WEEK #16 WEEK OF 5/19/14 PART I – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – DISENTANGLEMENT {Sec 7 – End} PART II – TB - ROPE PART III – TB – TOOLS #26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31 & 32 PART IV – BISP MANUAL CH. #5 Ref. #2.2, 2.6 & 3.2 PART V – INSTRUCTOR INSTINCTS INSTRUCTOR: CAPT CHRIS PAOLICELLI

Question 1

PART I – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – DISENTANGLEMENT {Sec 7 –
End}:
1) Ladder 199 is operating at the scene of motor vehicle accident with 2 people pinned in one
of the vehicles. Due to the damage and position of the car, the members are unable to remove the
victims via the doors and they have decided to totally remove the vehicle’s roof. The officer
would be correct to order all but which one of the following tactics? (8.2.1)
A) Cut high on the A post and low on the B, C, and D Posts with the cutters.
B) When cutting the A and D Posts, cut a portion of the windshield and rear window to allow
access to cut the glass.
C) Cut across the bottom of the windshield using the sawzall with the wood cutting blade.
D) After completing the cuts, slowly carry the roof toward the front of the vehicle.

Answer 1

1. A

8.2.1 Cut low on the A Post and high on the B, C and D Posts with cutters (Figures 29 -
30). When cutting the A and D Posts, cut a portion of the windshield and rear
window to allow access to cut the glass, if necessary. Cut all posts on one side
before passing the tool to cut the posts on the opposite side of the vehicle.

Question 2

2) During a recent drill on auto extrication Captain Walter is explaining the proper way of
removing glass from the vehicles. The Captain should be corrected in which statement?
(11.1, 11.2)
A) There are two predominate types of glass used for vehicle windows: laminated safety glass
which is used for windshields, and tempered glass which is found on the sides and rear of a
vehicle.
B) Laminated glass is replacing tempered glass on side and rear windows. This glass is highly
resistant to breaking.
C) As a rule, remove as much glass as possible. If the Hurst tool is going to be used, remove
all glass from the vehicle.
D) Before any glass is removed, victims should be protected from airborne glass debris.
Salvage plastic or yellow exposure blankets are a good choice for protection. Fabric blankets are
not a good choice.

Answer 2

2. D

Question 3

3) One of 3 tools may be used when removing a windshield. Which choice is not listed as
recommended tool? (11.3)
A) Windshield saw
B) Sawzall
C) Axe
D) Halligan

Answer 3

3. D

Question 4

4) Ladder Company 139 pulls up to a car accident and finds one of the cars on it’s side with a
crushed roof. After stabilizing the car, the officer orders the members to cut an opening in the
roof of the car to access the victims. The members should know that the tool of choice for this
operation is which? (12.2)
A) Partner saw
B) Air Chisel
C) Sawzall
D) Wizzer saw

Answer 4

4. B

12.2 An alternate method of gaining access to the passenger compartment would be to cut an
opening in the roof of the vehicle. The air chisel would be the tool of choice (Figures 55
and 56).
12.2.1 Prior to cutting remove the interior headliner.
12.2.2 Make sure victims are not against the interior of the roof in vicinity of cutting
operation.

Question 5

5) How many of the following safety points are correct in regards to vehicle disentanglement
and extrication? (14.2, 14.4, 14.5, 14.8, 14.13, 14.14)
1) An area of safety measuring the fully opened length and width of jaws must be maintained.
Do not place any portion of the body within this zone when opening or closing the jaws.
2) Always treat airbags as if they are live, observe the 5-10-20 rule; at least 5” inches from
driver airbags, 10” from side airbags and 20” from passenger airbags.
3) When possible, cover cut posts or sharp edges of the vehicle with a car mat or other
suitable material to prevent injury.
4) Whether using the spreaders or cutters always remove the top hinge first.
5) Hydraulic hose lines from the tool may be coupled or uncoupled with the power unit
running, provided the bypass valve is in the backward or dump position.
6) If a member gets hydraulic fluid in their eyes, the member should flush their eyes with
clean water for at least 10 minutes and immediately seek medical attention.
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

Answer 5

5-C (1, 3, 4, 5)

14.4 Always treat airbags as if they are live, observe the rule of 5–10–20. The rule of 5-10-20
is at least 5” from side airbags, 10” from driver airbags and 20” from passenger airbags.
14.5 When possible, cover cut post or sharp edges of the vehicle with a car mat or other
suitable material to prevent injury.

