WEEK #11 WEEK OF 4/07/14 FIRE TECH PART I – TB – FOAM ADD #1 & FOAM EVOLUTIONS #1 - 3 PART II – FFP – MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS (MMID)PART III – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE OPERATIONS PART IV – VO’s, NOV’s & CONFISCATIONS INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Flashcards
PART I – TB – FOAM ADD #1 & FOAM EVOLUTIONS #1 - 3 PART II – FFP – MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS (MMID)PART III – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE OPERATIONS PART IV – VO’s, NOV’s & CONFISCATIONS
PART I – TB – FOAM ADD #1 & FOAM EVOLUTIONS #1 - 3:
1. While supervising the proby recharging the AFFF foam can Lieutenant Magaden should
correct which step below? (Foam Add 1)
A. Use a 2 ½ gallon extinguisher reserved for this purpose. Invert the extinguisher and
squeeze the lever to release residual air pressure.
B. Slowly add 10 ounces of 3% AFFF concentrate. Do not mix one type of concentrate with
another.
C. Slowly add more water to reach the 2 ½ gallon mark inside the extinguisher. Replace the
cap and charge with the proper air pressure (100 psi).
D. An extinguisher not used within 6 months after charging must be emptied, refilled, and
recharged.
- D
NOTE: If an extinguisher is not fully expended, the remaining solution can be held in reserve in
case of re-ignition. Extinguishers that are not fully expended must be re-charged upon
return to quarters. An extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be
emptied, refilled and recharged.
- The AFFF foam can has certain uses and limitations that must be considered to ensure the
safety of the members. Which choice is not in accordance with FDNY procedures?
(Foam Add 1)
A. AFFF is superior foam that needs less time and less solution for extinguishment than
fluoroprotein foam. AFFF floats on flammable liquids.
B. AFFF can be used on class B fires such as pit fires, car fires, and flowing flammable liquid
fires; grease fire.
C. It is necessary to play AFFF against a backboard or the side of the tank to form a film on
the oil surface. It can also be applied gently to the surface of the oil by placing a finger over the
nozzle.
D. The stream should not be driven directly through the surface due to the possibility of
causing a steam explosion or splashing hot liquid back on the operator.
- C
2.1 Class B fires.
1) Pit fire.
2) Flowing flammable liquid fire; grease fire.
3) Car fire.
2.2 Special Class A fires.
1) Tire fire.
2) Small rubbish fire.
2.3 It is not necessary to play AFFF against a backboard or the side of the tank to form a film
on the oil surface; it can be applied gently on the surface of the oil by placing a finger
over the nozzle. The stream should not be driven directly through the surface due to the
possibility of causing a steam explosion or splashing hot oil back on the operator.
2.4 Since the reach is 35 to 40 feet, it may be safer and also more effective to begin
discharging AFFF from a distance.
- When stretching a foam hand line and determining the most advantageous location for the
eductor, consider the following: only _____ hose can be stretched between the eductor and the
foam nozzle, with a maximum of _____ lengths, the eductor must be placed at least _____
length(s) from the pumper, and the eductor must be supplied with ______ hose.
(Foam Evol 1)
A. 1 ¾” / 4 / 1 / 2 ½”
B. 1 ¾” / 6 / 2 / 1 ¾”
C. 2 ½” / 4 / 1 / 2 ½”
D. 2 ½” / 6 / 2 / 1 ¾”
- A
- During multi-unit drill members are stretching a foam hand line. Which point listed below
is incorrect regarding the operation of a foam hand line? (Foam Evol 1)
A. The officer gives the command to start water and the foam nozzle will be opened fully and
directed away from the fire.
B. The ECC will start water and provide 200 psi at the eductor. Make sure there are no kinks
in the supply line.
C. When foam is flowing at the nozzle, close the nozzle and then direct the nozzle at the fire
and open the nozzle. Opening and closing the nozzle helps conserve foam.
D. To reduce back pressure at the eductor, the nozzle should be operated at or below the level
of the eductor. In order for the eductor to function properly the nozzle should be fully opened
when in use.
- C
2.4 The officer gives the command to start water. The foam nozzle will be
opened fully and directed away from the fire. The ECC will start water and provide
200 psi at the eductor. The member at the eductor places pickup tube into the container.
When foam is flowing at the nozzle, the nozzle is directed at the fire. Avoid opening and
closing the nozzle. This interrupts the educting operations and causes an intermittent
flow of foam.
- When using the foam carrier to deliver finished firefighting foam with a hand line and the
deck gun the 1000 gallon booster tank of fluoroprotein foam concentrate will only last a certain
amount of time. If the deck gun is using 310 gallons per minute of foam solution and the hand
line is using 95 gallons per minute of foam solution you should expect the 1000 gallons of foam
concentrate to last approximately how many minutes? (Foam Evol 2)
A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 80 minutes
D. 90 minutes
- C
2.12 For example, a 310 GPM high capacity foam nozzle and a 95 GPM foam nozzle could
supply 405 GPM of solution. Educting at 3% solution, there will be enough concentrate
in the 1000-gallon booster tank for approximately 80 minutes.
- When arriving at an operation the foam carrier must proceed to a point as close to the
operation as possible. When the foam carrier arrives it will stop at the hydrant where the supply
pumper is located and remove hoseline from the foam carrier. This hoseline should be what size
and which end of the hose line should be stretched? (Foam Evol 2)
A. 2 ½” / Male End
B. 3 ½” / Female End
C. 3 ½” / Male End
D. 2 ½’ / Female End
- B
2.2 Foam Carrier stops at supply pumper located at the hydrant. Members pull sufficient 3½”
hose to attach to supply pumper. Use the hose load ending with the female coupling.
