WEEK #1 WEEK OF 1/14/13 PART I – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. #1 – 5.6.7} PART II – DUNN CH. #4 & 5 PART III – AUC’S #220, 225, 230, 231 & 233 PART IV – TB - FIRES #1 - 4 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #2 & 6 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN

Question 1

1. There are three broad categories of taxpayers. One type was built from the turn of the
   century until the 1920’s. The most prevalent type was built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
   The third type is the newer type built since the 1960’s. Which of the following is an incorrect
   statement about these taxpayers? (2.3.1, 2.3.2, 2.3.3)
   (A) In the older type of taxpayers, the decorative metal cornices, found on the front of some
   buildings, can be removed to provide access to the cockloft area.
   (B) In taxpayers built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s, fire walls may have been installed for
   subdivision of the building. The upper termination points of these walls will end at ceiling level.
   (C) In taxpayers built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s, removing the cornice or sign in front in
   most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area.
   (D) In the newer types of taxpayers, the use of combustible construction material has been
   reduced. In many of these buildings, the roofs and floors are supported by steel bar joists.

Answer 1

1. B

Question 2

2. Generally, the only auxiliary fire protection that may be found in taxpayers will be
   automatic sprinkler systems where they are required by code. Which of the following taxpayers
   would require an automatic sprinkler system? (2.5.1)
   (A) A building built under the 1938 Building Code that has an area of 7500 sq. feet between
   fire walls.
   (B) A building built under the 1968 Building Code that has an area of 5000 square feet between
   exterior walls.
   (C) A building built under the 1938 Building Code that has an area of 9000 square feet between
   exterior walls.
   (D) A building built under the 1968 Building Code that has an area of 8000 square feet between
   exterior walls.

Answer 2

2. D

Question 3

3. What is the height of the cockloft in taxpayer buildings? (3.2.1)
   (A) 2 to 3 feet
   (B) Four inches to more than six feet.
   (C) 1 foot to tall enough for a man to stand in
   (D) Four feet

Answer 3

3. B

Question 4

4. Which one of the following is the most common type of roof on taxpayers? (3.3.1)
   (A) Wood joist covered with tongue and groove boards or plywood
   (B) Wooden bowstring truss
   (C) Steel bar joists
   (D) Parallel chord wood truss

Answer 4

4. A

Question 5

5. Truss construction is used where large areas, free of roof support columns, are desired.
   Trusses can either be wood or steel. All of the following are correct statements about truss roofs
   with the exception of which choice? (3.3.3)
   (A) Wooden bowstring trusses have a characteristic hump-like roof profile. The longer the
   span, the higher the bow.
   (B) The wooden bowstring truss can always be determined from the exterior from ground level.
   Other types of truss construction are not as easily discerned from the exterior of the building.
   (C) Failure of one truss element can cause a failure of the entire truss. Failure can occur in the
   early stages of the fire.
   (D) In older type truss roof buildings, the trusses may be spaced 10 or 20 feet apart with roof
   beams installed between the trusses to support roof coverings.

Answer 5

5. B

Question 6

6. There are several differences between steel and wood trusses. Which of the following
   correctly describes wood and steel trusses? (3.3.3)
   (A) Wood truss roofs sag and get spongy prior to failing.
   (B) Steel trusses tend to stretch when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures.
   (C) Steel open web joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have excellent fire resistance
   ratings.
   (D) Protected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures and
   may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

Answer 6

6. B

J. Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get
“spongy.” Steel trusses tend to “stretch” when losing their strength because of
elevated temperatures, but wood tends to “snap” (See Fig. 5 and 10).

A. Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have no fire
resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finish
roofing.

D. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated
temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

Question 7

7. A parapet wall is a continuation of an exterior wall, fire wall or party wall above the roof
   line. Which one of the following incorrectly describes parapet walls? (3.4.3)
   (A) The weight of the parapet wall is supported by steel I beams or angle shapes which span the
   openings for the display windows and entrance doors.
   (B) The parapet wall is often unsupported laterally for a long distance, receiving its support
   only at the ends where they tie into crosswalls.
   (C) I beams which support roof joists often butt against the front parapet. An uncontrolled fire
   in a remote portion of the taxpayer or in the cockloft may be heating these I beams causing their
   expansion and steadily pushing the parapet outward.
   (D) Parapet walls usually do not remain intact horizontally when they collapse. When parapet
   walls collapse, it is usually only small sections that collapse.

Answer 7

7. D

Question 8

8. An average 50 foot long steel beam, heated uniformly over its length to 970 degrees F will
   extend in length approximately ____. A longer “I” beam will expand a ______ greater distance,
   and as the temperature increases, the rate of expansion increases. At 1000 Degrees F, a 100 foot
   long beam will have increased in length ______. (3.6.1)
   (A) 4 inches, exponentially, 9 ½ inches
   (B) 4 feet, proportionately, 9 ½ feet
   (C) 4 inches, proportionately, 9 ½ inches
   (D) 4 feet, exponentially, 9 ½ feet

Answer 8

8. C

Question 9

9. When steel beams are heated from 1000 degrees F to 1500 degrees F, their yield strength
   drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can be reached in 5 to 10
   minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the
   smaller beam sections), until these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitations. Which
   of the following is a correct point about heated steel columns or beams? (3.6.4)
   (A) Hot steel beams or columns cooled by hose streams will crack or fail.
   (B) Cooling a steel member will cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability.
   (C) If the beam has already sagged under the weight of floors or roof, firefighters should not
   operate underneath until the beams are shored.
   (D) When heated steel beams are cooled, the steel will not contract to its original length.