14.8 Whether using the spreaders or cutters always remove the top hinge first.

14.13 The hydraulic hose lines may be coupled or uncoupled with the power unit running,
provided the bypass valve is in the backward or dump position. On the low pressure
hose, align the slot with the pin before you connect or disconnect the coupling. These
couplings are provided with seals and rings compatible with hydraulic fluid. Because
there is a ball check, they can be disconnected under pressure, but caution must be
exercised since some fluid may spray out.
14.14 Prolonged and repeated contact with the hydraulic fluid may be irritating to the skin. If a
member gets hydraulic fluid in their eyes, the member should flush their eyes with clean
water for at least 20 minutes and immediately seek medical attention.

Question 6

PART II – TB - ROPE:
1) The life saving rope in use by the FDNY is intended to be used to lower a firefighter or
another person from a roof or upper floor to a place of safety below, to lower a firefighter to
enable him/her to remove another person to a safe area, or to allow a trapped firefighter in an
untenable position to remove themselves to safety by means of a single slide. Which
characteristic about the life saving rope is stated incorrectly?
A) It is made of a continuous filament of Nylon. The length of the life saving rope is 150’.
B) Due to natural shrinkage, some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet.
C) The life saving rope is 5/16” in diameter and has a working load of 600 pounds.
D) Nylon rope when exposed to heat over 300 degrees F will progressively lose strength, and
will melt at 482 degrees F.

Answer 6

1. C

1.1 The life saving rope is 9/16” in diameter. It is made of a continuous filament of
Nylon 707 with a length of 150’, weight of 14½ pounds, and a working load of
600 pounds.

Question 7

2) The Life Saving Rope should be placed out of service for how many of the following
reasons? (4.2-4.14)
1) The rope has been subjected to the weight of one person
2) The rope has become frozen
3) The rope has become dirty
4) A rust stain is found on the rope
5) The rope comes in contact with acid fumes
6) A kink is found in the rope
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 7

2. A (2, 5)

Question 8

3) Ladder 179 is drilling with their Life Saving Rope when the officer feels the rope should be
placed out of service because he doubts the serviceability of the rope. The officer would be
correct to take all but which one of the following actions? (4.18, 5.1, 5.2, 5.3)
A) He notified Research and Development (R&D) by phone and fax to have the rope
immediately replaced.
B) He made an entry in the Company Journal, Office Record Journal and on the RP-100 (Rope
Card)
C) He completed an RT-2 which included the unit number, date and reason the rope was
placed out of service.
D) He completed an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forwarded it
trough the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.

Answer 8

3. A

5.1 Whenever the Life Saving Rope is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall notify
the administrative division by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced.

Question 9

4) FF Jones is repacking the life saving rope on a Tuesday 9x6 tour. She would be correct to
take which action? (Data Sheet 1 (3.3))
A) Place the hook of the life saving rope in the right front corner of the carrying case and
make counterclockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case.
B) Place the hook of the life saving rope in the left front corner of the carrying case and make
counterclockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case.
C) Place the hook of the life saving rope in the right front corner of the carrying case and
make clockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case.
D) Place the hook of the life saving rope in the left front corner of the carrying case and make
clockwise circles one half the width of the bottom of the case.