- During a study group concerning the use of the ground mounted foam cannon several
points were made regarding its use. Since this tool is only carried by certain units many
firefighters are unfamiliar with its operation at no fault of their own. Which is the only correct
point listed below? (Foam Evol 3)
A. Stretch the largest available hose to the foam cannon. Under no condition should the hose
supplying the foam cannon be less than 3 ½”.
B. Secure the foam cannon with a utility rope to a substantial object. Stretch 1 ¾” hose from
the foam carrier to the portable reservoir and secure this hose to the top of the reservoir.
C. The foam carrier officer (in command of foam operations) shall order the delivery of foam
concentrate to the portable reservoir once assured that the cannon and the reservoir are in a
suitable position.
D. The foam carrier can be substituted for and is preferred to the foam tender. The foam
carrier is more maneuverable as compared to the foam tender which carries 2000 gallons of foam
concentrate.
- B
2.3 Stretch largest available hose to the cannon. Under no condition should hose less than
2½” be used to supply the Foam Cannon.
2.4 Secure the Foam Cannon with a utility rope to a substantial object.
2.5 Stretch 1¾” hose from the Foam Carrier to the Portable Reservoir. Secure the hose to the
top of the reservoir.
2.6 The Chief Officer in Command shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the
Portable Reservoir once assured that the Cannon and the Reservoir are in a suitable
position. The Chief Officer in Command of the fire will order water started.
2.7 The foam concentrate and water supply lines for the Foam Cannon can be stretched before
the Foam Carrier arrives. This will save time in placing this evolution into operation.
2.8 The foam concentrate should be delivered at a pressure that will permit a free flow
without causing aeration or frothing of the foam. The pressure will depend on the terrain
and length of the stretch.
2.9 The Cannon on an eductor setting of 3 will use 35 gallons of concentrate to produce
970 gallons of solution per minute. A 1000-gallon booster tank will last about 30
minutes educting at an approximate 3% solution.
2.10 The Cannon has a 10-foot pick up hose; therefore position it in close proximity to the
Portable Reservoir.
2.11 The Portable Reservoir can be filled with 5-gallon cans.
2.12 The Foam Tender can be substituted for and is preferred to the Foam Carrier. The tender
has three tanks of 1000 gallons each and will last much longer than the 1000-gallon
booster tank of the carriers. Also, other foam carriers can supply the Foam Tender if the
need arises.
2.13 The Foam Cannon should be supplied by a pumper or Satellite manifold that isn’t
supplying any other appliance. The Foam Cannon is capable of supplying 1000 GPM of
finished firefighting foam if adequately supplied.
- True or False? The portable reservoir used with the ground mounted foam cannon
can be filled with 5 gallon cans of foam concentrate. (Foam Evol 3)
___________
- T
- True or False? The foam cannon should be supplied by a pumper or satellite manifold
that is not supplying any other appliance.
- True or False? The foam cannon should be supplied by a pumper or satellite manifold
- T
PART II – FFP – MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS (MMID)
1. If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life,
appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. Which of the
following are considered known life hazards? (More than one correct) MMID CH 1,
1.4
A. A victim can be seen by the rescuer.
B. A member has information from the dispatcher of people trapped on the 2nd floor.
C. A victim can be heard by the rescuer.
D. A neighbor at the scene tells a member that a person is trapped on the 1st floor.
- All
- E-16 and L-7 arrive 1st due at a fire in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor of a 5 story old law
tenement. Lt. Welpez is working in E-16 and Capt. Leftus is working in L-7. Upon entering the
building members of L-7 are told by the occupant of apartment 3A that his wife is trapped inside
the apartment. Capt. Leftus then relays this information to his roof, OV, and LCC. The only
units on the scene are E-16 and L-7, all the other units and the battalion are stuck in traffic.
Upon arrival on the 3rd floor the inside team of L-7 is unable to enter the apartment due to a
heavy fire condition blowing into the public hallway. The OV from L-7 makes his way to the
rear, goes up the fire escape, and notifies Capt. Leftus he is entering the fire apartment alone to
address a known life hazard. Shortly after entering the bedroom from the fire escape the OV
from L-7 emerges onto the fire escape with the victim. At this time E-16 and L-7 are the only
units on the scene. After the fire is under control Capt. Leftus, Lt. Welpez, BC Doody, and DC
Giashield are discussing the operations at this job. Since individual action was taken by the OV
from L-7 to address a known life hazard a report must be forwarded detailing full particulars.
Who is responsible for this report and who is the report forwarded to? MMID CH1, 1.4
A. Capt. Leftus / Chief of Operations
B. Lt. Welpez / Chief of Department
C. BC Doody / Chief of Operations
D. DC Giashield / Chief of Department
- A
- E-75, E-42, E-43, L-33, L-59 are operating at a 10-75 for a fire on the 1st floor of a 2 story
private dwelling. (The units listed all arrived in the order they are listed). All the Engines on the
scene are 4 firefighter Engines. The FAST unit is not yet on the scene. In this situation the
safety team will be composed of? MMID CH 1, 2.1
A. The control FF from E-75 and the LCC from L-33.
B. The control and backup firefighters from E-42.
C. The LCC and OV from L-33.
D. The LCC and an outside firefighter designated by the officer of L-59.
- B
- While out on BISP E-238 gets an ERS box two blocks away from where they are doing BI.
E-238 is staffed with 4 firefighters. E-238 arrives in seconds and finds a fire on the 2nd floor of a
4 story brownstone type rowframe. The fire is blowing out the windows on the parlor floor with
heavy smoke pushing from the entrance to the building on the parlor floor. The officer would be
correct in which choice below? MMID CH1, 2.1
A. Have the members stretch a line to the entrance on the parlor floor and advance in only a
few feet.
B. Have 2 members compose the safety team while he (the officer) and 1 member enter the
fire are to conduct a search without hose line advancement.
