypic effects (a lot of things wrong with someone)

A

Pleiotropy

Ex: PKU

63
Q

Increased severity or earlier onset of disease in next generation

A

Anticipation

ex: Huntington

64
Q

Mutation in tumor suppressor gene must occur in both copies of the allele to cause cancer unlike mutations in oncogene allele where one bad copy is enough to cause cancer.

A

Loss of Heterozygosity

Ex: Retinoblastoma, Lynch syndrome, Li-Fraumeni

65
Q

Heterodisomy indicates meiosis __ error

Isodisomy indicates meiosis __ error

A

I (hetero)

II (Iso/homo)

66
Q

Prader willi occurs when ____ gene is deleted/mutated

A

Paternal

67
Q

Seizures

Ataxia

Intellectually disabled

Laughter (randomly)

A

Angelmann

68
Q

Hyperphagic

Fat (obsese)

Retarded

Micropenis (hypogonadism)

Hypotonia

A

Prader Willi

69
Q

Myopathy

Lactic Acidosis

CNS disease (stroke-like episodes)

failed oxidative phosphorylation

Ragged Red Muscle fibers

A

Mitochondrial Myopathy

(MELAS syndrome)

70
Q

Cell death in optic Nerve neurons

Subacute bilateral vision loss in teens/ young adult

Males (90%)

mitochondrial inheritance

A

Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy

71
Q

Autosomal Dominant Diseases

(14)

A

Achondriplasia

PKD

FAP

Familial Hypercholesteremia

Hemorrhagic Telengiectasia (Osler-Weber)

Huntington

Marfan

NF 1/2

MEN 1/2

VHL

Tuberous Sclerosis

Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy

Li-Fraumeni

Hereditary Spherocytosis

72
Q

Autosomal Recessive Diseases

(11)

A

Albinism

Glycogen Storage Diseases

AR-PKD

CF

Freidrich Ataxia

Hemochromatosis

Kartagener

PKU

Sickle Cell Anemia (Thalassemias)

Sphingolipidoses (Not Fabry)

Wilson’s

73
Q

CFTR gene on Chromosome

A

7

74
Q

CFTR encodes an ATP gated _______:

What does it do?

A

Chloride channel that secretes Cl- into the lung and GI lumens

but reabsorbs Cl in the sweat glands

75
Q

Where is the Misfolded protein product of CFTR retained in the cell?

What happens as a result to Cl- and Na+?

A

RER

↑ Cl- in the cell

↑ Na+ reabsorption

Water follow Na+ into the cell instead of staying in the lumen mucus causing thick secretions.

76
Q

In CF ↑ Na+ reabsoption causes a more ____ transepithelial potential difference

A

Negative

77
Q

Reticular nodular pattern on CXR

Opacification of Sinuses

Steatorrhea

in a caucasion child

A

CF

78
Q

List some complications of CF

(around 10)

A

Recurrent Pulm Infections (ABPA, Pseudomonas)

Chronic Bronchitis/ Bronchiectasis/ COPD

Pancreatic Insufficiency/ Steatorrhea/ Malabsorption

Fat Vitamin (ADEK) deficiency

Biliary Cirrhosis

Liver Cirrhosis

Infertility (no Vas Deference, but OK spermatogenesis)

Ammenorhea (low fertility)

Nasal Polyps

Clubbing nails

79
Q

What drug slows CF disease progression

A

Ibuprofen

80
Q

Used for Phenylalanine deletion in CF patients:

  1. Corrects misfolded protein and improves translocation to cell surface
  2. Opens Cl- channels for improved Cl transport
A
  1. Lumacaftor
  2. Ivacaftor
81
Q

XLR disorders

(10)

A

Orinthine Transcarbamylase Deficiency

Fabry

Wiskott Aldrich

Ocular Albinism

G6PD deficiency

Hunter Syndrome

Burton agammaglobinemia

Hemophilia A/B

Lesch-Nyan

Duchenne/Becker

82
Q

Fragile X Syndrome is inherited in what fashion

A

XLD

83
Q

Caused by De-novo sporadic mutation mostly in girls

A

Rett Syndrome

84
Q

List the 4 Tri-Nucleotide Repeat diseases

*Bonus if you can remember the repeat sequence

A

Huntington (CAG)

Myotonic Dystrophy (CTG)

Fragile X (CGG)

Freidrich Ataxia (GAA)

Try Hunting My Fragile Freedom

85
Q

Loss of motor/ verbal/ cognitive skills

Ataxia

Seizures

Growth failure

Hand Wringing

Girl

A

Rett syndrome

86
Q

Most common inherited cause of intellectual disability

A

Fragile X

*Down’s is the most common genetic cause

87
Q

Fragile X FMR1 gene is ____ thus it has ↓ expression

A

Hypermethylation

88
Q

Long Face

Large Jaw

Mitral Valve Prolapse

Large Testes

Hypermobile Joints

Big Everted Ears

Autistic/ Mentally Retarded

A

Fragile X Syndrome

89
Q

FXS Trinucleotide expansion occurs during

A

oogenesis

90
Q

Most common cause of death in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is

A

Cardiomyopathy

91
Q

Helps anchor muscle fibers in skeletal and cardiac muscle

A

Dystrophin

92
Q

↑ CK

↑ Aldolase

+/- Myonecrosis

Calf Pseudohypertrophy

Use Upper Extremities to stand (Gower’s)

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

(FRAME SHIFT deletion)

93
Q

Non-frameshift deletion of dystrophin gene causes truncated protein

A

Becker’s

(onset in teen years)

94
Q

Cataracts (eye problems)

Early Balding

Testicular atrophy

muscle wasting

arrythmias

A

Myotonic Distrophy

95
Q

Abnormal expression of myotin protein kinase causing myotonia ( difficulty releasing hand from grip)

causes muscle wasting

and arrythmias

A

Myotonic Dystrophy

(CTG of DMPK gene)

Cataracts, Toupee balding, Gonadal atrophy

96
Q

Robertsonian Translocation:

Long arms of 2 ___ chromosomes fuse at the centromere and the 2 short arms are lost.