Answer 9

4. B

Question 10

5) Captain Simpson is discussing the maintenance of the Personal Harness with the members
of his ladder company. In which statement should the Captain be corrected? (Rope 3
4.1, 4.5, 4.7, 6.1)
A) The harness should be inspected at the start of each tour and after each use.
B) If persistent or unknown stains are discovered, place the harness out of service.
C) Whenever a personal harness is subjected to an impact load it shall be placed out of service.
A member free falling any distance is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant placing the
personal harness out of service.
D) When a Personal Harness is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall have the harness
replaced by immediate telephone notification to the administrative Division.

Answer 10

5. C
   4.7 Whenever a personal harness is subjected to an impact load it shall be placed out of
   service. A member free falling three feet or more is considered a sufficient impact load
   to warrant placing the personal harness out of service

Question 11

6) Ladder Company 222 has just completed their Semiannual Safety Equipment Inspection in
quarters. During the inspection it was determined that the officer and can firefighter’s Personal
Harnesses had to be placed out of service due to abnormalities found. After following the proper
procedures for placing the harnesses out of service, and while awaiting the arrival of replacement
harnesses, the company receives a telephone alarm reporting a fire in a commercial building. The
officer would be correct to notify the dispatcher that the company? (Rope 3 6.10)
A) Will not respond. They are out of service awaiting the replacement harnesses.
B) “Is responding with 4 firefighters”
C) “Is responding understaffed”
D) “Is responding 10-14”

Answer 11

6. A

Question 12

7) The search rope is to be used as a supervisory tool to maintain search team integrity under
difficult circumstances. It is also designed to provide members with finding a means of egress
under heat and smoke conditions. The rope is ______ feet long with a snap hook at __________.
(Rope 6 (2.1, 5.8))
A) 200/ each end
B) 200/ one end
C) 250/ each end
D) 250/ one end

Answer 12

7. A

Question 13

8) Nylon search ropes shrink over time due to many reasons, with moisture and temperature
being the most common. Due to this shrinkage and the installation of distance and directional
knots, nylon search ropes may be short by _______ feet or more. (2.3)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

Answer 13

8. D

Note: Nylon search ropes shrink over time due to many reasons, with moisture and
temperature being the most common. Due to this shrinkage and the installation of
distance and directional knots, nylon search ropes may be short by 25 feet or more.

Question 14

9) The search rope contains a series of knots that are used to identify direction to and distance
from the tie off point. While operating with a search rope, an officer that comes across seven
knots should know that this indicates a distance of how many feet on the rope? (3.3)
A) 125
B) 150
C) 175
D) 200

Answer 14

9. C

Question 15

10) Spacing between the distance knots is approximately how many inches? A single
directional knot is located how many inches before the distance knots when traveling in the
direction of Deployment? (3.4)
A) 8/ 18
B) 6/ 18
C) 8/ 12
D) 6/ 12

Answer 15

10. B

Question 16

11) A ladder company is operating at fire in a large warehouse when the officer decides to
deploy a search rope to conduct a search. Which action taken by the officer should be corrected?
(5.3, 5.4, 5.6, 8.2)
A) The rope was tied off to a lamp post, outside of the building in a clear area.
B) The officer carried the rope in one of his hands.
C) The rope was kept taut, two feet above the floor.
D) When being relieved by another company, the officer instructed his members to exit while
maintaining contact with the rope with their left hands.

Answer 16

11. D

Question 17

12) How many of the following points made about utility ropes are correct? (Rope 7)
1) Utility rope is a condemned life saving rope, cut into 50 foot lengths
2) It shall never be used for life saving purposes
3) It shall never be used for training in single slide or lowering operations
4) Ladders and Squads shall carry a minimum of 3 lengths
5) Engines shall carry a minimum of 2 lengths
6) When placed out of service, the Company Commander shall dispose of the rope
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

Answer 17

12. D

Question 18

PART III – TB – TOOLS #26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31 & 32:
Tools 26
1) Your new probie has just finished reading about the use and care of the Hydra Ram and has
entered the following statements into his notebook. Which statement made should you as the
officer on duty correct? (2.3, 3.3, 4.3, 5.1)
A) The Hydra Ram may be used in any position and can be used under water
B) The ram may be lightly struck to gain a purchase
C) The ram has a maximum opening of 4 inches. If the 4 inches is not enough, retract the
piston and place an axe head on the door to provide additional opening distance.
D) The ram requires no replenishment of fluids.