Answer 9

9. B

Question 10

10. Flooring can vary in taxpayers. All of the following are correct with the exception of
    which choice? (3.9)
    (A) The most common floors are tongue and groove boards or plywood, supported by light
    weight steel open web joists.
    (B) Heavy terrazzo or concrete is sometimes placed over wood joist floor construction, an
    exceptionally hazardous condition.
    (C) The flooring under the raised display platform is sometimes omitted behind paneling under
    display windows at street fronts.
    (D) In newer type taxpayer slab construction, concrete floors are prevalent on ground level with
    no basements or cellars in the building.

Answer 10

10. A

Question 11

11. Metal overhead rolling doors commonly cover the entire store or building front. Which is a
    correct statement about these security doors? (3.11.1, 3.11.4)
    (A) The weight that is added to the front walls, especially when these doors are in the closed
    position, can cause the lintel over the store front to fail and the wall and door assembly may fall
    during a fire.
    (B) When a store covers large area or there are a number of stores in a building all with
    overhead doors, it may be difficult to determine the exact location of the entrance door or doors
    to the stores. Overhead signs might give a clue.
    (C) If these overhead doors start down without the counterbalance or fully tensioned springs
    they will come down with tremendous force. Doors used in commercial installations range in
    weight from 150 – 400 pounds. Larger commercial occupancies will have similar weighted
    doors.
    (D) If the spring tension is gone, motor or hoist devices will prevent the door from coming
    down hard once it starts down. In addition, at more advanced fires the steel track on either side
    can warp, resulting in the door rolling straight down.

Answer 11

11. B

Question 12

12. The IC, Operations Section Chief, Sector or Group Supervisors at a fire must draw on their
    knowledge and experience to detect the warning signs of collapse as early as possible and vacate
    affected structure in sufficient time. Which of the following is not a warning sign of collapse?
    (4.2.1 D, E)
    (A) Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes or more,
    particularly in a large open floor area.
    (B) Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into
    the operation at the fire.
    (C) Spongy or soft feeling as you walk on the roof.
    (D) An impact load.

Answer 12

12. D

Question 13

13. Engine 100 arrives at an early morning fire at a commercial occupancy. While performing
    size up, the officer notices a sign that identifies the building as a smoke shop. The officer of
    Engine 100 orders his unit to stretch a 2 ½” line, and to knock down the fire from the sidewalk
    before attempting entry. Do you agree or disagree with this decision? (4.3.3)
    (A) Agree or (D) Disagree

Answer 13

13. A

Question 14

14. A backdraft, smoke explosion or hot air explosion is the ignition and rapid combustion of a
    mixture of flammable gas or dust and air which flashes back through openings around the fire
    area. Combustibles, oxygen, and heat are necessary for a backdraft. Which one of the following
    choices incorrectly describes backdrafts? (4.4)
    (A) Colors of smoke associated with backdrafts are dense black smoke, dirty brown, yellow
    brown and gray yellow.
    (B) Warning signs of a potential backdraft include reversal of air and glass windows stained
    with smoke condensation and pulsating form the pressure of the fire.
    (C) The type and size of openings made by the Fire Department do not influence the severity of
    the backdraft.
    (D) Cellar and storage areas are particularly vulnerable, although backdrafts can occur in any
    part of the structure.

Answer 14

14. C

Question 15

15. What percentage of its space does a room or fire area require to contain the explosive
    mixture for the entire area to possibly explode? (4.4.1 F)
    (A) 25
    (B) 50
    (C) 75
    (D) 100

Answer 15

15. A

Question 16

16. Backdrafts may cause the entire area to explode when firefighters enter to search and allow
    fresh air to enter with them. Which of the following point(s) are correct? (4.4.1)
    (A) Open the roof or area directly over the fire.
    (B) After roof venting has been accomplished, entry may be forced at the lower level and lines
    advanced to extinguish the fire.
    (C) Immediately discharge a hoseline into the fire area from a flanking position when the fire
    area is opened up.
    (D) Perform horizontal ventilation immediately before vertical ventilation, to provide an exit
    for the products of combustion

Answer 16

16. A, B, C

Question 17

17. When a taxpayer has an inverted roof, the roof beams create the original ceiling level.
    Roof supports of 2”x4” short studs are connected to the roof beams and extended upward, where
    they connect to a roof grid to which the roof boards are nailed. Choose the incorrect statement
    from the following about roofs and fire travel. (5.3.3)
    (A) The inverted roof may be pitched from the front to the rear, front and rear to the center, or
    from the front, rear and sides to the center.
    (B) How the roof is pitched is usually determined by the configuration of the building and the
    position of the drainage facilities.
    (C) Since most fires originate in the rear of the cellar where utilities, storage, and services are
    located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.
    (D) The standard (flat) roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front
    to the rear.

