5/10 Flashcards

1
Q

causes of target cells

A
HbC disease
Asplenia
Liver disease
Thalassemia
(HALT)
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2
Q

causes of echinocytes “burr cell”

A

End stage renal disease
liver disease
pyruvate kinase deficiency

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3
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

seen in asplenia or hyposplenia (because normally spleen macrophages remove them)

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4
Q

acute intermittent porphyria enzyme defect

A

porphobilinogen deaminase

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5
Q

acute intermittent porphyria symptoms

A

abdominal pain
wine colored urine
polyneuropathy
psych disturbances

precipitated by drugs, alcohol, starvation

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6
Q

porphyria cutanea tarda enzyme defected and symotoms

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

tea-colored urine
blistering photosensitivity

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7
Q

lead poisoning enzymes defect

A

ALA dehydratase

ferrochelatase

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8
Q

which protein helps retrograde transport of herpes virus (periphery–> CNS) and which protein helps anterograde transport of herpes (reactivation)?

A

retrograde- dyenin

anterograde- kinesin

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9
Q

what do you measure in amniotic fluid to test for neural tube defects?

A

elevated AFP

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10
Q

what do you measure in amniotic fluid to test for fetal lung maturity

A

phospholipids (pulmonary surfactant)

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11
Q

phenytoin Tx

A

gingival hyperplasia
CNS effects- ataxia, nystagmus
megaloblastic anemia
if pregnant–> fetal hydrantoin syndrome

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12
Q

what should you think when you hear calf swelling and then dyspnea?

A

pulmonary embolism

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13
Q

what are the blood gases with pulmonary embolism

A

respiratory alkalosis-
high pH, low CO2, low bicarb
hypoxemia from VQ mismatch

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14
Q

what is special about d-xylose?

A

monosaccharide that doesnt use pancreatic exocrine activity

can be used to differentiate between pancreatic insufficiency and mucosal malabsorption causes

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15
Q

what does the carpal tunnel contain?

A

flexor digitorum profundus tendons
flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
flexor policis longus tendon
median nerve

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16
Q

what should you incise in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

transverse carpal ligament (to relieve some pressure)

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17
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome symptoms

A

DVT, PE, ischemic attacks

miscarriages!

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18
Q

risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma

A

smoking

occupational exposure- rubber, plastics, aromatic amine dyes, textiles, leather

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19
Q

damage to femoral nerve causes…

A
weak quads
weak ilipsoas
knee buckling- stairs difficulty
diminished patella reflex
sensory loss over anterior and medial thigh, and medial leg
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20
Q

which artery has an aneurym in CN III palsy

A

posterior communicating artery

on ipsilateral side

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21
Q

when and where is S3 best heard

A

during diastole, after S2, at end expiration
with bell at apex
in left lateral decubitus position

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22
Q

what are the sources of alkaline secretions in the duodenum

A

submucosal brunners glands

pancreatic secretions to the ampulla

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23
Q

staph scalded skin syndrome’s virulence factor

A

exotoxin

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24
Q

management of somatic symptom disorder

A

schedule regular visits with same provider

limit referrals and extra tests

legitimize symptoms

only mental health referral once relationship built

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25
Q

chancroid

A

painful penis ulcer with ragged borders and grey exudate

sex contact

by gram neg bacteria- Haemophilus ducreyi

26
Q

chlorthalidone MOA and Tx

A

MOA- thiazide diuretic

Tx- reduce insulin–> high glucose, LDL cholesterol

27
Q

newer generation antihistamines

A

loratadine, cetirizine

less side effects, safer in elderly

28
Q

if male athlete suddenly gets acne, what should you think?

A

steroids- methyltestosterone for example

29
Q

which type of cancer do people with down’s have increased risk?

