Bones and joints Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do newborns have more than 206 bones?

A

some of the bones are yet to fuse together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which have more bones: hand and wrist or foot and ankle?

A

Hand and wrist (27) have more bones than the foot and ankle (26)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 types of skeleton?

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the axial skeleton made up of?

A

cranium, vertebrae, ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Function of the axial skeleton?

A

allows the attachment of limbs and protects the CNS and thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Function of articular cartilage

A

lines ends of bones in joints to prevent friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Function of costal cartilage

A

connects ribs to sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the shaft of a long bone known as?

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the ends of a long bone known as?

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

compact/cortical and cancellous/trabecular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which direction are the fibres orientated in cancellous/trabecular bone?

A

fibres are orientated in the direction of stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are growth plates known as?

A

epiphyseal plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are epiphyseal plates located?

A

metaphysis (region between the epiphysis and diaphysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do epiphyseal plates close over?

A

at end of puberty / late teens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What could be mistaken as a fracture in radiographs of long bones?

A

epiphyseal plates that are not sealed in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 types of joints?

A

synovial joints, fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why type of joint allows extensive movement?

A

synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Components of synovial joints

A

articular (hyaline) cartilage, marginal (fibro) cartilage, synovial fluid in joint capsule, ligaments, tendons, muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Function of ligaments

A

passive stabilisers that connect bone-to-bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Function of tendons

A

active stabilisers that provide musculo tendinous support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name of the outer layer of bone

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 components that make up the articular capsule in synovial joints?

A

outer layer made of a fibrous capsule while inner layer made of synovial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the name of the cavity within the articular capsule?

A

joint/synovial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the joint/synovial cavity contain?

A

few ml of synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2 types of fibrous joints

A

sutures of the skull and syndesmoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are fibrous joints held together by?

A

dense connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the areas of a newborn’s cranium where the sutures are not sealed completely?

A

anterior and posterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

9-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

1-2 months (or already closed at birth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a syndesmosis?

A

a fibrous joint between 2 parallel bones linked by ligaments and a strong membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Features of syndesmosis

A

there is a greater distance between articular surfaces and more dense connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Example of syndesmosis

A

distal tibia and fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints?

A

synchondroses (primary cartilaginous joint) and symphysis (secondary cartilaginous joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is synchondroses?

A

A type of cartilaginous joint where bones are connected by hyaline cartilage. They are immovable (synarthrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are immovable joints called?

A

synarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Examples of synchondroses

A

joining of ilium, pubis and ischium, the epiphyseal plate (temporary synchondroses). first sternocostal joint (permanent synchondroses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is symphysis?

A

a secondary cartilaginous joint where the bone ends are covered in hyaline cartilage and there is a fibrocartilage disk in between.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Examples of symphysis

A

intervertebral disks, pelvis, sternum, ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the two parts that make up the cranium (skull)?

A

Neurocranium and viscerocranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does the neurocranium cover?

A

brain and meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 parts that make up the neurocranium

A

calvaria (roof) and cranial base (floor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many bones make up the neurocranium?

A

8 bones - frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, occipital, parietal (2), temporal (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the viscerocranium form?

A

facial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many bones make up the viscerocranium?

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Term used to describe bones with air inside

A

pneumatised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which bones of the cranium are pneumatised?

A

frontal, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which bones have are pneumatised in the form of paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary bones (not temporal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are the temporal bones pneumatised?

A

by mastoid air cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the weakest part of the skull?

A

pterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why is the pterion the weakest point of the skull?

A

it is where the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones all meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why can trauma at the pterion be dangerous?

A

can lead to the rupture of the middle meningeal artery (and vein) which can cause an extra-dural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a potential route for infections from the skin to get deeper from the parietal bone?

A

parietal foramen - lets in small blood vessels from superficial to deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What disease can result if infections enter via the parietal foramen?

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?

A

33 - 7C, 12T, 5L, 5S, 4C

56
Q

How many vertebrae in the cervical region?

57
Q

How many vertebrae in the thoracic region?

A

12 (T1-T12) - for each of the 12 ribs

58
Q

How many vertebrae in the lumbar region?

59
Q

How many vertebrae in the sacrum?

A

5 fused vertebrae

60
Q

How many vertebrae in the coccyx?

A

4 fused vertebrae

61
Q

Features of a typical vertebra

A

vertebral body and a vertebral arch which together form a vertebral foramen

62
Q

Features of a typical vertebral arch

A

spinous process centred posteriorly, transverse processes extending laterally, pedicles connecting the vertebral body to the transverse processes, lamina connecting transverse and spinous processes, and superior and inferior articular processes between the lamina and pedicle.

63
Q

What is the spinal cord enclosed by?

A

vertebral canal - formed by the all vertebral foramens lined up

64
Q

Which aspect of the vertebral arch articulates with ribs in thoracic vertebrae?

A

transverse processes

65
Q

At which vertebra does the first rib extend from?

66
Q

Which 2 vertebrae do not have the typical structure?

A

C1 (atlas) and C2 (axis)

67
Q

What features are unique about C1/atlas?

A

has no body, the transverse processes have a transverse foramen

68
Q

Function of the transverse foramen

A

location where the vertebral artery passes through, ensuring it is well protected

69
Q

Function of vertebral artery

A

provides 20% of the brain’s blood supply

70
Q

What is unique about the structure of C2/axis?

A

Has a much more prominent body with an extension called the dens

71
Q

How does the structure of C1 and C2 allow for the movement of the head?

A

the body/dens of C2 passes upwards through C1 which allows rotational movement

72
Q

What is the superior limit of the thorax?

A

T1 and attachment of first rib to manubrium of sternum

73
Q

What is the inferior limit of the thorax?