Answer 17

17. C

Question 18

18. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about ventilation? (5.4.2, 5.4.4,
    5.4.6, 5.4.8)
    (A) It must be understood that ventilation probably will increase the intensity of the fire.
    Ventilation, therefore, must be carefully coordinated with engine hoseline operations.
    (B) Horizontal ventilation may be very difficult. At times, it may be attained by the use of a
    horizontal opening in conjunction with a remote vertical opening.
    (C) The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to permit quick exit for eh heat,
    smoke and gases. A hole 3 feet by 6 feet, where possible is recommended.
    (D) If difficulty is encountered in opening the returns of scuttles or skylight openings, it may be
    quicker and more practical to make examination holes for ventilation around the openings.

Answer 18

18. C

Question 19

19. A Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof
    operations. This could be a chief or company officer as designated by the IC. Which of the
    following is not correct concerning the Roof Sector Supervisor? (5.4.9, 5.4.12, 5.5.20,
    5.5.26, 5.6.4)
    (A) A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations when one or more power saws
    are working on the roof.
    (B) Where roof cutting is critical a chief officer should be assigned as the Roof Sector
    Supervisor to coordinate and direct roof operations.
    (C) Members may be unable to complete roof openings and must start and complete additional
    openings. The choice of locations must be made by the Roof Sector Supervisor based on their
    size-up or orders from the IC.
    (D) The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a white powdery residue during
    saw operations. Upon this observation, members should immediately notify the Roof Sector
    Supervisor and IC and evacuate the roof.
    (E) The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where they see the necessity for it.
    Immediate notification of the IC of the operation is mandatory.

Answer 19

19. A

Question 20

20. Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as
    needed. The need for, and use of, four ladder companies at a serious taxpayer fire is not unusual.
    Who should initiate the request for the additional ladder companies if necessary? (5.4.13)
    (A) First arriving officer
    (B) First arriving ladder officer
    (C) First arriving Battalion Chief
    (D) First arriving Deputy Chief

Answer 20

20. A

5.4.13 Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation
as needed. The first arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary.
Consideration should be given to whether tower ladder apparatus is responding or
should be called. The need for, and use of, four ladder companies at a serious
taxpayer fire is not unusual

Question 21

21. At taxpayer fires, nothing affects the outcome of an operation as much as ventilation.
    Which of the following is an incorrect point about ventilation? (5.5.22, 5.5.23, 5.5.25)
    (A) A cellar fires, it is often necessary to cut the first floor to provide the necessary means of
    ventilation, so that the engine companies may advance their lines for extinguishment.
    (B) When cutting the first floor, the cuts should be made near windows in the doorways and
    aisles.
    (C) At times due to intense heat, smoke, or a lack of horizontal ventilation, the roof must be
    opened over the ventilation holes on the first floor.
    (D) A number of older taxpayers may have roofs of bow truss construction. These may be of
    wood, steel or a combination of both. If a serious fire involves roof portions then members
    should not be committed to cut such roofs.

Answer 21

21. B

Question 22

22. In newer taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists. All of the
    following are correct concerning these lightweight joists with the exception of which one?
    (5.5.26)
    (A) The most common decking is corrugated steel. With this type decking, the joists are
    spaced from four to six feet.
    (B) Steel rib straight trusses do not present the same problems for fire spread as does wood
    joist construction. The danger is their being weakened by heat and fire from the contents or
    occupancy.
    (C) Vertical ventilation of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be
    undertaken.
    (D) Gypsum concrete decking is of lightweight construction, spans wide spaces and is
    vulnerable to moisture. Members should not be committed to roof operations, and interior
    operations shall be conducted form areas of safety due to the weight of such decking materials
    (17.5 lbs. sq. ft).

Answer 22

22. C

Question 23

23. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning trench cuts? (5.6.1,
    5.6.2, 5.6.3, 5.6.5)
    (A) The width of the trench cut should be at least 2 feet wide.
    (B) Trenching may take the place of ventilation holes.
    (C) It is practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a
    major portion of the cockloft.
    (D) In the event of a cellar fire or a serious first floor fire where successful operations are
    doubtful and it is feared that that fire may eventually extend into the cockloft, a trench as a
    defensive measure may be advisable.

Answer 23

23. D

Question 24

1. There are three ways in which a masonry exterior building wall may collapse. The wall
   may collapse at a 90 degree angle, the wall may crumble in a curtain fall collapse, or the wall
   may collapse in an inward/outward fashion. Please choose the incorrect point about these types
   of collapses. (p. 57 - 59)
   (A) A 90 degree angle collapse is the most common type of masonry wall failure that occurs at
   fires.
   (B) The collapse of the brick veneer, brick cavity, or masonry-backed stone wall often occurs
   in a curtain-fall manner.
   (C) In an inward-outward collapse, the top of the broken wall usually falls outward and the
   bottom falls inward.
   (D) An inward/outward collapse may be caused by the collapse of a bowstring timber truss
   roof.

Answer 24

1. C

Question 25

2. A fire officer can never predict the way in which a wall will collapse, so when a safe
   distance is established between the unstable wall and the firefighters in the command, the officer
   must expect the worst: a 90 degree angle wall collapse with chunks of bricks and steel lintels
   thrown out farther than the falling wall. Which of the following are correct statement(s)
   concerning masonry wall collapse? (more than 1 correct) (p. 60)
   (A) As a general rule, the collapse zone – the area adjacent to an unstable wall that firefighters
   should not be allowed to enter- is a distance equal to the height of the wall.
   (B) The collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall if an
   explosion triggers the wall collapse.
   (C) The wall collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall
   if ordered by the IC.
   (D) The wall collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall
   when a timber truss roof triggers the wall collapse.