Down Syndrome from fusion of Chromosomes: __ & __

A

acrocentric

14 & 21

*receiving 14 & 21 short arm fusion = death in utereo

97
Q

Low hCG

Low/– Inhibin

Low alpha-feto protein

A

Trisonomy 18 Edwards

98
Q

Men 2A disorders

A

Parathyroids

Pheochromocytoma

Medullary Thyroid Cancer

99
Q

Men 2B disorders

A

Gliomas

Pheochromocytoma

Medullary Thyroid Cancer

100
Q

Disorders by Chromosome

3

5

7

9

13

17

22

A

3: VHL, RCC

5: FAP, Cri-du-Chat

7: William’s, CF

9: Friedrich Ataxia, Tuberous Sclerosis

13: Wilson’s , Patau, Retinoblastoma, BRCA2

17: NF1, BRCA1, TP53

22: NF2, DiGeorge

101
Q

myoclonic seizures and myopathy associated with exercise. Skeletal muscle biopsy shows irregularly shaped muscle fibers (ragged red fibers)

Inheritance pattern

A

Myoclonic epilepsy

Mitochondrial Inheritance

102
Q

XLD diseases (2)

A

FXS

Rett

103
Q

The TATA and CAAT boxes are ___ in eukaryotic cells and are located approximately 25 and 75 bases upstream from the transcription start site, respectively.

A

promoters of transcription

104
Q

The Kozak consensus sequence plays a major role in initiation of the eukaryotic ___ process.

A

translation

105
Q

Both the ___ box and the ___ box promote initiation of transcription by acting as binding sites for general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II.

A

CAAT

TATA

106
Q

Genomic ____ is caused by DNA methylation, an epigenetic process in which genes can be silenced by attaching methyl groups to cytosine residues in the DNA molecule.

A

imprinting

107
Q

The ___ is added as a post-transcriptional modification downstream of the consensus sequence (AAUAAA) located near the 3’ end of the mRNA molecule. It protects mRNA from degradation within the cytoplasm after it exits the nucleus.

A

poly-A tail

108
Q

Telomeres are located at the ends of chromosomes and contain TTAGGG repeats, which are added by the enzyme

A

telomerase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase).

109
Q

Short non-coding RNA sequences (eg, microRNA and small interfering RNA) induce posttranscriptional gene ___ by base-pairing with complementary sequences within target mRNA molecules.

A

silencing

110
Q

___ factors recognize stop codons (eg, UAA, UAG, and UGA) and terminate protein synthesis. They facilitate release of the polypeptide chain from the ribosome and dissolution of the ribosome-mRNA complex.

A

Releasing

111
Q

Splicing is a post-transcriptional modification in which introns are removed from pre-mRNA via

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs).

112
Q

__ factors facilitate tRNA binding and the translocation steps of protein synthesis.

A

Elongation

113
Q

tRNA has a ___ sequence at its 3’-end that is used as a recognition sequence by proteins. The 3’ terminal hydroxyl group of the A codon serves as the amino acid binding site.

A

CCA

114
Q

The T loop contains the TΨC sequence that is necessary for binding of tRNA to ____. The TΨC sequence refers to the presence of ribothymidine, pseudouridine, and cytidine residues.

A

ribosomes

115
Q

Some of the Genetic Code’s degeneracy is explained by the wobble hypothesis, which states that the first 2 nucleotide positions on the mRNA codon require traditional (Watson-Crick) base pairing, whereas the third “wobble” nucleotide position may undergo ____ base pairing.

A

less stringent (nontraditional)

116
Q

All ribosomal RNA except 5S rRNA is transcribed in the

A

nucleolus

117
Q

The nucleolus is the site of ribosomal subunit maturation and assembly. ____ enzyme functions exclusively within the nucleolus

A

RNA polymerase I

118
Q

Enhancers and ____ may be located upstream, downstream, or within a transcribed gene; these gene sequences function to increase and decrease the rate of transcription, respectively.

A

silencers

119
Q

Promoter sequences directly bind general ____ factors and RNA polymerase II upstream from the gene locus, which is necessary for the initiation of transcription

A

transcription

120
Q

In contrast to promoters, ____ sequences bind activator proteins that facilitate bending of DNA. DNA bending allows activator proteins to interact with general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II at the promoter, increasing the rate of transcription

A

enhancer

121
Q

The D loop contains numerous dihydrouridine residues, which are modified bases often present in tRNA. The D loop (along with the acceptor stem and anticodon loop) facilitates correct tRNA recognition by the proper _____

A

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

122
Q

Cytoplasmic ___ play an important role in mRNA translation regulation and mRNA degradation.

A

P bodies

123
Q

Splicing is performed by spliceosomes, which remove introns containing GU at the 5’ splice site and AG at the 3’ splice site. Splice site mutations may result in inappropriate removal of exons and retention of introns, leading to the formation of ____ proteins.

A

dysfunctional

124
Q

Homeobox genes encode DNA-binding transcription factors that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the ____ axis.

A

cranio-caudal

*Sonic Headgehog = Elongation (Proximal to Distal axis)

125
Q

Translation of the mRNA template proceeds in the __ direction.

A

5’ to 3’

126
Q

during translation tRNA anticodons will be oriented in the opposite ___ direction.

A

3’ to 5’

127
Q

Stop codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA) halt protein synthesis by binding a ___ factor; they do not add amino acids to the polypeptide chain.

A

release