WEEK #5 WEEK OF 2/24/14 PART I – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE {Sec. 7.1 - End} PART II – FFP – ENGINE OPS {CH. 5, 6 & 7} PART III – DUNN CH. 7, 8 & 9 PART IV – TB – EEO, FIRES #7 & 8 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #6, 7 & 45 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards

Question 1

Q

The Class “E” communications system includes the fire command station, loudspeakers,
floor warden stations, manual fire alarms, smoke detectors, sprinkler water flow alarms,
thermostatic alarms, and the locked door fail safe system. Which of the following is incorrect
concerning the floor warden station? (7.2.3)
(A) A floor warden station shall be located on each floor between the required exits.
(B) It includes the capability to activate a visual and audible signal at the fire command station.
(C) It permits two-way voice communications with the fire command station.
(D) It is possible to make announcements on the floor where located, and the floor above.

Answer

A

D

D. Provisions for making announcements over the loudspeaker system on the
floor where it is located.

Question 2

Q

At least one manual fire alarm sending station shall be located in each path of escape in
each story of a building. There may also be additional sending stations present. Which choice is
incorrect concerning the manual fire alarms? (7.2.4)
(A) Additional stations shall be installed so that no point on any floor shall be more than 400
feet from the nearest station.
(B) The activation causes transmission to the Fire Department via a central station.
(C) An activation causes a visual and audible signal at the fire command station, mechanical
control center and the regularly assigned location of the fire safety director.
(D) Activation causes the sounding of the alarm on the fire floor and the floor above.

Answer

A

A

7.2.4 At least one manual fire alarm sending station shall be located in each path of
escape in each story of a building. Additional stations shall be installed so that no
point on any floor shall be more than 200 feet from the nearest station.
The activation shall cause:
A. Automatic transmission to the Fire Department via a central station.
B. A visual and audible signal at the fire command station, mechanical control
center and the regularly assigned location of the fire safety director.
C. Sounding of the alarm on the fire floor and the floor above.

Question 3

Q

Units respond to an activation of an approved ionization detection device at the elevator
landing on the 15th floor. The building was built in 2010 under the 2008 Building Code. Which
of the following would not take place due to this activation? (7.2.5 A)
(A) The elevators will be recalled.
(B) The fire alarm signal is sounded on the 14th, 15th, and 16th floors.
(C) A fire alarm signal is sounded at the fire command station, the mechanical control center,
and the regularly assigned location of the fire safety director.
(D) Stop the air supply into and the return air from the 14th, 15th and 16th floors.

Answer

A

D

7.2.5 An approved combustion ionization detection device or a combination of an
approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic
device shall be installed:
A. At each elevator landing, the activation of this device shall:
1. Recall the elevators.
2. Sound the fire alarm signal on the fire floor and the floor above.
Note: In buildings built under the 2008 Building Code, the alarm
will also sound on the floor below.
3. Cause a fire alarm signal to be transmitted to the Fire Department
via a central station.
4. Cause a fire alarm signal to be sounded at the fire command
station, the mechanical control center and the regularly assigned
location of the fire safety director.
5. Stop the air supply into and the return air from the floor where
activated.
6. Activate the air exhaust fans and dampers in the smoke shaft or the
pressurizing fans in the stair enclosure.
7. Unlock the doors on the locked fail safe system.

Question 4

Q

Which of the following is not information that the first arriving ladder would obtain from
the Fire Safety Director or their surrogate? (8.3.1 A)
(A) Location of the fire.
(B) Evacuation procedures that have been implemented.
(C) Status of elevators
(D) The presence of access stairs on any floor in the building.

Answer

A

D

8.3.1 The first arriving ladder company shall:
A. Obtain as much information as possible from the fire safety director or
his/her surrogate as to:
1. Location of the fire.
2. Evacuation procedures that have been implemented.
3. Status of elevators.
4. Access stairs serving the fire floor.

Question 5

Q

Prior to leaving the lobby, the first due ladder acted correctly in which choice?
(8.3.1 B, C)
(A) They determined the elevator bank that provided the quickest access to the fire area and
placed the elevator cars to be used on “Firemen Service”.
(B) Obtained the only copy of the floor plan of the fire area, and took it with them to the fire
floor in order to determine the layout of the fire area.
(C) Obtained keys necessary to gain access to the fire floor.
(D) They left the Incident Command Post unstaffed, due to the LCC performing a preliminary
inspection of the exterior of the building.

Answer

A

C

B. Prior to leaving the lobby:
1. Determine the elevator bank that provides the safest access to the
fire area and place the elevator cars to be used on “Firemen
Service.”
2. Obtain floor plan of the fire area. If only one copy is available,
do not remove it from the fire command station.
3. Obtain keys necessary to gain access to the fire floor.
4. Ensure that the ICP is staffed by a Fire Department member.

Question 6

Q

Ladder 200, the first arriving ladder at a fire on the 20th floor of a High Rise Office
Building, performed several actions. Which action taken was incorrect? (8.3.1 D, E )
(A) The OV FF joined the Forcible Entry Team in a “Firemen Service” Elevator operated by
the Roof FF.
(B) The Forcible Entry Team and OV FF exited the elevator on the 17th floor due to the
presence of smoke on floors 18 and 19 as a result of a negative stack effect.
(C) The Forcible Entry team performed a primary search of the 20th floor. The OV FF
ascended the Evacuation Stairway to the 21st floor and began a primary search of that floor
because the 2nd due Ladder Company was delayed.
(D) The Forcible Entry Team initiated evacuation procedures on the fire floor.

Question 7

Q

Which of the following is correct concerning the selection of the Attack Stairway?
(8.3.1 D)
The 1st arriving Ladder Company Officer must consult with the 1st arriving Engine Officer
prior to selecting a stairway that will provide the best attack on the fire.
The Attack Stairway does not require a standpipe.
(A) # 1 only
(B) # 2 only
(C) # 1 and #2
(D) Neither # 1 or #2

Question 8

Q

The 2nd arriving Ladder Company would be operating correctly in which choice? (8.4.2)
(A) After reporting to the Incident Command Post, they determined if the fire floor had been
verified by the 1st arriving Ladder Company.
(B) They ensured that they obtained a different elevator car than the one used by the 1st
Arriving Ladder Company and placed it on “Firemen Service”.
(C) After exiting the elevator, they proceeded to the floor above the fire floor and performed a
primary search.