Answer 25

2. A, B, C

Question 26

3. At fires where the officer in command suspects an explosion or other factor to cause a wall
   to collapse out into the street for a distance greater than the height of the wall, which of the
   following is a correct action to take? (p. 60)
   (A) Only a chief should keep everyone away from the front wall of the fire building altogether.
   (B) A heavy caliber stream should be positioned in a flanking position, that is, on either side of
   the front wall, beyond the outer perimeter of the building’s width.
   (C) Under no conditions will a master stream be operated inside a collapse zone.

Answer 26

3. B

Question 27

4. A façade is a general term that indicates the front of a building and could include a parapet
   wall, a marquee, a canopy, and/or a cornice. All of these are cantilever structures, but which one
   has the additional hazard of contributing to fire spread? (p. 63)
   (A) Parapet
   (B) Marquee
   (C) Canopy
   (D) Cornice

Answer 27

4. D

Question 28

5. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about decorative wall attachments?
   (p. 60 - 63)
   (A) A parapet wall built over a one or two story commercial building with large display
   windows beneath it is a collapse-prone structure because the parapet walls are often supported by
   steel beams.
   (B) A marquee may be connected to the parapet by steel cables.
   (C) A canopy is less of a collapse danger than a marquee.
   (D) The area beneath a marquee, canopy, or cornice is considered to be inside the burning building.

Answer 28

5. C

Question 29

6. What is the most dangerous area outside of a burning structure? (p. 67)
   (A) The rear of the building
   (B) The sidewalk directly in front of the building.
   (C) The side of a building

Answer 29

6. B

Question 30

7. Which of the following is not considered a design defect in the construction of a parapet
   wall? (p. 67 - 69)
   (A) It’s a freestanding wall. A front, freestanding parapet wall over a store can be considered a
   cantilever beam.
   (B) The steel lintel that that supports the parapet wall.
   (C) Lack of steel reinforcement rods embedded in a parapet wall
   (D) Coping stones and cornices of a parapet wall
   (E) Unfinished brick on one side of the parapet wall

Answer 30

7. C

Question 31

8. When does a parapet wall often collapse? (p.73)
   (A) During the incipient/growth stage of a fire
   (B) During the fully developed/free burning stage
   (C) During the overhauling stage of a fire

Answer 31

8. C

Question 32

9. Which of the following contains the correct actions to take when collapse is a concern?
   (p. 74)
   (A) A FF should report any condition that might indicate structural failure to his officer.
   (B) When an officer is notified by a FF of a condition that might indicate structural failure, he
   must first notify the IC and then safeguard firefighters.
   (C) Only chiefs and officers are responsible for reporting signs of structural failure.

Answer 32

9. A

Question 33

1. Which of the following situations would not require members to use their SCBA in
   accordance with FDNY Policy? (2.1, TB Confined Space Sec. 2.1)
   (A) Performing interior structural firefighting operations.
   (B) Performing interior structural emergency operations when toxic substances or smoke are
   present
   (C) Operating at exterior positions where exposed to smoke or toxic substances.
   (D) Operating in a Confined Space, after the atmosphere has been verified safe

Answer 33

1. D

Question 34

2. In which two of the following choices can members operating in smoke or toxic
   atmospheres remove their SCBA regulator? (2.2)
   (A) The member’s cylinder becomes depleted.
   (B) The Sector Supervisor that the member is operating under authorizes discontinuance of use.
   (C) The member’s SCBA is malfunctioning, so as to cut off air supply.
   (D) In order to share their air with another member.

Answer 34

2. A, C

Question 35

3. Engine 100 is operating a 1 ¾” handline on the 2nd floor of a Row frame building when the
   Nozzle FF notifies the officer that his SCBA cylinder is depleted. Due to this being a serious
   fire, a Fire Floor Sector and Floor Above Sector have been established. Which action taken by
   the officer of Engine 100 is correct? (2.4)
   (A) The officer notifies the Fire Floor Sector Supervisor that a member under his supervision
   has a depleted SCBA cylinder and is being accompanied to a safe area by the Control FF who is using an SCBA.
   (B) The officer tells the Nozzle FF to move back on the line and to exit the building himself.
   (C) The officer notifies the IC that a member under his supervision has a depleted SCBA
   cylinder and is being accompanied to a safe area by the Control FF who is wearing an SCBA.
   (D) The officer withdraws the unit from the fire floor until the Nozzle FF can service their
   SCBA.

Answer 35

3. A

Question 36

4. Ladder 100 is operating at the scene of a building collapse. As the 1st arriving Ladder
   Company, Ladder 100 has already removed surface victims, and is searching voids. After
   locating a civilian trapped in an unsupported lean-to void, in which CO readings are 36 PPM,
   which two actions taken by Ladder 100 are incorrect? (2.7, 2.8)
   (A) Ladder 100 utilizes the FAST PAK from their apparatus to provide air supply to the
   civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
   (B) Ladder 100 utilizes a spare SCBA that they obtain from Ladder 300, the FAST Unit, to
   provide air supply to the civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
   (C) Ladder 100 utilizes the FAST Pak assigned to Ladder 300, the FAST Unit, to provide air
   supply to the civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
   (D) A member of Ladder 100 provides air to the civilian from his own SCBA while extrication
   efforts are underway.