Answer 18

1. B

Question 19

Tools 27
2) Captain Johnson is operating as the 1st ladder officer at fire on the 1st floor of a 2 story
factory. Smoke is banked down to the floor and the sprinkler systems have activated. Captain
Johnson is using his thermal imaging camera to try to locate the fire. He would be correct to
know that the camera will not see through all but which one of the following materials?
(4.1, 4.3)
A) Water
B) Plastic
C) Clear glass
D) Wood

Answer 19

2. D

4.1 Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror to IR.
4.2 Shinny surfaces will reflect IR creating a mirror effect. The actual source of the image
may be opposite the reflected surface. Example - Glass, waxed floors, tiled walls, some
painted or polished surfaces or water on the floor.
4.3 Thermal imaging will not see through water.
4.4 Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees.
(Refer to TB Tools 27, Data Sheets)

Question 20

3) While critiquing a recent 1st due fire, you are explaining some of the features of the thermal
imaging camera to your members. Which statement made was correct? (4.5, 4.8, 4.9, 4.4)
A) The camera has a focal point of approximately 5 feet from the camera lens.
B) Thermal imaging cameras are rated as intrinsically safe.
C) Radio transmissions may cause the camera to malfunction.
D) The camera has an average field of view of approximately 15 degrees.

Answer 20

3. C

4.4 Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees.
(Refer to TB Tools 27, Data Sheets)
4.5 Focal point of a TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens. Operators viewing
objects within 3 feet are too close. As a result objects within 3 feet may be blurry, out of
focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering
or advancing.

4.8 Thermal imaging cameras are not rated as intrinsically safe.
4.9 RFI - Radio transmissions may cause the TIC to malfunction.

Question 21

4) While operating with an Evolution 5200 thermal imaging camera you notice that the
“Battery Status” LED light is solid red. Knowing everything there is to know about this camera,
you would be correct to know that this light indicates which choice below? (Data
Sheet 3 6.3)
A) The camera has marginal battery capacity
B) The camera has 15 minutes of battery life remaining
C) The camera has 30 minutes of battery life remaining
D) Camera shutdown is imminent

Answer 21

4. B

Question 22

Tools 28
5) All Ladders, Rescues and Squads have been issued cordless rebar cutters which can be used
as another option to remove window and door gates. Which choice shows proper knowledge in
the use of this tool? (2, 3.3, 3.6, 5.2)
A) It can be used to cut wrought iron fences or case hardened steel rods up to 5/8” in diameter.
B) Position the head of the tool at a right angle to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting
the screw provided.
C) To operate the tool, depress the trigger until the moveable blade cuts through the rod, then
release the trigger.
D) The cutter is safe alternative to use is explosive atmospheres.

Answer 22

5. B

no case hardened

Question 23

6) The cordless rebar cutter in use by the FDNY is the Lobster Tool. Which of the following
statements are correct in regards to this tool? (More than 1 correct) (Data Sheet 1)
A) This tool will not work well when the temperature is below 32 degrees F.
B) The tool is equipped with a swivel head that has a 180-degree turning angle.
C) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 20 cuts
D) When the battery is low, the pilot lamp will flash to alert the operator that the remaining
battery capacity is less than 20 percent.
E) Units should change the hydraulic oil on January 1st and July 1st of every year.
F) The battery charger is designed to counteract memory effects in the battery pack. There is
no need to fully discharge the battery prior to routine charging.

Answer 23

6-A, B, D, E, F

3.8 A fully charged battery will last for approximately 40 cuts

Question 24

Tools 29
7) Ladder 97 responded to a report of an odor of gas in a private dwelling. The officer and
inside team enter the house and utilize the TIFF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector to locate the
source of the odor. The officer would be correct to take all but which one of the following
actions?
A) He turned the sensitivity knob fully counter clockwise.
B) Once inside the house where the odor could be detected, he slid the power switch to the on
position.
C) The sensitivity control was adjusted until a rapid ticking was heard (Hi Sensitivity)
D) When the tick rate increased to a siren level, he knew the point of the leak was found.