Question 9

Q

The 3rd arriving Ladder Company has many duties at a High Rise fire. Which of the
following is incorrect concerning these duties? (8.5.1 B)
(A) Obtain access to the floor above the fire via the attack stairway.
(B) Determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used for evacuation and advise the
Incident Command Post.
(C) Examine all stairways for occupants and smoke conditions.
(D) Remove all occupants from the attack stairway for a reasonable distance above the fire
floor and prevent its use by occupants.

Answer

A

A
Proceed to the floor above the fire via a stairway other than the
attack stairway.

Question 10

Q

If the 3rd arriving Ladder Company has difficulty in clearing the attack stairway of
occupants, who should they notify to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely
removed? (MORE THAN ONE CORRECT) (8.5.1 B)
(A) 1ST Arriving Engine Company
(B) 1st Arriving Ladder Company
(C) Incident Commander
(D) Fire Sector Supervisor/Fire Branch Director

Answer

A

B, D
If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of
occupants, the officer shall advise the first arriving ladder
company or the Fire Sector Supervisor or Fire Branch Director if
established, to withhold the attack until the occupants have been
safely removed

Question 11

Q

Answer Questions #11 - 13 based on the following information.
Ladder 300 was the 4th arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 17th floor of a 30 story
Office Building. After checking the Building Information Card, it was determined that the
A Bank of elevators served Floors 1-10, the B Bank of elevators served Floors 10-20, and
the C bank of elevators served Floors 20-30. The “A” Stairway was designated the Attack
Stairway, and the “B” Stairway was designated the Evacuation Stairway.
11. Which action taken by Ladder 300 was incorrect? (8.6.1 A,B, C)
(A) Each member of Ladder 300 was equipped with an extra SCBA cylinder.
(B) Ladder 300 proceeded to the 30th floor in an elevator car in the C Bank, after ensuring it
was in a blind shaft. Ladder 300 then used the “B” Stairway to proceed to the roof.
(C) Upon arrival at the roof area, the Officer of Ladder 300 reported the smoke and heat
conditions in the area and in the stairways to the IC.
(D) Ladder 300 ventilated the “A” Stairway upon orders from the Officer of Ladder 100, the 1st
arriving Ladder Company operating on the fire floor.
12.

Question 12

Q

Answer Questions #11 - 13 based on the following information.
Ladder 300 was the 4th arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 17th floor of a 30 story
Office Building. After checking the Building Information Card, it was determined that the
A Bank of elevators served Floors 1-10, the B Bank of elevators served Floors 10-20, and
the C bank of elevators served Floors 20-30. The “A” Stairway was designated the Attack
Stairway, and the “B” Stairway was designated the Evacuation Stairway.

Which floors would Ladder 300 perform a primary search of? (8.6.1 E)
(A) 25 to 30
(B) 26 to 30
(C) 27 to 30
(D) 28 to 30

Question 13

Q

Answer Questions #11 - 13 based on the following information.
Ladder 300 was the 4th arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 17th floor of a 30 story
Office Building. After checking the Building Information Card, it was determined that the
A Bank of elevators served Floors 1-10, the B Bank of elevators served Floors 10-20, and
the C bank of elevators served Floors 20-30. The “A” Stairway was designated the Attack
Stairway, and the “B” Stairway was designated the Evacuation Stairway.

After roof operations were completed, what would be a logical assignment for Ladder 300?
(8.6.1 H)
(A) Search Floor 10, the lowest floor of the elevator bank serving the fire floor.
(B) Search Floors 19 to 20.
(C) Remain in the roof area until otherwise ordered by the Fire Sector Supervisor.
(D) After establishment of the Forward Staging Area, proceed to that location and operate
under the control of the Forward Staging Area Manager.

Answer

A

B

H. A logical assignment after roof operations would be the upper floors of
elevator bank serving the fire floor

Question 14

Q

Which action taken by the 1st to arrive Engine Company should be corrected?
(9.3.1)
(A) They remained at the Incident Command Post until informed by the Fire Safety Director of
the location of the fire.
(B) Proceeded to at least two floors below the fire via the elevator staffed by the member of the
first ladder company.
(C) With the assistance of the second arriving engine company, they stretched a hoseline from
the standpipe outlet on the floor below the fire in the designated stairway.
(D) Operate the first hoseline until relieved by the second arriving engine company.

Answer

A

A

B. Remain at the ICP until the first ladder company has verified the fire
location.

Question 15

Q

The Second arriving Engine Company provides the communications link between the
lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of a Fire Sector/Branch. Choose a correct
action taken by the Second arriving Engine Company. (9.4.1)
(A) They took the Cross Band Repeater Handie Talkie to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet
from which the first handline was being stretched to establish the communications link.
(B) Assisted the first arriving engine company in stretching sufficient hose to reach the fire.
When the hoseline was stretched and operating they left the fire area.
(C) The Officer remained at the standpipe outlet until the hoseline was connected to the
standpipe outlet. After assuring the proper connections, the Officer left before water was started.

Question 16

Q

The 3rd and 4th arriving Engine companies stretch and operate the second hoseline as
directed by the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director or the IC. The hoseline may be used for
all of the following except which one? (9.5.1)
(A) Reinforce the position of the first line.
(B) Protect the position of the first line.
(C) Protect the search and evacuation of the fire floor.
(D) Protect the search and evacuation of the floor above the fire.
(E) Contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire wrapping around the core and
endangering operation of the first line.

Question 17

Q

Greater alarm or special called ladder companies after the fourth arriving ladder company,
and greater alarm or special called engine companies shall report to specific locations. Which
choice incorrectly describes this procedure? (8.7, 9.6.1)
(A) These units report to the ICP in the lobby
(B) If staffed, these units report to the Lobby Control Unit.
(C) Upon establishment, these units report to the Forward Staging Area
(D) The Staging Area Manager will relay information on the units available in Staging to the IC
or when staffed, the Operations Section Chief or the Lobby Control Unit.