C. Have 2 members enter the fire area for a search without hose line advancement while he
(the officer) and 1 member compose the safety team.
- B
- E-99 has just arrived at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story multiple dwelling. There have
not been any reports of a known life hazard at his box. E-99 is understaffed and riding with the
Officer, ECC, and the Nozzle and Control Firefighters. The Officer would be correct in which
action listed below? MMID CH1, 2.1
A. The Officer and the Nozzle firefighter will enter the IDLH for a search without line
advancement while the ECC and Control firefighters compose the safety team.
B. The Officer and the Nozzle firefighter will compose the safety team while the Control and
the ECC will enter the area to search without line advancement.
C. E-99 will take a defensive position at this operation.
D. Even if there was a known life hazard members of E-99 would not be allowed to enter
since they are understaffed.
- C
- Which point about the safety team and their duties in not correct? MMID CH1,
2.3 and Section 3
A. The safety team shall be positioned outside the IDLH atmosphere and monitor handie talkie
transmissions for calls for assistance from members operating in an IDLH atmosphere.
B. Be prepared to enter the IDLH atmosphere to render assistance if required. Ensure the IC
is notified that the safety team is entering the IDLH atmosphere if necessary.
C. The IC shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival over the handie talkie at the scene. On
receipt of this announcement, the safety team shall return to their original assignments.
D. Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the safety team must account for
firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.
- D
2.3 Designated members of the Safety Team are to engage in their primary duties while
assuming the duties of the Safety Team. Once firefighters enter the IDLH, one member
of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing
other duties.
- Lt. Cohen is working in L-100 and responding as the FAST unit to a fire on the 2nd floor of
a 2 story private dwelling. L-100 is responding with 4 firefighters. In this situation Lt. Cohen
should know that? MMID CH2, 2.2
A. L-100 can be designated as the FAST unit even though they are riding with 4 firefighters.
B. L-100 cannot be designated as the FAST unit since they are riding with 4 firefighters.
- A
- The purpose of the FAST unit is to be immediately available to assist a member who
becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. While
drilling on the FAST unit, Lieutenant Chanstra should correct which point below?
MMID CH2, 3.1, 3.2, 4.1, 4.2
A. The officer of the FAST unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie
talkie, the IC shall announce the arrival of the FAST unit and their ID over the H/T, and the
arrival of the 2nd Engine must be announced over the H/T.
B. The FAST unit shall report to and stage near the ICP, within verbal contact, at a position
from which they can be readily deployed. An EFAS trained member of the FAST unit shall
report to a battalion vehicle on the scene to monitor EFAS and the FAST radio.
C. Upon arrival, the FAST unit officer shall verify that the IC is aware of the unit’s presence
and FAST designation. If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties the FAST officer shall
immediately carry out orders issued by the IC.
D. The IC may assign the FAST unit to stage at a location other than the ICP, based on the
type of building units are operating, e.g. High Rise Office Building. At Large scale, high rise, or
unusual operations additional FAST units may be positioned at other locations as determined by
the IC.
- C
- L-144 is operating as the FAST unit at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 2 story private dwelling.
Lt. Hegderman should correct which member’s handie talkie transmission? MMID
CH2, 4.3, 4.4
A. L144 FAST to Command.
B. L-144 FAST Roof to L-129.
C. L-144 FAST Chauffer to L-138 Chauffer.
D. L-144 FAST can to Ladder 144.
- D
- Regarding EFAS and the FAST radio which statement(s) listed below is/are correct?
MMID CH2, 5.1 - If a member is EFAS trained, upon arrival, report to the battalion vehicle being used to
monitor EFAS. This FAST unit member shall remain in the battalion vehicle to monitor
both EFAS and the battalions FAST radio for the duration of the incident even if the FAST
unit is given an assignment. - If a member is not EFAS trained, upon arrival, report to a battalion vehicle on the scene to
monitor FAST radio board. This FAST unit member shall remain in the battalion vehicle
to monitor the FAST radio for the duration of the operation unless the FAST unit is given
an assignment.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both correct
D. Both incorrect
- A
- L-101 operated as the FAST unit at 4 all hands fires on the 6x9 tour. In which fire(s) did
L-101 operate correctly? MMID CH2, Section 7
A. Fire #1 – The fire was in a 3 story private dwelling on the 3rd floor in the rear. While
standing by in the street a civilian appeared at a window on the 2nd floor in front of the building.
The civilian was not in any danger. Members of L-101 immediately repositioned a ladder from
the 3rd floor to rescue the victim on the 2nd floor.
B. Fire #2 – While operating at this fire an urgent was transmitted for a member who suffered
a broken leg on the 1st floor of a small taxpayer with fire in the cockloft. L-101 used a two sided
approach with the search team making access via the interior and the removal team making
access from the exterior.
C. Fire #3 – At this fire a mayday was transmitted for a member who became lost on the 3rd
floor of Macy’s department store. The store was a large commercial building so members of L-
100 again used the two sided approach with the search team making access via the interior and
the removal team making access via the exterior of the building.
D. Fire #4 – At this fire L-101 was deployed for a member who was reported missing by his
officer. When L-101 located the missing member they immediately pressed the emergency alert
button on the missing member’s handie talkie. This identified the missing member on EFAS and
increased his radio’s transmitting wattage.
- B
- In addition to normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST unit shall report to the
incident command post with which tools listed below? MMID CH2, Section 8 - FAST Pak
- Search Rope
- Life Saving Rope
- Stokes Basket with long backboard
- Saw
A. All of them
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3
- C
- TOOLS/EQUIPMENT
In addition to normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST Unit shall report to the ICP with the following equipment:
FAST Pak
Search Rope
Stokes Basket with long backboard
2:1 Rope
Pak-Tracker
Note: A member other than the member monitoring EFAS will monitor the Pak-Tracker.