Answer 24

7. B

• In a non-contaminated atmosphere, slide the power switch to the on position.
The power light should be lit. No sound will be heard.

Question 25

Tools 30
8) During a night tour the Battalion Chief stopped by your quarters for company drill. The
Chief states he is not familiar with the glow sticks carried on all units. He then asks your junior
member to tell him about the sticks. In how many statements was your member correct?
1) When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 10 hours of illumination.
2) Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 12 glow sticks on
their apparatus.
3) They are waterproof, and do not require batteries.
4) The sticks generate no heat or noise and are disposable.
5) They present no danger of sparking. They are safe to use in explosive environments.
6) Heat and humidity will shorten the life span of the glow stick.
7) They are activated by bending the tube. They should then be shaken until it glows evenly.
A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4

Answer 25

8-C (3, 4, 5, 6, 7)

3.1 Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on
their apparatus.

1. DESCRIPTION
   A glow stick is a single-use translucent plastic tube containing isolated substances which
   when combined produce light through a chemical reaction-induced chemiluminescence.
   When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 12 hours of illumination.

Question 26

Tools 31
9) Captain David is working a day tour in Engine 39 and has decided to drill on the Sound
Powered Telephones (SPT) carried by High Rise Unit 2. Captain David made the following
points about this equipment but made a mistake in which choice? (2.2,2.4,3.4)
A) To gain access to the SPT connectors in the transit System use the subway emergency key.
B) The SPT wire reel consists of a 400 foot-long wire wound around the reel.
C) Headset and handsets are 2 components of the SPT. Headsets have less interference and
background noise than handsets, making them the preferable choice for operations throughout
the transit system.
D) SPTs will not ring or buzz when communications are initiated. A member monitoring a
SPT must constantly listen to the headset/handset in case another member is transmitting a
message.

Answer 26

9. A

Question 27

10) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “Units shall inspect the subway
dry standpipe systems and test the sound-powered telephones during the semi-annual
subway inspection period.” (AUC 207 Add 10 5.1)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 27

10. A

Question 28

Tools 32
11) Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) are being used more widely throughout the city to assist
operations at fires in high rise multiple dwellings. While these fans can be very beneficial to our
operating forces, many safety issues must be adhered to when using the fans. Which safety point
made below is incorrect? (3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.5)
A) Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated until authorized by the Incident Commander
only.
B) The fan is a highly mobile unit but must never be transported while in operation.
C) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating
fan in order to limit and control the CO inside the structure.
D) If a fan must be refueled inside a structure, it must be shut down and allowed to cool prior
to adding fuel.

Answer 28

11. D

3.5 Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure. The possibility of the gasoline coming in
contact with a hot exhaust manifold could result in a fire. If the fan needs to be refueled
at an extended operation, the fan shall be shut down and moved to an outside area remote
from any foot traffic to be refueled. This remote area is necessary to assure safety as well
as to not contaminate the fire area with what could be detected as an accelerant.

Question 29

12) When should positive pressure fans be inspected?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Semi-annually

Answer 29

12. A
13. INSPECTION AND MAINTENANCE
    4.1 Fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour. Fans must be removed from the
    apparatus and moved to a safe area to test the fans. Prior to starting the fan, the operator
    shall check fuel and oil levels, don hearing and eye protection, and ensure that the area is
    clear of any loose debris that may become a hazard once the fan is operating.
    4.2 At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. A visual
    inspection of the fan belt and tightness check should be conducted prior to starting the
    fan.