Answer 36

4. C, D

Question 37

5. The first full week in May each year, Deputy Chiefs shall cause all engine and squad
   companies to obtain pressure readings on the hydrants nearest their quarters. Which one of the
   following is incorrect concerning these procedures? (2.1, 2.2, 2.4,)
   (A) Readings for each calendar day, Sunday to Saturday inclusive, will be taken at
   approximately 1000 hours, 1300 hours, 1600 hours, 1900 hours, and 2200 hours.
   (B) The readings taken shall be recorded on the Hydrant Pressure Chart (Form CD-65)
   (C) All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants. If the Officer in
   Command determines that such action will precipitate an incident, he shall notify the Police
   Department and shut down the hydrant.
   (D) After completion, the Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted at the Housewatch Desk
   throughout the summer season. This chart will be near the Rad – chart.

Answer 37

5. C

2.4 All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants whenever the
officer in command determines that such action will not precipitate an incident. The
Police Department shall be notified when necessary.

Question 38

6. Phase I constitutes “Water Pressure Alert” Procedures. Choose the correct choice about
   Phase I procedures. (3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.7)
   (A) Starting at 1000 hours only engines and squads shall take and record the pressure on the
   hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours.
   (B) Within 1 hour of a Phase One announcement, Battalion Chiefs shall leave quarters and
   physically survey their districts to observe and note the number and location of illegally opened
   hydrants. Battalion Chiefs may not schedule units to assist in this survey.
   (C) Battalion Chiefs shall notify the Deputy Chief of their division of the pressure on hydrants
   recorded by their units and recommend a Phase II be implemented if warranted.
   (D) All notifications shall be via telephone.

Answer 38

6. C

3.3 Battalion chiefs shall notify the deputy chief of their division of the following at the
conclusion of the survey:
A. The pressure on hydrants recorded by their units.
B. If warranted, recommend a Phase II be implemented.
C. Other actions that may be required. (Refer to Section 3.5)

Question 39

7. Phase II is implemented for a Water Pressure Emergency. Units shall patrol in their district
   as per schedules established be Deputy Chiefs, and shall shut down and/or place spray caps
   unless a serious confrontation may result. Which of the following incorrectly describes Phase II
   procedures? (4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
   (A) Whenever a hydrant is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
   recorded by completing a “Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report” (Form CD-64).
   The Officer on duty may require the FF who shut down and/or inspected the hydrant to enter the
   required information on form CD-64.
   (B) The CD-64 shall be faxed to DEP. If a hydrant is found defective, it is not necessary to
   also complete a Defective Hydrant Report (CD-63).
   (C) Upon completion of assigned patrol duties, the Officer on duty shall fax to the battalion:
   the number or illegally opened hydrants, the number shut down, the number of spray caps placed
   and any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressures that could adversely affect
   firefighting operations.
   (D) Every 3 hours during a Phase II emergency, the BC shall provide the administrative DC
   with the information received from units in Choice (C).

Answer 39

7. D

4.3 Whenever a hydrant(s) is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
recorded by completing a “Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report” (form
CD-64). Officer on duty may require the firefighter who shut down and/or inspected the
hydrant to enter the required information on form CD-64.

4.3 Whenever a hydrant(s) is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
recorded by completing a “Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report” (form
CD-64). Officer on duty may require the firefighter who shut down and/or inspected the
hydrant to enter the required information on form CD-64.

4.4 Officers on duty upon completing their assigned patrol duties, shall fax to the battalion
the following information:
A. the number of illegally opened hydrants,
B. the number shut down,
C. the number of spray caps placed, and
D. any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressures that could adversely
affect firefighting operations.
4.5 Every 2 hours during a Phase II emergency, the battalion chief shall provide the
administrative deputy chief with the information received from units in section 4.4 above

Question 40

8. During a Phase II Water Pressure Emergency, engine companies shall be prepared to utilize
   booster tank water, small diameter hose and nozzle tips to their fullest extent and must anticipate
   the need for relay operations. Upon completion of operations, officers on duty shall insure that
   booster tanks are filled and maintained full. The booster tank may only be filled by hydrant
   pressure or another low-pressure source. (4.7)
   (A) Agree or (D) Disagree

Answer 40

8. D

4.7 Engine Companies shall be prepared to utilize booster tank water, small diameter hose
and nozzle tips to their fullest extent and must anticipate the need for relay operations.
Upon completion of operations, officers on duty shall insure that booster tanks are filled
and maintained full.
Note: The use of high fire pump pressure to fill the Booster Tank may result in damage
to the internal baffles of the Booster Tank. As a general rule, the Booster Tank should
only be filled by hydrant pressure or another low-pressure source. If absolutely necessary,
the Booster Tank may be filled receiving high or low pressures, while the apparatus is in
pumps.

Question 41

9. The IC shall establish rehabilitation according to the circumstances of the incident. Which
   of the following is an incorrect statement about rehabilitation and care procedures?
   (2.1, 2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.3)
   (A) Rehabilitation can only take place with the establishment of a formal functional area of
   operation.
   (B) Upon arrival of the RAC Unit at an All Hands incident, the RAC FF shall contact
   Command via HT for the proposed location to co-locate the RAC unit with EMS resources.
   (C) At an All Hands incident members shall report to the RAC Unit for rehabilitation and care.
   (D) Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before
   being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Medical Branch
   Director, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.