- While operating at a fire an urgent is transmitted. Members of the FAST unit see the
following numbers on the FAST handie talkie, 1002004. Which member transmitted the urgent?
MMID CH2, add 1
A. Rescue 1’s Hook Firefighter
B. Ladder 1’s O/V Firefighter
C. Rescue 2’s Hook Firefighter
D. Engine 1’s Back Up Firefighter
- C
- During an afternoon drill firefighters decide to drill on unconscious firefighter
removal. The firefighter removal training kit was not is quarters since the battalion lent it
to E-99 the, single engine in the battalion. The officer decided to conduct the drill anyway
using his personally assigned equipment, but instructed the members to use caution so as
not to damage his equipment. Do you agree or disagree with the officer’s decision?
MMID CH2, Add 2
A. Agree or D. Disagree
- D
- E-295 and L-144 are operating at a class 3 alarm in Queens. While operating at this box
members discover a small fire in the basement of a private dwelling. Workers were framing out
the basement and accidentally ignited a fire. E-295’s officer transmits the box however E-295
and L-144 are the only units on the scene and are operating in an IDLH atmosphere. In this
situation, with only the two units above on the scene, who is the safety team made up of?
MMID CH1, 2.1.1
A. E-99’s Control FF and L-100’s LCC
B. E-99’s Backup and Control FF’s
C. E-99’s Control FF and L-100’s OV
D. L-100’s LCC and OV
- A
- When a MAYDAY is transmitted for a firefighter that is lost, missing, trapped, or in
distress, time will not be on your side. Which point below is not entirely correct regarding
firefighter removal? MMID CH3
A. At times, fire conditions may be so severe that immediate removal of the distressed
firefighter is critical, even with a spinal injury. In all cases a member should be positioned at the
down members head.
B. As soon as firefighters reach the distressed firefighter, regardless of surrounding
conditions, they should immediately begin to access the distressed firefighters ABC status
(airway, breathing, and circulation) and treat as necessary.
C. Removal of the distressed firefighter to a tenable atmosphere usually involves little danger
from spinal injury if there was not a fall or other injury involved.
D. It is important to emphasize that the operating units continue to fight the fire when a
MAYDAY/URGENT is transmitted for a distressed firefighter.
- B
- Of the following items listed below, which are incorrect? MMID CH3, 3.1, 4.1,
7.1, 7.2, 3.1.9 - The Officer of the FAST unit should never get physically involved in the operation as
he/she must supervise the operation and keep the members focused on the job at hand. - The priorities for removal are: Fire/Environment, Air, Immediate medical care, if required
and possible, and Removal. Additional considerations are: Identification of the member
and Packaging if required. - Call for an additional FAST pak if the first one is placed into operation unless it is obvious
that one FAST pak will be sufficient for the operation. - The air supply of the member needs to be addressed only if the member is unconscious.
Removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival. - Once the member is located, a FAST pak must be called for immediately, regardless of
whether the member has air or not.
A. All correct D. 2, 4, 5
B. All incorrect E. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3 F. 2, 3, 5
- E
3.1 Unless there is no one else available the Company Officer should not get physically
involved in the operation. It is the responsibility of the officer to supervise the operation
and keep the members focused with the job at hand. Listed below are some additional
responsibilities of the Company Officer.
7.2 Once the member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of
whether the member has air or not.
- When performing FAST duties one of the most critical items to be addressed is the air
supply of a distressed firefighter. Items such as whether the member has air and air supply
methods must be quickly addressed in order to secure the firefighters survival in a hazardous
atmosphere. Which point is incorrect concerning air supply? MMID CH3, 7.4, 7.7, 7.8,
7.9
A. The UAC is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH.
If the condition of the distressed members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the high
pressure system.
B. Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the
facepiece with the FAST pak.
C. If the FAST Pak is not at your location, start the removal procedure. Communicate with
the member assigned the FAST Pak to determine a suitable location to meet.
D. Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, open the purge valve fully to allow a
constant flow of air.
- D
- If unable to determine if an unconscious member has air or not, supply the member with
air. All of the following are ways to determine whether the member has air except?
MMID CH3, 7.6
A. Check the downed member’s cylinder gauge.
B. Turn the purge valve and listen for air flow.
C. If the facepiece is on, break the seal between the members face and facepiece and listen for
air escaping.
D. Look at the remote gauge of the downed member.
- A
7.6 If unable to determine if an unconscious member has air or not, supply the member with
air. There are three ways to determine whether the member has air:
Turn the purge valve. If there is air, the flow will be heard.
If the facepiece is on, break the seal between the member’s face and facepiece and
listen for air escaping.
Look at the remote gauge of the downed member.
- When an unconscious member is found it is imperative to properly identify the member.
This will ensure we have found the member who was originally reported missing. Members
should press the EAB of the member in distress so the distressed member will be identified on
EFAS. ______ to pressing the EAB on the distressed members H/T the IC should be notified.
Positioning a member on their ______ side will provide access to the members name on the back
of the coat, helmet front piece, PRA ID number which will provide unit and position, and the
engraved ID number on the side of the H/T. If possible, position the member so that their
______ is facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process.
MMID CH3, 10.1.2, 11.4
A. After / Left / Head
B. After / Right / Back
C. Prior / Right / Back
D. Prior / Left / Head
- C
- Packaging a conscious member is ______ required for removal. In ______ packaging an
unconscious member will be required for removal. The method used to package the member will
be determined by the type and degree of difficulty involved in the removal. MMID
CH3, 11.2
A. Always / All situations
B. Always / Most situations
C. Not Always / All situations
D. Not Always / Most situations
- D
- When a distressed member is found there are different ways to convert the SCBA into a
harness. The book mentions the “Through the Leg Method” and “Use of the Personal Harness
Leg Straps”. Packaging a member in either method listed above will allow for? MMID
CH3, Add 1 1.13, 2.14
A. Horizontal removal only.
B. Vertical removal only.
C. Both horizontal and vertical removal.
D. Neither horizontal nor vertical removal.
- C
- Lt. Harvey was giving a drill on the drag rescue device and made the following
statement: Any attempt to use the device for other than a horizontal drag could result in
the member slipping out of their bunker coat. In addition, serious injury could occur to
the member’s upper torso. The drag rescue device can be used to drag members up stairs
in an emergency. Do you agree or disagree with this statement. MMID CH 3, Add 2
A. Agree or D. Disagree
- D
NOTE: Any attempt to use the device for other than a horizontal drag could result
in the member slipping out of their bunker coat. In addition, serious injury could
occur to member’s upper torso. Members should not be dragged up stairs utilizing
the DRD.