Question 30

PART IV – BISP MANUAL CH. #5 Ref. #2.2, 2.6 & 3.2:
1) At 0300 hours while working a 6x9 tour in Ladder Company 105, an employee from the
Barclays Center comes to the firehouse and states that the emergency exits in the stadium are
blocked by debris. In this instance you would be most correct to take which action?
A) Promptly investigate the complaint, and advise the administrative Battalion and Division
Chiefs of your findings.
B) Immediately telephone the administrative Battalion Chief.
C) Immediately telephone the administrative Deputy Chief.
D) Promptly investigate the complaint and forward a written report to the administrative
Deputy Chief.

Answer 30

1. B

Question 31

2) Complaints received by units must be investigated promptly and an interim or final report
faxed within how many hours? (1.1)
A) 3
B) 12
C) 24
D) 72

Answer 31

2. C

Question 32

3) Engine Company 300 receives a complaint from Fire Prevention for a report of a propane
BBQ in a rear yard that is too close to the building. The members attempt to investigate the
complaint but are unable to gain access to the building. The officer should know that if the
inspection cannot be completed, a telephone notification shall be made to the Field Public
Operation Support Unit (FPOSU) after _______ hours. (2.3)
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96

Answer 32

3. C

Question 33

Chapter 5 Ref #2.6
4) During a busy day tour, your company responded to the following emergencies. You would
expect that the Chief on scene would request an immediate response from the Department of
Buildings in all but which incident? (1.2)
A) An amusement ride incident with injuries
B) A defective boiler incident with 1 victim suffering CO poisoning
C) An escalator incident at the mall, resulting in minor injuries to 2 people
D) An elevator that free falls 3 stories in a NYC Housing Authority building

Answer 33

4. D

Note: The NYCHA shall be notified for incidents occurring in NYCHA buildings and facilities.
The Department of Buildings does not require notification for incidents occurring in NYCHA
buildings and facilities.

Question 34

Chapter 5 Ref# 3.2
5) One Engine and one Ladder Company are dispatched to a report of an alarm ringing in an
apartment building. Upon investigation, they determine the alarm is from a smoke detector
which was set off by a candle. While in the apartment you notice that the carbon monoxide
detector has been disabled by the occupant. The occupant states she unplugged the detector while
cooking. You would be correct to take which enforcement action? (8.1)
A) Issue an NOV
B) Issue an immediate summons
C) Forward an A-8B
D) No enforcement action is necessary

Answer 34

5. B

Question 35

PART V – INSTRUCTOR INSTINCTS:
1) Lt. Smith is working in Engine 55 on a 9x6 tour when they receive the following response
ticket:
FILL OUT 10-76
E033 L018F BC01 BC03P DC01 E055L E015C
BOX 0045- 40 Wall St
Nassau St William St
C= OFFICE BUILDING 14TH FLOOR
INCIDENT# 123
4/30/14 100812
Based on the information given, Lt. Smith would be correct to take all but which one of the
following actions at this fire? (Communications Ch.2, ICS Ch.2 Add.4)
A) Operate on the Tactical Channel on the Handie-Talkie
B) Take a position at the Fire Command Station
C) Relieve the OV firefighters from the 1st alarm units operating the elevators
D) Ascertain the identity and designation of units that have responded or are responding to the
incident from the MDT printout

Answer 35

1. B

Question 36

2) Engine 287 responds on a CFR-D run for a report of an unconscious person. Upon arrival
they find a man unconscious inside his bathroom. The bathroom is sealed off with plastic and the
victim can be seen wearing gloves and eye goggles. There is also a fish like odor coming from
the room. The officer would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?
(AUC 353 4.1)
A) Transmit a 10-80 Code 2
B) Order a hose line with a fog nozzle stretched. This line will be used primarily for
decontamination.
C) Ventilate the bathroom prior to entering.
D) Remove the patients clothing and flush him with copious amounts of water.