Answer

A

C

8.7 Greater alarm or special called ladder companies after the fourth arriving ladder company
shall report to the ICP in the lobby or if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit. Upon the
establishment of a Staging Area outside the building, units will report into the Staging
Area. The Staging Area Manager will relay information on the units available in Staging
to the IC, or when staffed, the Operations Section Chief or Lobby Control Unit.

9.6.1 Greater alarm or special called engine companies shall report to the ICP in the
lobby or if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit. Upon the establishment of a Staging
Area outside the building, units will report into the Staging Area. The Staging
Area Manager will relay information on the units available in Staging to the IC or
when staffed, the Operations Section Chief or the Lobby Control Unit. Units may
be assigned to:
A. Relieve any of the first alarm units.
B. Stretch additional hoseline on the fire floor or the floors above.
C. Assist in the search and evacuation of upper floors.
D. Transport special tools and equipment to the Forward Staging Area.

Question 18

Q

Which of the following is wrong concerning the duties that greater alarm or special called
Engine companies may be assigned? (9.6.1)
(A) They may relieve any of the first alarm units.
(B) They may stretch additional hoselines on the fire floor or the floors above.
(C) They may transport special tools and equipment to the Forward Staging Area.
(D) They may not be used to assist in the search and evacuation of the upper floors. These
tasks shall only be performed by Ladder companies.

Answer

A

D
Which of the following is wrong concerning the duties that greater alarm or special called
Engine companies may be assigned? (9.6.1)
(A) They may relieve any of the first alarm units.
(B) They may stretch additional hoselines on the fire floor or the floors above.
(C) They may transport special tools and equipment to the Forward Staging Area.
(D) They may not be used to assist in the search and evacuation of the upper floors. These
tasks shall only be performed by Ladder companies.

Question 19

Q

Units responding to High Rise Office Buildings for a non-fire emergency caused by
explosion, biological, chemical, radiological, nuclear or natural disaster may find the Emergency
Action Plan has been implemented. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Emergency Action
Plan? (Add. 14.1, 4.2, 4.3)
(A) Units should be aware that the Fire Safety Director/Emergency Action Plan Director is
authorized to implement the EAP.
(B) The FSD/EAPD may decide to implement sheltering in place, in-building relocation, or a
partial or full building evacuation.
(C) The FSD/EAPD should utilize the building’s Fire Alarm Communication System to make
announcements on a regular basis to keep occupants up to date on the progress of the incident.
(D) The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants is not
permitted.

Answer

A

D

Note: The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants
is permissible and should be anticipated under the EAP.

Question 20

Q

PART II – FFP – ENGINE OPERATIONS CH. #5 - 7:
1. Properly trained firefighter should be able to perform all of the following tactics without
the officer’s personal supervision with the exception of which choice? (5.1.2)
(A) Hose estimate and removal from the apparatus.
(B) Supplying booster water if ordered.
(C) Operation of ground based large caliber stream (LCS) device.
(D) Supplying standpipe and sprinkler systems.

Answer

A

C

5.1.2 After the engine company officer has determined that a hoseline is needed, the
location, route, and number of lengths required in the stretch should be relayed to
the unit’s members. Properly trained firefighters should be able to perform the
following tactics without the officer’s personal supervision:
 Hose estimate and removal from the apparatus.
 Positioning the apparatus at a serviceable hydrant.
 Connection of the apparatus to a hydrant.
 Stretching a hoseline.
 Supplying booster water if ordered.
 Operation of apparatus mounted large caliber stream (LCS) device.
 Supplying standpipe and sprinkler systems.

Question 21

Q

While Ladder 100 is forcing entry to the fire apartment, the Officer of Engine 200 proceeds
to the area immediately below the fire to determine the layout of the fire and looks at the ceiling
and out a window on the floor below. Which of the following actions taken by the Officer of
Engine 200 was incorrect? (5.1.11, 5.1.25, 5.1.21, 5.1.23)
(A) Prior to opening the door to the fire area for line advancement, the Officer of Engine 200
contacted the Officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder via HT to ensure the Forcible Entry team was not
exposed in the hallways or stairs.
(B) The Officer of Engine 200 delegated the decision to call for water and the direction of the
initial stream to the Nozzle FF.
(C) Upon being informed by the ECC that the Flow Meter was indicating a burst length, the
Officer of Engine 200 struck the Nozzle FF with four strong slaps on the shoulder and pulled
him towards the hallway.
(D) After the fire was extinguished, the Officer instructed the Nozzle FF to remove the Main
Stream Tip and direct the stream out the window with the nozzle held 4-5 feet back from the
window to remove heat and smoke.

Question 22

Q

The firefighter assigned the nozzle occupies one of the most challenging and dangerous
positions on the fireground. Choose the incorrect statement about this position. (5.3.2,
5.3.5, 5.3.14, 5.3.15 B)
(A) After assigning the Nozzle position at roll call, the Officer can alter the assigned positions
in order to allow a less experienced firefighter to work the nozzle at a minor fire.
(B) The Nozzle FF can bleed the line of air by either cracking the nozzle slightly open while
the water is filling the line or opening and closing the nozzle quickly after water reaches the
nozzle.
(C) Rapid counter clockwise rotation of the nozzle pushes the heat, fire and steam ahead of the
nozzle team.
(D) Crawling is useful where heat conditions require a very low approach to the fire area, and
using the Leg Forward method is recommended for commercial occupancies.

Question 23

Q

Which statement is correct concerning nozzle techniques? (5.3.6, 5.3.10, 5.3.15 E, 5.3.20)
(A) The Nozzle FF can only enter the fire area without water when the fire is very minor.
(B) The nozzle should never be opened on smoke.
(C) The stream should not be operated overhead. However, when the room “lights up”
overhead or fire rolls overhead or from behind it is permissible to operate the stream overhead.
(D) If it becomes necessary to withdraw an attack hoseline from a position due to fire intensity,
the line should be shut down the members should turn and withdraw rapidly.