- The nylon tubular webbing is used to enhance simple maneuvers through the use of knots
attached to an individual firefighter’s body or SCBA. Which point below is incorrect regarding
the nylon tubular webbing? MMID CH 3, Add 3
A. The nylon tubular webbing is only to be used to assist in the removal of an unconscious
firefighter. Do not use the webbing on civilians.
B. The breaking strength is 4000 pounds and the knotted breaking strength is 3000 pounds.
C. Webbing shall only be used for dragging victims; no vertical lifts should be attempted.
D. The webbing should be inspected monthly and after each use. To get a replacement length
of webbing the officer shall forward an RT2 to the tool room.
- A
- When a MAYDAY or URGENT is transmitted it is important for the IC and units on the
scene to follow certain procedures to ensure the greatest chance of survival for a distressed
member. Which two points below are correct regarding these procedures? MMID CH 4
6.4, 6.8, 5.1, 5.2,
A. Prior to acknowledging the MAYDAY/URGENT transmission, the IC should pause
momentarily to obtain the transmitting member’s internal radio ID code which may be obtained
from the FAST radio or Battalion H/T.
B. The IC will inquire on the tactical channel if any member knows the location of the missing
member. The IC shall request positive and negative responses from units on the scene.
C. Beacon tones on the effected member’s H/T take priority over received audio, that is, the
H/T that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress
in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals (every 7 seconds).
D. Ensure that once a MAYDAY/URGENT has been transmitted, the operating units continue
fire suppression efforts. If the member reaches an area of refuge, instruct them to stay where
they are.
- A, D
- Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, the IC shall designate certain teams/members to
provide assistance or rescue. All but which teams/members can be designated as such?
MMID CH 4, 3.1
A. The Safety Team.
B. Companies in reserve.
C. Companies available for immediate reassignment.
D. Members available for immediate reassignment.
E. Committed Chauffeurs or light duty aides.
- E
3.1 Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, the IC shall designate any of the following for
possible assistance or rescue:
Safety Team.
Companies in reserve.
Companies available for immediate reassignment.
Members available for immediate reassignment.
Uncommitted chauffeurs or full duty aides.
- The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via department radio whenever, in
the judgment of the IC, a member is missing, lost, trapped, or seriously injured and additional
resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member. Which point below is correct
regarding the 10-66 signal? MMID CH 5, 1.2, 2.4, 2.2.1
A. The signal 10-66 must be transmitted even if the IC determines a situation involving a lost,
missing, trapped, or seriously injured member does not require additional resources and can be
mitigated using units on the scene.
B. The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted via Department radio and Handie Talkie whenever, in
the judgment of the IC a member is missing, lost, trapped, or seriously injured and additional
resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member.
C. The signal 10-66 will be sufficient if members are missing, lost, trapped, or seriously
injured as a result of a collapse. The signal 10-60 will not be required in this situation.
D. It is extremely important to emphasize to other operating units that they must continue to
fight the fire when a MAYDAY is transmitted for a distressed member.
- D
1.2 Signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department radio whenever, in the
judgment of the IC, a member is missing, lost, trapped or seriously injured and additional
resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member. This will set into motion a
number of actions designed to augment rescue activity on the fireground.
Note: The signal 10-66 need not be transmitted when the IC determines a situation
involving a lost, missing, trapped or seriously injured member does not require additional
resources and can be mitigated using the units on scene.
2.4 In addition to the signal 10-66, transmit signal 10-60 if there are any indications that
members are missing/lost/trapped/seriously injured as a result of a collapse.
2.4.1 Assignments for additional units responding on signal 10-66 will depend on the
situation at the particular incident, but should follow the guidelines below:
- E-99 and L-100 receive a ticket to respond to a 2nd alarm which has been transmitted in
conjunction with the transmission of a 10-66. E-99 is the 2nd due Engine on the 2nd alarm and L-
100 is designated on the ticket as L-100S. The officers of E-99 and L-100 should know which
point below to be correct? MMID CH 5, 3.3
A. Both E-99 and L-100 shall report to the staging area.
B. Both E-99 and L-100 shall report to the scene.
C. E-99 should report to the staging area and L-100 should report to the scene.
D. L-100 should report to the staging area and E-99 should report to the scene.
- C
- Which point about communication procedures regarding the signal 10-66 is not correct?
MMID CH 5, 7.1
A. The signal 10-66 shall not be used on the company handie talkie to replace a MAYDAY
transmission.
B. The initial signal 10-66 shall be transmitted as a mixer off message. The initial 10-66 shall
include the name or unit number of the affected member.
C. Once a 10-66 has been transmitted, all additional notifications regarding affected
member(s) shall be made to the dispatcher via a mixer off message.
D. It must be specified in the incident description if multiple members are involved. This
description shall be followed immediately by a telephone notification to the borough dispatcher
with full particulars.