Answer 36

2. A

Question 37

3) While working a night tour, you log on to Citytime to give your members their marks for
the night. After logging on to your company’s page, you notice one of the Lieutenants in your
company has given themselves numerous false overtime marks. You should know that you are
obligated to notify who of this discovery? (AUC 268A 2.1.8)
A) Admin Battalion Chief
B) Inspector general
C) BITS by telephone
D) BITS by written notification

Answer 37

3. B

Question 38

4) Lt. O’Connor is operating in a smoke filled room at an All-hands fire in an Old Law
Tenement when he notices his Heads-Up Display on his SCBA begins flashing a yellow light. Lt
O’Connor would be correct to know that this indicates which choice? (TB SCBA 3.8.9 B)
A) The SCBA cylinder is ¾ full and he may continue to operate
B) The SCBA is ½ full and he may continue operating
C) The SCBA is ¼ full and he must leave the hazardous area immediately
D) The Heads-Up Display batteries are low.

Answer 38

4. B

Question 39

5) During a busy day tour your engine company arrived as the first unit on scene at many
operations. During the day you transmitted the following signals. Which signal was given in
error? (AUC 353, Haz-Mat 14, Communications Chapter 8, AUC 271)
A) At the scene of a chemical suicide incident you had one patient exposed to an unknown
substance. You transmitted a 10-80 Code 1.
B) At the scene of a confirmed activation of a Bio-Detection System at a Postal Facility you
transmitted a 10-80 Code 3.
C) At the scene of a reported car fire you find a car with a broken radiator hose. There is no
fire or accident. You transmitted a 10-36 Code 2.
D) At the scene of possible EDP you transmitted a 10-47

Answer 39

5. C

New 10-80 codes in effect

Question 40

6) Lt. Johnson is working in a Ladder Company on a 9x6 tour. At 1100 hrs a member of his
company must take Emergency Leave. Lt. Johnson is informed by the Division that there is no
member available citywide to detail to the company. Lt. Johnson took the following actions
during the tour. In which should he have been corrected? (AUC 287 8.2)
A) He decided the company will ride without a roof firefighter.
B) After receiving an alarm for a structural fire, he notified the dispatcher that his company is
“responding understaffed”
C) When he had difficulty contacting the dispatcher due to radio traffic, he transmitted an
“Urgent” message to ensure the dispatcher was informed that they were not fully staffed.
D) He notified the IC and units operating of the unstaffed position.

Answer 40

6. B

8.2.2 A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher
“We are responding with four firefighters”. If the Officer is having difficulty
getting this message to the dispatcher due to heavy radio traffic, the Officer shall
transmit an “Urgent” to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard. No other
terminology shall be used to describe staffing levels over the Department radio.

Question 41

7) While operating at the scene of a collapsed multiple dwelling you come across a void
which has been marked with the following symbol:

(cirlce with a v with a horizontal line through it)

You should know that this symbol indicates which choice? (Collapse Addendum 2 5.4)
A) A possible victim was found in this void
B) A victim was confirmed in this void and has been removed
C) A victim was confirmed in this void and is deceased, but has not been removed
D) A victim was confirmed in this void and is deceased and has been removed

Answer 41

7. C

Question 42

8) During a recent drill on Under River Rail Operations you were correct to tell your members
that which one of the following features can be used to pinpoint the location of an incident in an
under river tube? (Under River Rail 2.7.1)
A) The standpipe outlets, which are located every 200 feet throughout the tubes.
B) The standpipe section valves, which are located every 200 feet throughout the tubes.
C) The standpipe outlets, which are located every 600 feet throughout the tubes.
D) The standpipe section valves, which are located every 600 feet throughout the tubes.

Answer 42

8. A

Question 43

9) It is 0300 hrs when you, the officer of Engine 400 receives a phone call from FF Riker, a
member of Engine 400 who is currently on medical leave. He states he has just been arrested for
DWI. You would be correct to take which action? (AUC 268A (3.1.3), Regulations
Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
A) Notify BITS immediately by telephone and instruct FF Riker that he must report to the
firehouse the next day to fill out an Arrest of Member Report (Form BP-66).
B) Notify BITS immediately by telephone and instruct FF Riker that he must fill out an Arrest
of Member Report on his next return date to BHS.
C) Notify BITS immediately by telephone and instruct FF Riker that he must fill out an Arrest
of Member Report on his first day back to work after returning to full duty.
D) Notify BITS by mail and instruct FF Riker that he must fill out an Arrest of Member
Report on his first day back to work after returning to full duty