Answer 41

9. A

Question 42

10. Which of the following incidents is not mentioned as an example of when the IC will
    establish a Rehabilitation Group? (2.2)
    (A) At long duration incidents
    (B) At physically demanding incidents
    (C) In extreme temperatures
    (D) At All Hands or greater fires

Answer 42

10. D

2.2 A Rehabilitation Group shall be established by the IC at 2nd alarm or greater fires. At longduration
and/or physically demanding incidents or in extreme temperatures the IC should
establish a Rehabilitation Group.
2.2.1 When the Rehabilitation Group is established, the Medical Branch Director will
designate an EMS Officer as the Rehabilitation Group Supervisor. The
Rehabilitation Group will consist of an EMS Officer, a MERV or the MRTU, a
BLS ambulance and the Recuperation and Care (RAC) Unit.

Question 43

11. At 2nd alarm or greater fires, or as determined by the IC, all members exposed to products
    of combustion, shall have their oxyhemoglobin (SpO2), and carboxyhemoglobin (SpCO) levels
    measured with a RAD-57 Pulse CO-Oximeter. In which of the following instances would a
    member not be considered a patient? (3.6.1)
    (A) They are complaining of illness
    (B) They have symptoms of CO exposure or hypoxia
    (C) They have a SpCO of 10 % or greater or a SpO2 of less than 80%
    (D) They are complaining of injury

Answer 43

11. C

3.6.1 Members will be considered patients if:
 They are complaining of illness or injury.
 Have symptoms of CO exposure or hypoxia.
 Have a SpCO of 15% or greater or a SpO2 of less than 90%.

Question 44

12. Large padlocks with hardened shackles have been issued to Battalions to secure premises.
    Which of the following are conditions for the use of these locks? (2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6)
    (A) Commercial or residential occupancy
    (B) Very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred
    (C) Egress gained through forced entry that was accomplished with no damage.
    (D) There is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises
    (E) There is nothing abnormal or unusual about the premises or its contents
    (F) The original padlock hasp and/or staples are in place, or there is a folding gate, or similar
    devices that can be easily secured with a padlock.

Answer 44

12-B, D, E, F,

2.2 Commercial occupancy.
2.3 Very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred.
2.4 Egress gained through forced entry that was accomplished with minimal damage.
(Padlocks removed, through the lock means, etc.)
2.5 The original padlock hasp and/or staples are in place, or there is a folding gate, or similar
devices that can be easily secured with a padlock.
2.6 There is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises.

Question 45

13. When a BC decides to secure a premise with a Department issued padlock, they shall take
    several steps. Which of the following incorrectly describes the duties of a BC? (3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
    (A) The Battalion Chief shall issue a padlock and key to a company at the scene and direct the
    company to secure the premises.
    (B) Battalions shall carry locks and both keys in Battalion car. Keys and locks shall be
    properly tagged.
    (C) When necessary, new locks and tags shall be requisitioned from Repairs & Transportation
    Unit

Answer 45

13. B

Question 46

14. After investigating a Class 3 alarm at an unoccupied warehouse at 0300 hours, BC Smith
    gives a Department padlock to the officer of Ladder 100 and directs the officer to secure the
    premises by locking a roll down gate. Which of the following is an incorrect action for the
    officer of Ladder 100 to take upon return to quarters? (4.2.1, 4.2.2)
    (A) The dispatcher was notified of the securing of the premises, for entry on his Secured
    Premises list.
    (B) The officer made appropriate journal entries.
    (C) The key was placed in a secure place in the housewatch in case the unit was relocated or
    operating at an extended operation when the owner calls the dispatcher to have the lock removed.

Answer 46

14. C

Question 47

15. The dispatcher shall maintain a list of premises secured by companies with a padlock.
    When the owner or occupant calls a Borough Communications Office the dispatcher will notify
    the company that placed the lock to respond to the premises to remove the lock. Which action
    taken by the company that responds is incorrect? (4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
    (A) The company responds as soon as practicable upon receipt of instructions from the
    dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises.
    (B) The officer shall secure positive ID of the person desiring entry, and have the appropriate
    receipt signed and have the padlock removed.
    (C) If there is any reasonable doubt as to the identity of the person, the Fire Marshals and
    Administrative BC is to be summoned.
    (D) The company returns the padlock with the key to the appropriate Battalion.

Answer 47

15. C

Question 48

16. With the new Modified Response program, operations are sometimes completed by a single
    unit. Which of the following are considered to be within the capability of a single unit? (1.2)
17. Outside Rubbish Fire
18. Brush Fires
19. Food on the stove
20. Compactor Fire
21. Oil Burner
22. Gas leak
    (A) 1,2,3,4
    (B) 2,4,5,6
    (C) 1,2,3,5
    (D) 3,4,5,6

Answer 48

16. C

Question 49

17. Implementation of single unit operations includes transmitting a Signal 10-19 to indicate
    that one company is required at the scene of an incident and no further assistance is required.
    Which of the following incorrectly describes this implementation? (2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.6)
    (A) When a Chief Officer responds to a box and arrives before the company officer has clearly
    defined the situation, it shall be his decision to institute a single unit operation and designate the
    unit to perform.
    (B) When a Chief Officer has not yet responded to a box, it will be the decision of the Officer
    in Command to implement a one unit operation. The Officer in Command is a Captain or
    senior Lieutenant on scene.
    (C) When a single engine company responds and determines that the situation does not require
    additional help, the engine company, now adequately equipped with the necessary tools, will
    handle the job alone.
    (D) The officer in command of the unit operating at a single unit operation shall obtain all the
    information required and is responsible for forwarding the required incident report (fire or
    emergency)