- B
- Units are operating at a 2nd alarm in Greenpoint where three 4 story brownstone type
Rowframes are involved in fire. The fire is in the cockloft of all three buildings, there has been a
partial collapse of the roof and top floor of exposure 4, and a member is missing as a result of the
collapse. The IC is conducting a roll to determine who is missing. This roll call will begin
where? MMID CH 5, 5.1
A. Where ever the IC determines it will be most effective.
B. Exposure 2.
C. Exposure 4.
D. The original fire building.
- C
5.1 An immediate roll call of units shall be conducted, beginning with the units in the most
severely exposed positions. Sector Supervisors, if appropriate, can conduct the roll call
in their own sectors. The Field Communications Unit, if on the scene, can assist in this
roll call. The Firefighter Locator Officer will coordinate roll calls and search efforts with
the EMS Patient Tracking Coordinator, who will account for all members removed from
the scene to hospitals. Results of all sector roll calls shall be reported to the Firefighter
Locator Officer.
- The IC must assign a chief/company officer as a Street Coordinator Manager when the 10-
66 is transmitted. The Street Coordinator Manager will be responsible which items listed below?
MMID CH 5, 6.1 - Establishing contact with PD and EMS Officers to ensure traffic flow, particularly
ambulance egress to hospitals. - Ensuring access/egress of other essential vehicles.
- Positioning needed apparatus for the most efficient use.
- Coordinating apparatus staging areas.
- Coordinating EMS triage area with the Medical Branch Director.
A. All of them.
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
- A
- True or False? Most MAYDAY situations will not require members to switch handie
talkie channels. If members assigned to the FAST Group are required to change channels
to Ch-16 all members of the FAST unit will be on Ch-16 except the firefighter assigned the
FAST radio who will be on Ch-1. MMID CH 5, Add 1
- True
PART III – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE
OPERATIONS
1. The FDNY has equipped some Ladder and Engine companies as well as all special units
with ice/cold water and surface rescue equipment. These units have been trained in the proper
use of this equipment however there are some limitation that the members must be aware of in
order to operate safely. Which limitation is not correct as written? (Water Rescue 1,
Section 2)
A. It should be emphasized that entry into the water or onto ice be considered as a last resort.
The safety of our members is paramount. The IC will have to weight he risk vs reward when
attempting a water rescue.
B. When it is determined that a water entry is not safe for a surface rescue unit, the IC will
need to request the assistance of a Rescue company dive unit.
C. All procedures described in this bulletin will deal with surface rescue. The cold water suit
and personal floatation device are not designed for underwater operations.
D. The cold water suit does have some buoyancy. Any attempts at underwater operations can
cause a rescuer to surface therefore such underwater attempts shall only be attempted under very
rare instances.
- D
2.4 The CWS has considerable buoyancy. Any attempts at underwater operations will cause
the rescuer to immediately surface, possibly trapping the rescuer under an ice shelf, under
a pier, or inside a submerged automobile.
- During roll members of E-99 are discussing their positions for the 6x9 tour. All the
firefighters working in E-99 on the 6x9 are details from within the battalion since E-99 has their
company dance. The following members are on duty:
• FF Wright a proby from L-100, L-100 is also a water rescue unit.
• FF Carter from L-101, who is a lifeguard at Jones Beach during the summer.
• FF Dykstra from E-98 who is an ECC.
• FF Cashen from E-97
Which firefighter listed above should Lt. Strawberry consider for the primary rescuer position?
(Water Rescue 1 Section 3)
A. Whoever is assigned the nozzle since E-99’s policy is to have the nozzle position be the
designated primary rescuer.
B. FF Carter
C. FF Wright since he is from a water rescue unit. FF Wright is not completely familiar with
the suit.
D. FF Cashen since he has volunteered for the assignment and is training to become a scuba
diver.
- B
- While operating at the scene of a water rescue the primary concern is for the safety of the
rescuers. There are times when members should not enter the water for a rescue or a drill.
Which factor that would affect the decision to allow entry is incorrect? (Water Rescue
1 Section 4)
A. Factors such as wave height, presence of riptides, sweep tides, and lightning storms would
affect the decision as to whether members can enter the water.
B. Location of the victim. How far out is the victim and if they can be safely reached.
C. During night time operation members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the
shore unless the member is a trained lifeguard.
D. The skill level of the rescuer. Can the rescuer reach the victim or will the rescuer
eventually become a victim.
- C
4.2.4 Night operations - Members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the
shore. Portable lights should be brought to the scene.
- Tests have shown that members wearing bunker gear, with or without an SCBA,
became totally submerged in under 1 minute. Bunker gear will only float for 1 minute.
The type of boots worn can increase the buoyancy of the firefighter slightly. Do you agree
or disagree with the above statement? (Water Rescue 4.3, 4.5)
A. Agree or D. Disagree
- D
- Victims exposed to cold water may exhibit the following symptoms; intense shivering, loss
of coordination, mental confusion, cyanotic skin, low pulse rate, and an irregular heart rate.
Which action taken by the members of E-99 after removing a victim from the water was
incorrect? (Water Rescue 5.1)
A. The victim was removed to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling. The victim was
transported carefully to avoid heart fibrillation and stress.
B. Members recognized that the loss of body heat occurs 25 times faster in cold water than in
air and that hypothermia begins when the body’s core temperature falls below the level of 98.6
degrees.
C. When the body’s core temperature begins to drop below 90 degrees Fahrenheit, the victim
transgresses from non-ambulatory into unconsciousness.
D. After being removed from cold water a victim should have their wet clothing removed, be
wrapped in warm blankets, and gently massage or rub the victim in order to increase blood flow
to the body’s core.
- D
5.1.2 Remove the victim to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling. The victim
should be transported carefully to avoid heart fibrillation and stress. Do not
massage or rub the victim because rough handling could cause cardiac arrest.