Answer 43

9. B

Question 44

10) Ladder Company 99 is at the local gas station to purchase gasoline with their gas card for
their tools, saws, etc. When asked for the odometer reading at the gas pump what should the
officer enter? (Requisitions and Payroll Chapter 1 1.7.4)
A) 00000
B) 99999
C) 12345
D) 98765

Answer 44

10. B

Question 45

11) While working in a ladder company you respond as extra truck on a 2nd alarm in large 1
story taxpayer. After you arrive the IC orders your company to the roof and designates you as the
roof sector supervisor. Once on the roof you determine that a trench cut would be beneficial. You
would be correct to take all of the following actions except for which one?
A) Have the members start the trench then immediately notify the IC
B) Order the members to make the trench 4 feet wide
C) Ensure the trench is cut from wall to wall. Do not depend on scuttles or skylights to stop
the fire.
D) Order the trench cut in the direction of the shorter side of the building.

Answer 45

11. C

Question 46

12) Which statement about the JFK AIRTRAIN SYSTEM made at a multi-unit drill is
incorrect? (AUC 207 Addendum 12 7,8,9,6)
A) The Airtrain is powered by a 3rd rail power system. The location of the 3rd rail within the
guideway varies.
B) The 1st consideration upon arrival is to determine the best access to the emergency location.
C) The elevated guideway above the Van Wyck Expressway has no guiderails on the parapet
wall. This indicates a center walkway and that the 3rd rail will be found immediately inside the
parapet wall.
D) Blue Light Power Station Power Removal Boxes are located every 800 feet along the
guideway.

Answer 46

12. B

Question 47

13) Ladder Company 321 is operating at a 6 story H-Type building with a gas leak coming
from a defective stove. They are unable to shut the stove at the appliance valve and the shut off
on the meter valve is not accessible. Their next choice to try to shut this leak should be to shut
which one of the following? (Training Bulletin Emergencies 2 7)
A) An interior gas riser
B) The Head of Service Valve
C) An exterior Gas Riser Valve
D) The Curb Valve

Answer 47

13. A

 When possible, avoid shutting the master meter. It is preferable to shut the gas
supply at the appliance valve or at an interior gas riser valve as close to the
leak as possible.

Question 48

14) Engine 200 is on the scene of a CFR-D run with a male who was struck by a car. The
patient is in critical condition and EMS is not yet on scene. After the company completes their
initial assessment, the officer in charge should contact the fire dispatcher to relay to EMS a
report including all but which one the following? (CFR-D Chapter 2 (4.15)
A) The Mechanism of injury
B) The patient’s CUPS Status
C) The patient’s age
D) The patient’s pulse and respiratory rate

Answer 48

14. A

4.15 If patient care is initiated prior to the arrival of EMS, all procedures taught within the
CFR-D curriculum regarding scene control, safety, obtaining patient consent, and
beginning care are to be followed carefully by the Company. If EMS has not arrived by
the completion of the initial assessment, the Officer in Charge shall contact the fire
dispatcher to relay to EMS a report on the patient’s CUPS status, age, chief complaint,
pulse, respiratory rate and if CPR has been initiated. (See section 3.11 – 3.14)

Question 49

15) A 3rd alarm fire is burning in a 50x100 1 story taxpayer. CIDS information indicates that
the roof is supported by lightweight open web steel joists. At this fire what type of roof
ventilation is permitted? (Taxpayers 5.5.26 E and F)
A) None. Members should not be committed to roof operations
B) Vent skylights and scuttles. The roof may only be cut with permission from the IC
C) Vent skylights and scuttles. The roof may only be cut with permission from the IC or roof
sector supervisor.
D) Vent skylights and scuttles. The roof must not be cut.

Answer 49

15. D