Question 24

Q

A major function of the back-up position is to flake out the hoseline while waiting for
water and to facilitate the hoselines advance once it is charged. Which of the following is an
incorrect method of flaking out a hoseline? (5.4.3)
(A) The hoseline is flaked up the public hall stair above the fire floor and out a window if
present. After the line is charged the weight of the water in the line moving down the stairs will
assist the Door FF in feeding the line.
(B) The hoseline is flaked out in the hallway on the fire floor. In buildings with large halls on
each floor as “H” type buildings and newer apartment houses, this is effective.
(C) The hoseline is flaked out into an adjacent or opposite apartment on the fire floor. This is
useful when a small hallway is encountered and the hose can’t be laid up the stairs.
(D) The hoseline is flaked out wholly or partially in the public hallway on the floor below the
fire floor. This is utilized when the volume or intensity of the fire prevents access to the fire
floor for flaking out the hoseline.

Question 25

Q

After completing the initial hose estimate, the control FF must eliminate kinks in the
charged hoseline while moving toward the fire area. A single 90 degree kink in a 1 ¾” hoseline
can result in a loss of ______ GPM or more. A hoseline with 3 kinks could lose _______ GPM
or more. (5.6.9)
(A) 20, 60
(B) 20, 90
(C) 10, 60
(D) 10, 90

Question 26

Q

When Signal 10-70 is transmitted, the dispatcher will designate the second arriving engine
as the “Water Resource Unit.” Which of the following is not a duty of the 2nd arriving Engine
Company? (5.7.2, 5.7.3)
(A) The Officer is the Water Resource Officer for the first hoseline, and provides a
communications link between the first due engine and the IC.
(B) The Officer keeps track of the number of members on the fire floor, and controls the
members going to the floors above the fire.
(C) The ECC positions their apparatus at a hydrant and tests it prior to assisting the first due
ECC.
(D) The ECC monitors the Department radio and answers for the Battalion or Division aide if
either fails to respond to repeated calls from the dispatcher.

Question 27

Q

CHAPTER 6
8. Several types of hydrants are encountered in New York City. Which choice is incorrect
concerning these hydrants? (6.2.2, 6.2.3, 6.2.4, 6.2.5)
(A) A white line under the number on the barrel of a Smith Low Pressure Hydrant indicates the
hydrant is on a dead end main and is only supplied from one direction.
(B) The Dresser hydrant will provide 10-15 percent less discharge than the Smith Hydrant.
(C) The Eddy Hydrant opens and closes in a direction opposite of the Smith and Dresser
hydrants.
(D) Although High Pressure Hydrants may still be encountered, their use should be avoided.

Answer

A

B

The Dresser hydrant will provide 10% to 15% greater
discharge than the Smith hydrant (see Fig. 6-2).

Question 28

Q

Engine companies have several options for connecting to hydrants. Which is incorrect?
(6.3.1)
(A) The 35-foot soft connection is 5 yellow 5 inch hose with 4 ½” butts. This connection
provides the largest flows of any connection, and must be flaked out prior to hooking up to the
hydrant.
(B) The 10 foot small connection is 3 ½” hose with 4 1/2” butts. Although it is semi-rigid, it
can be bent and will straighten when charged.
(C) The 50 foot length of 3 ½” hose has 3 inch butts permits the most flexibility in apparatus
positioning, but provides the least water flow.
(D) The 10 foot hard suction is 4 ½” hose with 4 1/2” butts. This connection should be used for
drafting if the 10 foot small connection is not available.

Question 29

Q

Which of the following is an incorrect use of Hydrant Discs? (6.5.2)
(A) The White Disc is available for placement on the 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of unserviceable
hydrants and 3 inch Siamese or out of service auxiliary fire protection systems.
(B) The Yellow Disc is available for placement on the 4 ½” or 2 ½” outlets of frozen hydrants
and 3 inch Siamese of frozen auxiliary fire protection systems.
(C) The Blue Disc is for placement on 3 inch Siamese of auxiliary fire protection system to
indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and/or a portion of the system is
such that it will operate effectively when supplied.
(D) The company number and individual disc number shall be marked in black on one side.
Chapter 7

Answer

A

B

6.5.2 Different color discs are used to indicate different problems as follows:
• White Disc - available in two sizes, for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or
2 1/2 inch outlets of unserviceable hydrants and 3 inch siamese of out of
service auxiliary fire protection systems.
• Yellow Disc - available in two sizes for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or
2 1/2 inch outlets of frozen hydrants.
• Blue Disc - for placement on 3 inch siamese of auxiliary fire protection
system to indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system
and/or a portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when
supplied.

Question 30

Q

CHAPTER 7
11. Hose is the primary tool for the application of water. Choose the incorrect point about
hose. (7.2.5, 7.3.2, 7.5.1, 7.5.6)
(A) Each engine company should maintain a minimum of 20 lengths of 1 ¾” hose, 30 lengths
of 2 ½” hose, and 10 lengths of 3 ½” hose. This includes hose for winter operations, standpipe
operations, replacement lengths stored in quarters and hose carried in apparatus hose beds.
(B) The date of issuance, found on the female coupling, is to be entered in the Office Record
Journal.
(C) Only emergency needs, which allow for no other corrective action, permit the use of
pressures higher than 250 psi. Pressures in excess of 250 psi can only be ordered by the IC.
(D) Kinks should be removed hydraulically by increasing the pressure.

Question 31

Q

In which of the following choices would an Engine Officer be correct in ordering the
stretching of a 1 ¾” hoseline? (7.6.3)
(A) The line is expected to be used from a purely defensive position.
(B) An advanced fire on arrival.
(C) A large volume of water is required to cool a superheated fire area.
(D) A medium body of fire in a medium sized uncompartmented area.
(E) When the Officer cannot determine the size or extent of the fire or fire area.

Question 32

Q

Proper hose care is essential to successful operations. Which of the following is not an
example of proper hose care? (7.8.6, 7.10.2, 7.11.1)
(A) 5 inch hose should not be driven over unless properly bridged.
(B) To free frozen couplings, units may use the thawing apparatus or a flare from the apparatus.
(C) When cleaning hose in the Spring and Fall of each year, any hose that will reach 10 years
in the current calendar year is to be taken out of service and the Officer is to notify the Fire Tools
and Equipment Unit.
(D) Hose exposed to chemicals, oils, or acids should not be repacked on the apparatus.
Assistance form the Hazardous Materials Unit should be requested for proper treatment of the
hose.