- Basic knowledge of rip tides and sweep tides are very important for unit’s who may have to
operate near the ocean. The tides can be unpredictable and can pull people out into deep water
very quickly. Which point is correct regarding sweep tides and rip currents? (Water
Rescue 1)
A. There are 6 tides in 24 hours. Three tides are coming in (high tide) and three tides are
going out (low tide). Slack tide is 45 minutes between high and low tides.
B. Rip tides or currents occur when the tide is going out. To escape a rip current you should
swim parallel to the shore line. Swimming back to the shore into the rip will not help and only
make the victim tired.
C. Sweep tides run perpendicular to the beach and are more pronounced during in- coming
tides. The waves are diagonal to the beach and can sweep swimmers into a rip current.
D. When rescuing a person caught in a sweep tide rescuers should enter the water downstream
of the sweep and take a straight on approach to the victim.
- B
6.1 There are 4 tides in 24 hours: 2 tides are coming in (High) and 2 are going out (Low).
Slack tide is 45 minutes between High and Low tides.
6.3 Sweep Tides
6.3.1 Sweep Tides can also be present in a rescue situation. This tide runs parallel to
the beach. It is more pronounced on out-going tides. The waves are diagonal to
the beach and can sweep swimmers into a rip current.
6.3.2 Rescuer should enter the water upstream of the sweep. This will pull the rescuer
towards the victim. Contact with the victim will be difficult if the rescuer takes a
straight on approach because they will be swimming against the sweep to get to
the victim (Figure 2).
- Inflatable water rescue hose may be used during ice and water rescue
incidents/emergencies involving any number of conscious victims. Which is an incorrect point
regarding the operation of the inflatable hose? (Water Rescue 1 Add 1)
A. Members can use the supplied air pump in order to fill the hose. The FAST pack cannot be
used to fill the hose since it does not have a remote gauge.
B. Members shall deploy the required lengths of hose, attach the water rescue fittings and
ensure all the connections are spanner tight prior to filling with air.
C. One 45 minute cylinder can fill five lengths of 2 ½” hose in approximately 2 minutes and
30 seconds.
D. The apparatus air outlet can also be used to fill the hose. The apparatus air outlet can fill
two lengths of hose in approximately 20 seconds.
- A
- Inflatable water rescue hose can be deployed in either a straight line or a loop. Straight line
deployment can be used in incidents from a pier or shore involving only a few individuals who
are close to the shore. The loop deployment increases buoyancy and can be used for multiple
victims. Each 2 ½” length of hose filled with air can keep afloat approximately ______ people?
(Water Rescue Add 1 4.2)
A. 5 people
B. 10 people
C. 15 people
D. 20 people
- B
PART IV – VO’s, NOV’s & CONFISCATIONS
1. A violation order is a written order used to remedy any violation listed in the standard form
of orders or as directed by Fire Department procedures. Which point listed below is correct
regarding VO’s? VO Guide
A. When issuing a VO, recommended compliance times are listed in the standard form of
orders. Variations of time limits listed are not permitted.
B. Compliance dates must always fall on a scheduled AFID period.
C. Forthwith orders and orders with one other compliance date may not be written on the same
order.
D. Write as many orders as required to enforce all of the items in violation. Supplement
sheets are not provided for the VO like the NOV.
- D
1) A Violation Order (VO) is a written order used to remedy any violation listed in the
Standard Form of Orders or as directed by Fire Department procedures. When issuing a
VO, recommended compliance times are listed in the Standard Form of Orders.
Variations of the time limits listed are permitted. Compliance dates should fall on a
scheduled AFID period. Forthwith orders and orders with one other compliance date may
be written on the same order, however, violations should be grouped to have a common
date and/or time for compliance. The recommendation is to use separate orders when
compliance times are not consistent or multiple violations are cited and additional
space is needed on the VO. Write as many orders as required to enforce all of the
items in violation. Supplement sheets are not provided for the VO like the NOV.
- If a VO is issued and not corrected within the compliance time, the officer may allow an
extension if ______% of the required work has been completed. A progress notation shall be
made on the back of the reinspection copy. VO Guide
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
- C
- During a recent study group members made the following statements about violation
orders. Which statement is not correct? VO Guide
A. If unable to verify the proper building owner, fax and A-234B to the enforcement unit. The
officer can also search the finance department’s web site on the fire officer’s resource page.
B. Comply forthwith or comply immediately orders shall be reinspected by the administrative
unit within 24 hours of issuance under all circumstances.
C. When a situation is encountered that creates a condition, which is contrary to fire and life
safety and the fire code does not provide a provision to adequately address the condition an order
shall be written to correct the problem, FC 102.8 shall be cited in these situations.
D. The public buildings unit of the Bureau of Fire Prevention has been designated as the
interagency liaison for the purpose of processing violation orders to city agencies or nonjurisdictional
agencies that are found to be non-compliant.
- B
“Comply Forthwith” or “Comply Immediately” orders shall be reinspected by the
administrative unit within 24 hours of issuance, unless circumstances prevent
reinspection (AED, company medicals, training, etc). Under these circumstances,
reinspection shall be performed as soon as possible thereafter.
- Members of E-99 are inspecting a taxpayer with 3 stores. While performing the inspection
of the middle store, Dunkin Donuts, there is a large pile of rubbish at the rear of the store
(Dunkin Donuts). The owner of the building (Mr. McDowell) and the owner of the Dunkin
Donuts (Mr. McReynolds) are both on the scene. In this situation who should be listed as the
respondent on the violation order? VO Guide
A. List Dunkin Donuts as the respondent.
B. List Mr. McDowell as the respondent.
C. Either one.
D. Both
- A
- After finishing the inspection of Dunkin Donuts in question 4, members of E-99 are
inspecting the sprinkler records for the whole building. The sprinkler room is located in the rear
of the structure and the sprinkler serves the whole building. The tenants of the stores do not have
access to this room. The owner cannot provide E-99 with the monthly records of the sprinkler
system inspection. In this situation who should be listed as the respondent on the violation
order? VO Guide
A. Tape the violation to an interior wall.
B. The owner of Dunkin Donuts.
C. Issue and immediate summons for this violation.
D. The owner of the building (Mr. McDowell).
- D
- In which choice listed below would the issuance of an NOV be appropriate?