Answer 49

17. B

Question 50

18. Engine 100 responds to a rubbish fire behind a hospital. The officer of Engine 100 makes
    the following statements about this operation. In which statement should the officer be
    corrected? (Ref. #1)
    (A) Fires in dumpsters should be flooded and the dumpster not entered.
    (B) Hospitals are required to have procedures for disposing of waste. The waste is usually
    packaged in different colored bags.
    (C) Red bags are for potentially infectious material, this waste must be incinerated and may
    contain needles or other sharp objects.
    (D) White bags contain potentially infectious material which has been auto cleaned (sterilized
    by superheated steam under pressure). These bags may be opened by members wearing gloves to
    ensure final extinguishment.

Answer 50

18. D

Question 51

1. Fires in mailboxes can be handled efficiently by the use of carbon dioxide extinguishers.
   Which of the following is the correct procedure to use? (Fires 1)
   (A) For all types of mailboxes, use 2 short blasts and wait 3 minutes.
   (B) Additional extinguishing agent should not be injected after the initial short blasts to avoid
   destroying the mail.
   (C) The extinguishing medium should be injected into the mail slot and the slot cover kept
   opened to provide ventilation.
   (D) Use 3 short blasts and wait 2 minutes when extinguishing fire in a Parcel Post, Medium
   Letter, or Small Letter mailbox.

Answer 51

1. D

Question 52

2. Choose the incorrect description of categories of dogs that may be encountered by
   Firefighters. (Fires 2, Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
   (A) Security dogs are classified as Attack Dogs, Watch Dogs, and Command Dogs.
   (B) House Dogs are generally untrained and will not be intimidated by loud commands or
   threatening gestures.
   (C) Household Pets bark but do not present a problem.
   (D) Attack Dogs and Command Dogs will attack, and Watch dogs will sound a warning by
   barking but will not attack.

Answer 52

2. B

Question 53

3. Ladder 100 arrives at a fire in an H type Multiple Dwelling at 1300 hours on a Tuesday.
   Smoke is seeping from a locked door on the 3rd floor. While forcible entry is being performed,
   the officer notices a sign posted that indicate a security dog is present. Which of the following is
   an incorrect action taken by members? (4.2, 4.6, 4.8, 4.9)
   (A) Ladder 100 stopped forcing entry and called the listed number relative to the security dog.
   (B) Ladder 100 opened the door slowly and when they encountered the dog, they kept it at a
   distance by using an extinguisher stream into the dog’s face.
   (C) A chair was pushed towards the dog and the dog was allowed to bite it. When the dog bit
   the chair, resistance was offered to the bite.
   (D) A charged hose line was used as a back up.

Answer 53

3. A

4.2 If smoke or fire conditions are not evident and a dog is present, call the listed number
relative to security dogs (24-hour service is maintained to take charge of these dogs).

4.6 Once the door of the premise is unlocked, it should be opened slowly. If the animal
appears dangerous, it is a good practice to keep it at a distance by using a pressurized
water extinguisher or a CO2 extinguisher if available. Direct the extinguisher stream into
the dog’s face; then, use short bursts of the extinguisher to back the dog into another
room or out of the area entirely

4.8 If the dog is still aggressive, push a chair or tool towards the animal and allow the dog to
bite it. Offer resistance to the bite. Often the dog will hang on, giving you a chance to
call for assistance or to move to safety

4.9 A charged hose line should be used as a back up when methods in sections 4.6, 4.7,
and 4.8 are used. If necessary, use the hose stream on the dog

Question 54

4. While overhauling a mattress fire in a NYC Housing Authority Building, Ladder 200 took
   several actions when they encountered a foam rubber mattress that was involved in fire. Which
   one was not correct? (Fires 3, Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4)
   (A) The foam rubber mattress was rolled up and tied tightly with rope before it was removed to
   the hallway.
   (B) An additional water extinguisher was used to effect complete extinguishment after the
   initial extinguishment was performed by a water extinguisher.
   (C) The charred material was removed to a tub filled with water due to evidence of fire burning
   below the surface.
   (D) After realizing that the mattress was actually cotton filled instead of foam rubber, Ladder
   200 ensured that the mattress was wet down thoroughly with a hose line and was tied tightly
   before moving.

Answer 54

4. B

Question 55

5. Choose the correct point about Lexan. (Fires 4, Sec. 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 2.2, 2.3)
   (A) It has an impact resistance 250 times greater than safety glass and will not shatter, even on
   the impact of a bullet.
   (B) It’s weight is one third the weight of glass, and it has one half the thermal conductivity of
   glass.
   (C) Lexan is approved for installation in NYC schools for windows up to the 2nd floor.
   (D) When installed on the windows of a Nynex building, Lexan is found only on the first floor
   windows.

Answer 55

5. A

1.4 Its weight is half the weight of glass.

1.5 It is self extinguishing and has one third the thermal conductivity of glass.

2.2 It is approved for installation in New York City schools for windows up to
seventy-five feet in height.

2.3 For security purposes, LEXAN is installed in the first floor windows of many
buildings owned or operated by Nynex, formerly the N. Y. Telephone Company. At
times it is installed on cellar windows and second floor windows.