Answer

A

B

7.10 FROZEN HOSE
7.10.1 The following methods should be considered to free hose from ice:
• Chop the ice away carefully so as not to cut the hose jacket.
• Use the thawing apparatus.
7.10.2 The following methods should be considered to free frozen couplings:
• Use the thawing apparatus.
• Heat from the exhaust pipe of the apparatus.
7.10.3 Transporting frozen hose to Quarters:
• Frozen hose may be transported on pumpers, provided long round turns are
made when placing it on the apparatus.
• Frozen hose shall be handled and bent as little as possible.
• If the hose is frozen solid, consideration should be given to transporting it
on aerial apparatus. The hose can be laid out straight, which will avoid
damage through bending.

Question 33

Q

All units test their hose each year. Which action taken during this operation should be
corrected? (7.14 C #7,8,9,11,19,24)
(A) A maximum of 38 lengths of hose may be tested at one time.
(B) If the manifold is equipped with a relief valve, the 2 ½” relief valve discharge must be
capped and the valve kept in the fully closed position.
(C) A water soluble marker is used to draw a line around the circumference of the hose as close
as possible to the male butt at each coupling. A movement of 1/8” or more would require the
length to be placed out of service.
(D) One FF should be placed on the right side of the manifold facing the hose at a distance of
20 feet from the hose.
(E) 250 psi shall be maintained for five minutes and then gradually reduced to hydrant
pressure.

Answer

A

D
Place one firefighter on the left side of manifold facing the hose at a
distance of 15 feet from the hose (see note 2).

Question 34

Q

PART III – DUNN – Ch. #7, 8, & 9:
CHAPTER 7
1. A primary structural element is a structure which supports another structural member.
Which of the following incorrectly describes primary structural members? (p. 95)
(A) A Flat roof has two primary structural members (Two bearing walls).
(B) A Gable roof has three primary structural members (Two bearing walls and one ridge
rafter).
(C) A Hip roof has seven primary structural members (Two bearing walls, one ridge rafter and
four hip rafters).
(D) Primary structural members include header and trimmer beams, ridge rafters, hip rafters
and bearing walls.

Question 35

Q

Which of the three most common types of wood construction used for sloping roofs has the
largest area of unsupported roof deck? (p. 96)
(A) Timber truss
(B) Plank-and-beam
(C) Rafter construction

Question 36

Q

Choose the incorrect point about operating at a peaked roof building. (p. 101-102)
(A) Firefighters can protect themselves when working on a peaked roof by using a roof ladder
hooked on to the ridge rafter or by operating from an aerial or tower ladder.
(B) A roof ladder will protect firefighters from a roof deck and roof rafter collapse.
(C) When firefighters are operating at a private home with a sloping roof, it is more effective to
remove smoke from the structure by venting top floor windows than by cutting a vent opening.
(D) Because a sloping roof sheds water and snow when properly pitched, it may be designed to
support less of a live load than a flat roof.

Question 37

Q

CHAPTER 8
4. During a fire, early identification of a truss is a key to a safe operation. Which one of the
following is not recognized as a size up indicator of a truss roof? (p. 112)
(A) A roof built in step fashion, with each section higher than the next.
(B) A large open space without columns, which indicates a long span of roof support.
(C) A mounded roof space, which can be seen only on bowstring trusses.
(D) Certain occupancies that frequently use truss construction in the roof, such as
supermarkets, bowling alleys, garages, theaters, places of worship, auto dealerships, piers and
armories.

Question 38

Q

Fires in buildings with bowstring timber truss roofs are extremely dangerous. Choose the
incorrect point about these buildings. (p. 112, 113)
(A) A truss roof concealed by a ceiling is much safer for firefighters than a truss roof without a
ceiling. The ceiling protects the timber trusses, preventing a contents fire from spreading to the
trusses.
(B) When a bowstring timber truss roof is concealed by a ceiling, there can be no extinguishing
a fire in a truss space from above.
(C) When a bowstring timber truss roof is concealed by a ceiling, there can be no
extinguishment from below the burning truss through a trap door in the ceiling.
(D) When a fire extends to a timber truss attic space, prepare for a defensive outside attack and
protect exposures.

Question 39

Q

Firefighting strategies for buildings with timber trusses not concealed by a ceiling are
different than those that have a ceiling. Which one of the following is an incorrect action to take
at one of these buildings? (p. 113, p. 115)
(A) The first arriving engine company at a timber truss roof building without a ceiling should
attack the fire directly with a large diameter hoseline. A powerful water stream, capable of
reaching distances of 50 feet, will be needed.
(B) The first hoseline should attack the main body of fire. If the first stream does not control
the flames within the first few seconds of water discharge, and it appears that the fire will
increase, interior firefighting should be discontinued and firefighters withdrawn.
(C) If the first hoseline is successful and controls the fire at floor level and it appears that the
fire will not spread, a back up large diameter hoseline should be stretched into the building.
(D) If the fire is in a single timber truss, all interior operations must immediately cease and
members withdrawn.
(E) Firefighters attempting the initial hoseline attack on a fire should be positioned behind a
truss section next to the one on fire.

Question 40

Q

Choose the incorrect point about venting a bowstring timber truss roof. (p. 114)
(A) In a bowstring timber truss roofed building which does not have the web members enclosed
with plasterboard, vent openings may be made in the front and rear sloping portions of the roof,
providing horizontal cross ventilation of the entire roof space.
(B) To determine if a fire has spread to the roof space of a bowstring truss, a rectangular cut
should be made in the sloping front or rear of the roof from the safety of an aerial platform.
(C) If a small fire, such as in an overheated motor or electrical wiring, exists in an attic space
that is concealed by a ceiling, and the access to the truss attic space can’t be found, quick access
can be obtained by making a roof cut opening at the sloping ends of the roof deck.
(D) A hose stream can be directed into a truss roof area through a roof cut opening at the
sloping ends if the small, normal access opening cannot be located.