A. A member deems a violation to be an immediate hazard.
B. A member discovers construction workers smoking at a construction site.
C. During the inspection of a local NYC housing project a member finds electrical lighting
hazards in the lobby (VC 27).
D. Enforcing NY State laws such as the NYS Labor or Multiple Dwelling Law
- C
- E-99 is inspecting a building during afternoon BISP. Members discover 6 violations
requiring an NOV to be issued. Mr. Kaye is the owner of the building and will be listed as the
respondent. Additionally, the Lieutenant discovers another violation for which an NOV was
issued 14 months ago to Mr. Kaye, at the same premise, and for the same law. It would be
correct for the Lieutenant to follow which guideline listed below?
A. Issues one NOV with all 7 violations listed on the NOV and check the repeat violation box
for the rule/law that has been violated again.
B. Issue one NOV with the 6 new violations listed on it and issue a separate NOV for the
repeat violation and check the repeat violation box.
C. Issue two NOV’s for the new violations as only 3 violations can be entered on a single
NOV and issue a separate NOV for the repeat violation and check the repeat violation box.
D. Issues one NOV with all 7 violations listed on the NOV and issue a summons for the repeat
violation.
- B
- Respondents have how many days to file a certificate of correction to the Bureau of Fire
Prevention’s Enforcement Unit?
A. 35
B. 30
C. 60
D. 14
- A
- When is the only time an NOV can be issued to a tenant in a multiple dwelling?
A. If the NOV is for the tenant.
B. If the owner of the building can’t be located.
C. Never
D. If the tenant is willing to accept the NOV.
- C
- During BISP members of L-100 are discussing the procedures to be followed when
serving/affixing an NOV. Which point made below is incorrect?
A. In a commercial premises affix the NOV to the building managers office door or any wall
in the buildings main lobby preferably near the buildings security desk.
B. Department personnel shall only affix an NOV to the outside of a building if the occupants
refuse to permit entry into the building.
C. In multiple dwellings affix the NOV on the door to the superintendent’s office or a wall
near the building’s mailbox or notice board.
D. Under no circumstance shall an NOV be given to an employee at the premise even if the
employee offers to accept the NOV. When affixing an NOV masking tape is preferred.
- B
- Always enter a compliance and hearing date when issuing an NOV. An NOV without
a compliance and hearing date will be considered invalid in all circumstances. Do you agree
or disagree with the above statement?
A. Agree or D. Disagree
- A
- When issuing an NOV and an error is made on the NOV or when an NOV is issued in error
there are certain procedures that must be followed. Which procedure listed below is correct?
A. When an error is made on an NOV, the entire NOV must be voided. Write the word VOID
across the face of the NOV and return all copies except the pink copy to enforcement unit at Fire
Prevention.
B. To rescind an NOV that was issued in error, the issuing unit must submit a written report to
the supervisor of the legal enforcement unit at the bureau of legal affairs. Do not give/send any
correspondence to the respondent.
C. Both incorrect.
D. Both correct.
- D
- If contraband material such as a kerosene heater is found during BISP or at a Fire
Department operation, it can be confiscated by the Fire Department. The preferred means of
removal of contraband material can be found in which choices below? (More than one correct).
A. A responsible vendor with an FDNY certificate of fitness.
B. FDNY Fleet Maintenance Vehicle.
C. A responsible person with an FDNY certificate of fitness.
D. FDNY Hazardous Material Unit.
- A, C
- While operating at a water leak in a deli, members of L-100 find two 20 pound LPG
cylinders connected to a barbeque in the rear of the store. The owner of the deli (who also owns
the building) is on the scene at states the barbeque is used to grill chicken and sausage. One of
the LPG cylinders is damaged. The owner states that he will call his LPG vendor, who has an
FDNY certificate of fitness, to come and remove the cylinders. There is a slight odor of propane
coming from the damaged LPG cylinder. In this situation Lt. Rose should take which action
listed below?
A. Allow the vendor to remove the LPG cylinders provided that the vendor has a reasonable
ETA. Issue a summons to Mr. Kaye for illegal storage/use of LPG.
B. Have the members of L-100 disconnect and remove the LPG cylinders to the outside of the
store and await the arrival of the vendor. Issue an NOV to the vendor for illegal use/storage of
LPG.
C. Have the members of L-100 disconnect and remove the LPG cylinders to the outside of the
store and have the FDNY fleet maintenance vehicle remove the LPG cylinders. Issue a
summons to Mr. Kaye for illegal storage/use of LPG.
D. Allow the vendor to remove the cylinders from the store but have the FDNY fleet
maintenance vehicle remove the LPG cylinders. Issue an NOV to the vendor for illegal
storage/use of LPG.
- C
- While awaiting the arrival of the FDNY fleet maintenance vehicle from the question above
members made the following statements. Which statement is incorrect?
A. The Fleet Maintenance Vehicle is the only FDNY vehicle approved for removal and
transportation of contraband material/cylinders.
B. Under no circumstances is any FDNY unit, except the Hazardous Materials Unit, to
transport cylinders even if properly contained, to any location or facility.
C. If the FDNY fleet maintenance vehicle is removing the cylinders the IC may have Haz Mat
and an Engine Co. or just an Engine Co. escort the fleet maintenance vehicle to their final
destination and off load.
D. The Company will fill out a notice of seizure of contraband material (form BLA-11) which
is a four part form. This form is prepared by the confiscating officer.
- B