Question 56

6. Which of the following tools may be used to ventilate LEXAN windows? (More than 1
   correct) (Section 3)
   (A) Portable Power Saw equipped with an aluminum oxide blade.
   (B) The Sawzall with the coarse wood tooth blade.
   (C) Superior Air Hammer (Air Chisel)
   (D) Oxyacetylene torch
   (E) Pike Axe
   (F) Chain Saw
   (G) Portable electric hand saw with a carbon tipped blade
   (H) A portable ladder used at ground level or lower

Answer 56

6. B, G, H

3.2 LEXAN can be cut quickly and easily by using the Portable Power Saw equipped
with the carbide tipped blade.
3.3 The Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blade, is also effective on LEXAN but it is
slower than the Portable Power Saw.
3.4 The Superior Air Hammer (air chisel) is ineffective.
3.5 The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective.
3.6 The pike axe is ineffective

3.7 The chain saw is unsafe to use since it tends to shatter the LEXAN and throws chips
like shrapnel.
3.8 The portable electric hand saw can be used but the wood cutting blade tends to gum
up quickly. A carbide tipped blade would be more effective

Question 57

1. Apparatus accidents can occur while the apparatus is being operated in reverse gear.
   Which of the following is an incorrect action taken when an apparatus is being operated in
   reverse? (3.1, 3.3, 3.4)
   (A) The officer ensures that all members of the company are fully utilized when the apparatus
   is backing up.
   (B) Take advantage of traffic signals when available. Use all lights other than warning lights
   when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear.
   (C) The officer shall take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near
   the cab. The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered.
   (D) Members of the unit should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on
   each side, and shall be directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse gear.

Answer 57

1. B

Question 58

2. When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be
   brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection. When may the apparatus be backed
   into the intersection? (3.4)
   (A) When the chauffeur has verified that all traffic has stopped.
   (B) When the members acting as guides give approval.
   (C) When the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so.
   (D) When the traffic light for oncoming traffic is red.

Answer 58

2. C

Question 59

3. Lt. Jones is conducting a drill with the members of Ladder 300, a tiller apparatus, on the
   proper way to operate in reverse gear. In which statement should Lt. Jones be corrected?
   (5.1, 5.2, 6.1)
   (A) The tiller person should, if possible, center the vehicle in the allowable entrance area.
   (B) If it is not possible to center the vehicle, then when the chauffeur’s side of the apparatus is
   blind to quarter’s entrance doors, the tiller person should bring the apparatus closer to the
   officer’s side.
   (C) When the chauffeur can see the quarter’s entrance doors, the tiller person should bring the
   apparatus closer to the chauffeur’s side.
   (D) When backing up at operations, it is safer to use the handie talkie instead of hand signals
   between the chauffeur and other members.

Answer 59

3. D

Question 60

4. Ladder 100, a tiller apparatus, receives a run at 2300 hours for a reported fire in a multiple
   dwelling. Which action taken by Ladder 100 is incorrect? (3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.6)
   (A) Members, properly dressed for fire duty, proceed to the front of quarters to warn
   pedestrians and vehicle traffic. Members are equipped with flashlights.
   (B) All members, except officer, chauffeur, and tillerman board the apparatus outside of
   quarters.
   (C) The chauffeur determines when the apparatus is ready to proceed.
   (D) While leaving quarters, the chauffeur uses all lights and warning devices necessary to alert
   traffic.

Answer 60

4. C

Question 61

5. While responding to a reported fire with numerous reports of people trapped, Engine 200
   approaches a school bus in the opposite lane which is discharging children. It would be incorrect
   for Engine 200 to stop and remain stopped until? (Ref. 1)
   (A) The bus resumes motion.
   (B) The bus driver signals Engine 200 to proceed.
   (C) The officer determines that it is safe to proceed.
   (D) A police officer signals Engine 200 to proceed.

Answer 61

5. C

Question 62

1. The use of a LCS can only be ordered by the Incident Commander (IC). This includes the
   first arriving engine using its “Deck Pipe” for a quick fire knock down or exposure protection. If
   LCS use is ordered, all operating forces within the building must be notified and time permitted
   for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions. Confirmation of their safe withdrawal should
   be verified by handie-talkie or face to face communication with the IC. As an additional safety
   measure, the LCS should be quickly swept through the building without stopping at any window
   or other opening to serve as a warning to any members left in the area of operation. Please
   choose from the list below specific operating tactics for LCS? (Engine Operations,
   Chapter 11, section 11.2)
   A) At well involved frame buildings, vacants, and taxpayers, tower ladder operations can be
   anticipated and engine apparatus should position with this in mind.
   B) Use of the “deck- pipe” should not interfere with proper tower ladder positioning for
   effective use of elevated LCS.
   C) An engine company supplying LCS should always be dedicated to that task and not
   engaged in supplying hand-lines.
   D) Relief valves may be use when supplying LCS.
   E) An engine company supplying a LCS during in-line pumping must be augmented as soon
   as possible.

Answer 62

1. Answer: A, B, E - C = Whenever possible, an engine company supplying LCS should be
   dedicated to that task and not engaged in supplying hand-lines. D = Relief valves must be used
   when supplying LCS.