Question 41

Q

At a church fire, upon arrival, the first officer should locate and size up the fire and
determine if the blaze can be extinguished with a hoseline. Choose the incorrect tactic taken.
(p. 118-119, p. 124)
(A) If the fire is extinguishable, the first line is taken through the front or side door to the seat
of the fire and the fire is extinguished.
(B) The largest hose should be stretched to give firefighters the most water power with the
greatest reach.
(C) A second large diameter hoseline should immediately back up the first line.
(D) If the first two hoselines do not extinguish the fire, a third hoseline should be promptly
stretched through a different entrance to support the fire attack.

Question 42

Q

At a church fire, as long as there are sufficient resources to advance the interior attack
lines, apparatus should begin to be positioned for defensive operations. Where should the first
aerial/tower ladder be positioned? (p. 119)
(A) In front of the building.
(B) The side of the building near the stained glass windows nearest to the fire.
(C) In a corner safe area and the aerial platform raised to the rose window.
(D) At the rear of the building and the aerial platform raised to the steeple.

Question 43

Q

Church fires require several tactics not seen in other types of buildings. Which choice is
incorrect concerning these tactics? (p.120, 122-123)
(A) In addition to opening up the concealed spaces after the fire is extinguished, firefighters
should quickly gain access to the attic space to check for extension.
(B) If fire reaches the attic space of most places of worship, it can usually be extinguished with
handheld hoselines through the small attic door.
(C) If the fire is extinguished by interior hoselines, the side stained glass window may not have
to be vented.
(D) If the interior must be vented for the advance of the first two interior hoselines, then the
stained glass windows nearest to the fire on both sides of the building should be vented first.

Question 44

Q

When a church contains a steeple in the front, which side(s) of the building are the most
dangerous areas during a fire? (p. 123)
(A) Exposure #1only
(B) Exposures # 2 and 4 only
(C) Exposures #1, 2, and 4 only
(D) Exposures # 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 45

Q

CHAPTER 9
12. To determine the risks of a flat roof collapse, we need to know the following: What type of
roof support system has been used, what method was used to connect the joists to the supporting
wall, and is there a built up structure above the main roof supports or a rain roof. Which choice
is incorrect concerning these three facts about roof construction? (p. 133-137)
(A) When a fire building has a steel bar joist system supporting the roof, horizontal ventilation
of windows and doors, in advance of hoselines, is preferred to vertical ventilation.
(B) Wood joists are spaced closer together than lightweight roof supports, and will generally
give warning prior to collapse.
(C) If the center of the roof is burned away, a beam end encased in a brick cavity may
temporarily provide support as a cantilevered beam.
(D) In corbel shelf construction, the beam ends may rotate off their resting position when the
center of the beam is burned away.
(E) When fire weakens inverted roof supports, and the main supports are stable, members must
immediately discontinue operations and evacuate the roof.

Question 46

Q

PART IV – TB – EEO, FIRES #7 & 8:
TRAINING BULLETINS EEO
1. All members must be aware of the implications of discrimination, harassment, and sexual
harassment. Which of the following is incorrect concerning these topics? (1.3.1, 1.3.2,
1.3.3,1.4)
(A) The recipient determines whether or not the behavior is unwelcome. The impact, not the
intent, is the determining factor in assessing whether sexual harassment has occurred.
(B) Disparate treatment includes excluding someone from meals, when others who do not
belong to the protected groups are not excluded.
(C) The workplace includes Fire Department affiliated functions (including parades, runs, ball
games, company dances, parties and picnics), whether they occur on or off duty in the confines
of New York City. These events outside of New York City are not considered an extension of
the workplace.
(D) Repeatedly asking a person for a date when he or she has made it clear the answer is “No”
is an example of verbal sexual harassment.

Question 47

Q

Communication, record keeping, and support are essential elements in eliminating
discrimination. Which choice incorrectly describes these actions? (2, 3.1, 3.2, 4.2)
(A) If a person feels threatened or uncomfortable, the harassed individual may communicate
this directly to their Officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
(B) If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant
should communicate with someone at the next level of supervision and/or the EEO Officer/EEO
Counselor.
(C) Offensive material should be removed by the complainant from bulletin boards. Evidence
should be dated by the Officer and forwarded to the EEO Officer, after making a copy of the
material.
(D) A detailed personal journal should be a bound notebook rather than loose-leaf.
(E) Co-workers can act as support, and can be extremely helpful as witnesses to support
complaints.

Question 48

Q

There are several actions that must be taken when a member utilizes the EEO complaint
procedure. Which choice is not in accordance with these procedures? (7.1 Notes, 7.2 D
Notes)
(A) The chain of command from the member to the EEO Officer is bypassed.
(B) The EEO Officer shall make the final decision regarding EEO Complaints.
(C) Company Journal or Log entries shall not be taken with regards to any details of EEO
complaints.
(D) A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department EEO Officer within 1 year from the
date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred.

Answer

A

B

Notes: IN ORDER TO PROTECT THE CONFIDENTIAL NATURE OF THE EEO
COMPLAINT PROCESS, THE STANDARD FIRE DEPARTMENT
PROCEDURE FOR CHAIN OF COMMAND FROM THE MEMBER TO THE
EEO OFFICER IS BYPASSED, WHEN THE MEMBER UTILIZES THE
COMPLAINT PROCEDURE.
COMPANY JOURNAL OR LOG ENTRIES SHALL NOT BE TAKEN WITH
REGARD TO ANY DETAILS OF EEO COMPLAINTS, as per PA/ID 1/77
dated March 1, 1997.
THE FIRE COMMISSIONER WILL MAKE THE FINAL DECISION
REGARDING EEO COMPLAINTS.