74
Q

Clinical relevance of the Jugular notch

A

feeling for trachea, deviations that could indicate pathology in lungs (e.g. collapse, fluid)

75
Q

What is the pectoral girdle?

A

the bones that connect the arms (appendicular skeleton) to the axial skeleton

76
Q

Which bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

clavicle and scapula

77
Q

Where is the sternal angle?

A

Where the second rib joins the sternum, between the manubrium and the body of the sternum

78
Q

How can the sternal angle be used clinically?

A

to count ribs inferiorly and laterally for chest drain insertion (for patients with pneumothorax or effusion)

79
Q

Name of the joint between the costal cartilage and rib

A

costochondral joint

80
Q

Which ribs are true ribs?

81
Q

Why are ribs 1-7 regarded as true ribs?

A

their costal cartilage links directly with sternum

82
Q

Which ribs are false ribs?

83
Q

Why are ribs 8-10 regarded as false ribs?

A

their costal cartilages are attached to the cartilage of the superior rib

84
Q

Which ribs are the floating ribs?

A

ribs 11 and 12

85
Q

Why are ribs 11 and 12 known as false ribs?

A

they are short ribs that don’t attach to the sternum. Instead their costal cartilages terminate within the musculature of the lateral abdominal wall.

86
Q

What is the space between the ribs called?

A

intercostal space

87
Q

What is the name of the fibrocartilage between the vertebrae?

A

intervertebral disks

88
Q

Function of intervertebral disks

A

cushion and protect vertebrae

89
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

manubrium, body, xiphoid process

90
Q

How is the sternum connected to the pectoral girdle?

A

Sterno-clavicular joint

91
Q

How are the upper limbs connected to the pectoral girdle?

A

acromio-clavicular joint

92
Q

Which vertebrae do not have intervertebral discs?

A

the very top cervical vertebrae

93
Q

In which direction does the vertebral body increase in size?

A

Vertebral body increases in size as you go down (they carry more weight)

94
Q

Which 3 bones make up the hip?

A

iliac/ilium, pubic, ischium

95
Q

What are the 3 components of the pubis?

A

pubic body, superior pubic ramus (forms part of acetabulum), inferior pubic ramus (extends towards ischium)

96
Q

Name of the joint that connects the pubis

A

symphysis pubis (cartilaginous joint)

97
Q

Name of the bone of the upper arm

98
Q

Name of the socket in the scapula that forms part of shoulder joint

A

glenoid fossa

99
Q

Why are shoulder dislocations more common than hip dislocations?

A

glenoid fossa is very shallow (compared to acetabulum)

100
Q

What feature attempts to increase the depth/volume of the glenoid fossa?

A

labrum (extra cartilage)

101
Q

Name of the 2 bony projections from the scapula

A

coracoid and acromion (forms acromio-clavicular joint)

102
Q

What are the 2 bones of the lower arm?

A

radius and ulna

103
Q

Which bone of the lower arm is on the thumb side?

104
Q

Which bone of the lower arm is on the pinky side?

105
Q

Name of the 2 rotatory movements of the forearm / radius and ulna?

A

pronation and supination

106
Q

Name of rotation of palm upwards

A

supination

107
Q

Name of rotation of palm downwards

108
Q

What is the olecranon?

A

the prominence on the ulna that helps joining to humerus

109
Q

What feature of the radius helps linkage to the elbow joint?

A

radial head

110
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the tingling sensation when hitting the funny bone (olecranon)?

A

ulnar nerve

111
Q

How many bones in the hand and wrist?

A

27 (8 carpal, 5 metacarpals, 14 phalanges)

112
Q

Name of the bones of the wrist

A

carpal bones

113
Q

How many carpal bones are there in each wrist?

114
Q

Which bones extend from the carpal bones?

A

metacarpals

115
Q

How many metacarpals are there?

116
Q

How many phalanges are there? (same name and number for feet and hands)

A

14 (2 in thumb, 3 in other digits)

117
Q

What is the singular for phalanges?

118
Q

Which is the biggest and strongest bone in the body?

A

pelvis (can take up to 20 times body weight)

119
Q

Name of the bone in thigh

120
Q

How does the femur help humans be bipedal (stand on 2 lower limbs)?

A

femur directs weight inwards (hip sticks out) which centres gravity, allowing for an upright position

121
Q

Name of the socket of the hip joint

A

acetabulum

122
Q

Which bones form the acetabulum?

A

formed by the fusion of the hip bones - ilium, pubis, ischium

123
Q

What forms the ball in the hip joint?

A

femoral head

124
Q

Where does a ‘hip’ fracture typically occur?

A

femoral neck (not hip bones)

125
Q

Name of projections of the femur that allows for muscle attachment

A

greater and lesser tuberosity/trochanter

126
Q

When would fracture of the actual hip bones occur?

A

high impact incidences e.g. road traffic accidents

127
Q

Which bones form the knee joint?

A

patella, femur (condyles), tibia

128
Q

Name of the rounded ends of the distal femur

A

medial and lateral femoral condyles

129
Q

Name of the bones in the lower leg

A

tibia (medial) and fibula (lateral)

130
Q

Name given to a bone embedded in a tendon

A

sesamoid bone

131
Q

Example of a sesamoid bone

A

patella (embedded in tendon of quadriceps)

132
Q

Name of the 2 projection in the ankle

A

medial malleolus and lateral malleolus

133
Q

Which bone gives rise to the medial malleolus projection?

134
Q

Which bone gives rise to the lateral malleolus projection?

135
Q

Which bone forms the heel?

136
Q

How many bones in the ankle and foot?

A

26 (7 tarsal, 5 metatarsal, 14 phalanges)

137
Q

Name the bones of the ankle and foot

A

tarsal (inc talus and calcaneus bones), metatarsals and phalanges