A

ALL, and AML

30
Q

what do small cell lung carcinomas stain for

A
neuroendorcine markers:
neural cell adhesion molecule (NCAM)
enolase
chromogranin
synaptophysin
31
Q

dermatomyositis

A

autoimmune inflammatory disease

proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash

may occur alone or associated with malignancy (ovarian, lung, colorectal, non-Hodgkin lymphoma)

32
Q

ionizing radiation MOA

A

cause double strand DNA breaks

33
Q

in what way is vitamin K helpful for coag factors

A

cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which carboxylates coag factors 2,7,9,10

34
Q

multidrug resistance genes encodes for…

A

P-glycoprotein, transmembrane ATP- dep efflux pump

cancers use this to pump out chemo drugs (hydrophobic)

35
Q

CO poisoning affects…

A

increase in carboxyhemoglobin

decrease in oxygen carrying capacity and oxygen content in blood
but NO CHANGE in oxygen dissolved in plasma (partial pressure)

no effect on methemoglobin (drug toxicities…)

36
Q

HFE mutation causes

A

hemochromatosis

affects HFE protein that interacts with transferritin to detect iron levels

leads to iron overload by increasing iron absorption from GI (decrease hepcidin and increase DMT1)

37
Q

CD14

A

surface marker of monocyte/macrophages

present in granulomas of TB

38
Q

what happens when Rb phosphorylated

A

releasese E2F txn factor

G1–>S

39
Q

difference between pilocytic astrocytomas and medulloblastomas on imaging and prognosis?

A

pilo: solid and cystic parts, good prognosis
med: only solid; bad prognosis

40
Q

Haldane effect

A

in lungs: binding of O2 causes release of protons and CO2 from Hb

41
Q

Bohr effect

A

in peripheral tissues: high CO2 and H+ causes release of oxygen from Hb

42
Q

pathway of neural crest cells in GI

A

move caudally along vagal fibers- finish at the rectum by 12 weeks

form the myenteric and meissner plexus

43
Q

most common benign liver tumor

A

cavernous hemangioma (blood filled spaces)

44
Q

antidote to rat poison

A

since most rat poisons contain brodifacoum (super-warfarin), antidote is fresh frozen plasma (immediate) and vitamin K (longer term)

45
Q

phenotypic mixing

A

the acquisition of a new viral surface protein to infect a new host

but because no genetic exchange or change, the progeny will revert to not being able to bind that new host

46
Q

CMV esophagitis morphology

A

shallow ulcers with intranuclear inclusion bodies

47
Q

where does renal clear cell carcinoma originate from in the kidney?

A

proximal tubules

48
Q

DNA pol I vs II vs III functions

A

all have 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity (remove mismatched nucleotides)

DNA pol I has added 5’–>3’ exonuclease activity (remove RNA primer)

49
Q

which nerves are affected by injection between anterior and middle scalenes?

A

brachial plexus roots and trunks (eg. phrenic)

50
Q

which nerves are affected temoromandibular disorder?

A

V3- mandible

51
Q

lactate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

glycolysis is inhibited in strenuously exercising muscle because NAD+ cant be regenerated in the normal pyruvate –> lactate pathway

52
Q

what is weak in direct hernia?

A

transversalis fascia

53
Q

what type of hemolysis in enterococcus?

A

gamma hemolytic

54
Q

pure red cell aplasia

A

rare form of marrow failure - severe hypoplasia of erythroid precursors but normal platelets and granulocytes

associated with thymomas, lymphocytic leukemias, and parvovirus b19

55
Q

why is hep C genetically unstable

A

no proofreading 3’–>5’ exonuclease activity

56
Q

how to best treat drug-induced parkisonism

A

centrally acting antimuscarinic agent (trihexyphidyl, benztropine)

57
Q

most common cystic fibrosis mutation

A

F508- impaired posttranscriptional processing of CFTR

58
Q

what does chronic rejection look like in lung vs kidney

A

lung- inflammation of small bronchioles

kidney- vascluar obliteration

59
Q

conductive vs sensorineural hearing loss

A

c: impaired transmission of air vibration to inner ear
s: involves cochlea, or auditory nerve

60
Q

rinne test

A

compares hearing vibration at external auditory meatus (air conduction) versus mastoid process (bone conduction)

air conduction is normally louder than bone conduction

so if someone hears mastoid better–> conductive hearing loss

61
Q

weber test

A

put vibrating fork on top of head

sensorineural hearing loss: unaffected side will hear vibration better

conductive hearing loss: affected side will hear vibration better

62
Q

how can lithium toxicities be precipitated?

A

volume depletion

drugs- thiazide diuretics, ACEI, NSAIDs