Question 49

Q

Lt. Smith is working a 9x6 tour in Engine 300, when a Firefighter approaches him and
notifies him of an alleged incident of harassment. Which action taken by Lt. Smith should be
corrected? (7.2)
(A) After listening objectively to the complaint and determining that it is EEO related,
Lt. Smith contacted the EEO Officer immediately.
(B) The EEO Officer requested that Lt. Smith conduct an investigation. Lt. Smith declined due
to his knowledge that only BITS or the Inspector General can request this.
(C) Lt. Smith provided a copy of the Fire Department’s EEO Complaint Procedure PA/ID 1/77
to the member.
(D) Lt. Smith informed the member that they had the option of filing directly with BITS if the
complaint is sexual harassment.
(E) Lt. Smith completed a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report submitted directly to
the EEO Officer without intermediate endorsements. No copies were retained by Lt. Smith.

Answer

A

B

B. Listen objectively to the complainant. If the alleged incident is EEO related, the
EEO Officer shall be contacted immediately. Interrogations or investigations of
alleged incident(s)shall not be initiated, except if requested by the EEO Officer or
Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS.)

Question 50

Q

FIRES 7 {INCINERATOR/COMPACTOR FIRES}
5. At incinerator operations, locating and clearing the blockage is extremely important.
Choose the incorrect choice concerning these operations. (2.2, 2.3)
(A) If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor.
(B) When you open a chute door and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage
is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself.
(C) A blockage can be pushed down with a hook or a bent reinforcing rod that is about 10 feet
long and bent into L shape.
(D) Never drop anything from above to free the blockage.

Answer

A

D

FIRES 7 {INCINERATOR/COMPACTOR FIRES}
5. At incinerator operations, locating and clearing the blockage is extremely important.
Choose the incorrect choice concerning these operations. (2.2, 2.3)
(A) If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor.
(B) When you open a chute door and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage
is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself.
(C) A blockage can be pushed down with a hook or a bent reinforcing rod that is about 10 feet
long and bent into L shape.
(D) Never drop anything from above to free the blockage.

Question 51

Q

Choose the incorrect tactic implemented at an incinerator fire. (2.3 D, E, 2.4 B,
3.2B, 3.3)
(A) Units were unable to free a blockage, so they burned it off.
(B) After all other options failed, a hoseline was used from the floor above to extinguish the
fire. Units were unable to shut the auxiliary gas burner until after they flooded the shaft.
(C) A blockage between the incinerator and the first floor was cleared by the LCC using a
hook to pull it down from below. After clearing the blockage, the LCC shut off the auxiliary
burner.
(D) When opening a chute door, members stood to the side of the hopper door on the hinged
side.

Answer

A

C

3.3 Members attempting to clear a blockage from the base of the incinerator should shut off
the auxiliary burner before commencing operations. Gas explosions of some
consequence involving the auxiliary gas burners, while infrequent events, have occurred.

Question 52

Q

Compactor rooms and units require several types of fire protection. Which one of the
following is incorrect concerning this protection? (7.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.5)
(A) The compactor room should be fire resistive, protected by a fire door and supplied with an
automatic sprinkler.
(B) A water outlet and a hose are required in the compactor room.
(C) Sprinkler heads shall be provided in compactor units. They shall be arranged so that they
may be readily replaced, unless the heads are electrically operated.
(D) Electrically operated sprinkler heads are open, and are thermostatically controlled to
operate at approximately 135 degrees Fahrenheit.
(E) In refuse chutes in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not more than 3
stories apart for the height of the chute.

Answer

A

E

7.5 In refuse chutes constructed in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not
more than two stories apart for the height of the chute. They shall be recessed and so
arranged that fused sprinkler heads may be readily replaced unless electrically operated.

Question 53

Q

A compactor fire is more serious than an incinerator fire. A compactor fire is a structural
fire while an incinerator fire which does not extend or communicate from the shaft is an
emergency. Choose the correct action to take at a compactor chute fire. (8.2)
(A) Freeing the blockage is the first option. The possibility of extension is greater in the chute
than in the unit.
(B) The officer and forcible entry team must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power
to the unit before operations commence.
(C) The 1st engine company will proceed to the floor where the burning material is located and
stretch a line and extinguish the fire.
(D) After the fire is extinguished, open the compactor unit door before the line is shut down
and sprinkler OS&Y is closed to ensure complete extinguishment.

Answer

A

B

8.2 Chute fire (operations).
A. The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning
material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire. Freeing
the blockage, as you would in an incinerator fire, could result in a more serious
situation in the compactor unit, because it is not designed for burning refuse. The
possibility of extension is greater in the unit than in the chute.

2) After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company
may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door
be sure the hoseline is shut down and sprinkler OS&Y is closed. If the
engine is still using the line or the sprinkler is still operating, glass and
other debris may be driven out of the compactor unit.

Question 54

Q

If there is fire in the compactor shaft or unit, who will operate with the engine company?
(8.2 A, 8.3 B)
(A) The OV FF
(B) The Roof FF
(C) The LCC
(D) One member of the Forcible Entry Team

Question 55

Q

FIRES 8 {MOTOR VEHICLE EMERGENCIES}
10. Immediately upon arrival at an operation on a highway, the officer in command must take
steps to prevent escalation of the incident in the form of a secondary collision. Which is not one
of these steps? (4.7, 5.1, 6.1, 6.5)
(A) Where weather conditions or smoke blowing across the highway limits visibility, the
highway must be closed.
(B) At least one vehicle, other than the pumper being used to extinguish the fire, shall be used
to divert or block oncoming traffic for the duration of the incident or until PD arrives and
assumes traffic control.
(C) When there is a fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade, the apparatus must
be placed to the rear of the incident.
(D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 50 feet behind the first operating unit to create a
safe working area.

Answer

A

C

However, an obvious exception will be a fire in a flammable liquids tank truck or other
hazardous material carrier located on a grade. In such a case, the highway will have to be
closed at a sufficient distance from the incident to prevent civilian vehicles becoming
involved if a container should rupture or develop a leak. Apparatus will have to be
located uphill of the involved vehicles.
6.2 Where placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper
may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall
always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces.

Question 56

Q

Engine 100 is extinguishing a vehicle fire on the Long Island Expressway in Queens, where
the posted speed limit is 50 MPH. Ladder 200 is blocking the right lane to the rear of Engine
The Officer of Ladder 200 notes that the fastest speed expected on the roadway is 70 MPH.
What is the minimum distance to the furthest flare? (8.1 C, Figure 1)
(A) 310 feet from the rear of Engine 100.
(B) 550 feet from the rear of Engine 100.
(C) 310 feet from the rear of Ladder 200
(D) 550 feet from the rear of Ladder 200

Answer

A

D
Fastest Speed Expected Minimum Distance to furthest Flare
mph Feet
20 100
30 150
40 220
50 310
60 420
70 550

Question 57

Q

Gaining safe access to express highway incidents is extremely important. Choose an
incorrect statement concerning access and safety procedures. (9.1, 10)
(A) Never operate across a center divider.
(B) Never take a partial lane.
(C) Never allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene.
(D) Never assume traffic will behave the way you expect.

Question 58

Q

The many hazards at motor vehicle fires require members to follow safety precautions.
Which of the following is not one of them? (11.1, 11.2)
(A) Approach the vehicle from the sides and upwind if possible, and position the line between
the motor vehicle and exposures.
(B) For a fire in an engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate through the
front grill.
(C) Use a coarse spray stream when magnesium parts are on fire. This can be accomplished by
removing the tip and partially opening the nozzle.
(D) At van fires, the engine cover in the passenger compartment should be removed from the
side after the fire is knocked down.

Question 59

Q

Units are encountering hybrid vehicles much more frequently. All of the following are
correct precautions to follow except which one? (11.6)
(A) Never cut any high voltage cables. On most of these vehicles the high voltage cables are
colored Orange, although some cables are Blue.
(B) Make sure the Ready light is not on.
(C) On a hybrid vehicle with a keyless start system, make sure the ignition is off and the key or
key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.
(D) Avoid contact with the high voltage cables unless the high voltage battery in the back of
the vehicle has first been disconnected.
(E) At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down
to prevent re-ignition.

Answer

A

C

• Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is
OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.

Question 60

Q

PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #6, 7 & 45:
SAFETY BULLETIN 6
1. While responding to a report of a structural fire, Engine 333 arrives at an intersection that
they must cross. Which point would the Officer be incorrect in considering? (3.3, 4.5,
Ref. # 1)
(A) Consider each traffic lane in an intersection as a separate and distinct intersection.
(B) The apparatus can only enter a cross traffic lane after the right of way has been yielded by
all traffic crossing the intersection.
(C) After safely crossing the intersection, the apparatus made a wrong turn. The Officer
remembered that U turns are not permitted, so he instructed the ECC to continue in the wrong
direction around the block.
(D) While approaching the alarm location, Engine 333 encountered a school bus stopped on the
opposite side of the road with children being loaded onto the school bus. The Officer instructed
the ECC to stop.

Question 61

Q

SAFETY BULLETIN 7
2. Which of the following would not require notifying the on duty medical officer?
(2.1.3, 2.2.2)
(A) A member had a patient’s blood rub onto his arm while assisting EMS in carrying the
patient to the ambulance. The member does not have any symptoms.
(B) A member was exposed to Poison Ivy while operating at a brush fire. The member does
not have any symptoms.
(C) A member suffered a first degree burn while lighting the stove in the kitchen.
(D) A member twisted his ankle getting off the rig at a gas leak, with no swelling or
discoloration resulting.

Answer

A

B

2.2 Exposures
2.2.1 Biological Exposures - A member exposed to bloodborne, airborne, or other
infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is required
with or without symptoms.
2.2.2 Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous
substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is
required only for symptoms.
Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure,
both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

Question 62

Q

Members were discussing the Injury Reporting System at the kitchen table. Which
statement made is correct? (3.4, 3.5, 3.8)
(A) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty must be
entered in CIRS, but do not require the Medical Officer to be notified.
(B) If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter the FDID
number that is assigned to the unit’s home box.
(C) An injury report is not required if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an
exposure.
(D) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Officer shall enter his
narrative and select “Yes, read as accurate” indicating the member has reviewed and confirmed
the information in the report as accurate.

Answer

A

D

If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the
16 digit space and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets
where the injury/exposure occurred (e.g. address in front of hydrant, address of training
academy, firehouse).
3.5 Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g.,
flu, food poisoning) do not need to be recorded in CIRS; however, the Medical Officer
must be notified.
3.6 Injury/Biological exposures require the Supervisor to notify the Medical Officer on duty
via Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC). The Medical Officer shall contact the
officer to obtain required information

Question 63

Q

Which choice is incorrect concerning the processing of Injury/Exposure reports? (4.1)
(A) All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7
days from the date of injury.
(B) Injury/Exposure reports may not be submitted without the member’s signature and/or
narrative.
(C) If an Injury/Exposure Report is not initiated and submitted within 7 days, the Supervisor
must forward a CIRS-1 report, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.
(D) Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately to ensure appropriate
exposure investigation and follow up.

Question 64

Q

All Officers must be familiar with Safety Bulletin 7. Which choice is not in accordance
with this Bulletin? (4.6, 5.1, 6.1, Add. 2 1.3)
(A) Supervisors may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposures of
members who do not exhibit symptoms if all members had the same exposure and are assigned
to the same unit.
(B) When a member sustains a burn, smoke, or heat exhaustion injury, the Supervisor must
prepare a Burn/Smoke/Heat exhaustion injury report.
(C) Company Commanders only shall access CIRS each tour to provide any required
review/recommendations.
(D) A unit supervisor must prepare a Multiple Member Injury Report if three or more members
suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour.

Answer

A

C

6.1 All levels of command shall access CIRS daily to provide any required
review/recommendations.

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WEEK #5 WEEK OF 2/24/14 PART I – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE {Sec. 7.1 - End} PART II – FFP – ENGINE OPS {CH. 5, 6 & 7} PART III – DUNN CH. 7, 8 & 9 PART IV – TB – EEO, FIRES #7 & 8 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #6, 7 & 45 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards

PART I – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE {Sec. 7.1 - End} PART II – FFP – ENGINE OPS {CH. 5, 6 & 7} PART III – DUNN CH. 7, 8 & 9 PART IV – TB – EEO, FIRES #7 & 8 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #6, 7 & 45

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