WEEK #3 WEEK OF 1/27/14 PART I – CFR-D MANUAL CH. #3 PART II – DUNN CH. #1 - 3 PART III – AUC 338 PART IV – FFP – PD'S CH. #1 - 5 PART V – TB - EMERGENCIES #2 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO

Question 1

PART I – CFR-D MANUAL CH. #3:
1. Regarding decontamination procedures, a company officer should be aware of all of the
following except? (15.2, 15.2.1, 15.2.2, 15.2.3, 15.3.2)
A. The company officer will determine if the minor cleaning (decontamination) procedure can
be used on the items in question
B. Equipment and clothing with minor contamination of blood or other body fluids should be
spot cleaned as soon as practical using a mixture of one part bleach to 99 parts water
C. The member preparing the disinfection mixture should empty the packet of bleach into the
container first, and then fill it with water
D. The use of stronger (more than 99 to 1) mixtures has no advantage in killing bacteria and
viruses and may deteriorate equipment
E. Mixtures remaining at the end of a tour should de disposed of in the slop sink. Officers
shall ensure that a new solution is prepared each tour

Answer 1

1. E

C. Mixtures remaining after 24 hours shall be disposed in the slop sink.

Question 2

2. All of the following items may be completely immersed in the decontamination mixture in
   the slop sink except? (15.3.7, 15.6.1)
   A. Boots
   B. Helmets
   C. Motorola portable radios / handie-talkies
   D. Non-Motorola portable radios / handie-talkies

Answer 2

2. D

15.3.7 Boots and helmets can be immersed in the slop sink. The solution can be applied
to hard to reach areas on boots and helmets by using a cleaning cloth soaked in
the bleach solution.

15.6.1 Non-Motorola portable radios/handie-talkies shall not be decontaminated in
quarters. The portable radios/handie-talkie shall be turned off and placed in a
double sealed clear plastic bag with biohazard label attached. Bagged items shall
be placed on the apparatus in an appropriate location to preserve the integrity of
the bag and transported to quarters. The bagged items shall be placed in a light
traffic area (remote and secure) on the apparatus floor. Special Operations
Command (SOC) shall be notified to pickup and decontaminate any non-
Motorola portable radios/handie-talkies.

Question 3

3. If a firefighter’s work duty uniform or firefighting PPE becomes contaminated with large
   amounts of body fluids, it would be incorrect to think? (15.7)
   A. SOC should be notified of the need for temporary replacement equipment
   B. All items requiring decontamination should be bagged in double red bags
   C. The bagged items shall be placed on the apparatus in an appropriate location to preserve the
   bag integrity and transported to quarters
   D. The bagged items, marked with the member’s name, assigned unit, and type of
   contaminant, shall be placed in a light traffic location on the apparatus floor pending collection
   by SOC

Answer 3

3. B

Question 4

4. Regarding the storage and use of bleach, it would be incorrect to state that?
   (15.13, 15.14.1)
   A. Bleach shall not be mixed with hydrogen peroxide, ammonia, or any other cleansing agent
   B. Members over exposed to bleach should be moved to fresh air
   C. Members who have made contact with bleach shall immediately flush their skin or eyes
   with running water for at least 5 minutes
   D. BHS or the Medical Officer on emergency duty should be notified by the Officer on duty
   when bleach overexposure occurs

Answer 4

4. C

15.14 First Aid for Overexposure to Bleach
15.14.1 Members overexposed to bleach shall be moved to fresh air. In case of contact,
immediately flush skin or eyes with running water for at least 15 minutes. The
Officer on duty shall notify BHS during normal clinic hours or the Medical
Officer on emergency duty at all other times.

Question 5

5. The single most effective method of reducing disease transmission is? (16.2)
   A. Frequent, adequate hand washing
   B. Use of masks
   C. Getting promoted to Lieutenant
   D. Transmitting a 10-91

Answer 5

5. A

Question 6

1. Fire resistance & collapse resistance are directly related to the mass of a building. (Ch 1)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 6

1. A

Question 7

2. When objects must be thrown from windows during overhaul and salvage operations, it
   would be correct to believe which point(s) below? (Ch 1)
   A. You must obtain permission from the IC
   B. A FF must be outside the building to act as a Safety Guard
   C. The FF (Safety Guard) must indicate when the area is clear and objects may be thrown
   from windows
   D. When all objects have been thrown, notify the FF (Safety Guard)

Answer 7

2. A, B, C

Question 8

3. When operating at fires, it would be incorrect to think that? (Ch 1)
   A. When venting windows from the inside of a building, first attempt to manually open the
   window before breaking glass with a tool
   B. If venting windows by breaking glass from the inside, first break a small section to warn
   firefighters outside
   C. When trimming broken glass from windows, knock the glass shards outside after assuring
   the area is clear below
   D. Commercial glass is more dangerous than residential glass due to its thickness and weight

Answer 8

3. C

Question 9

4. Dunn added new definitions in his revised book. Which new definition is incorrectly
   indicated? (Ch 2)
   A. Corner safe areas — the four flanking zones around a building perimeter
   B. Fluted metal steel deck — A wavy piece of sheet steel deck used to support a concrete floor
   C. Global collapse — a pancake collapse of all floors with the walls remaining in place
   D. Progressive collapse — The initial structural failure spreads from structural element to
   structural element resulting in a collapse of the entire structure or a disproportionately large part
   of it

Answer 9

4. C

Question 10

5. Which point mentioned below in the definitions is inaccurate? (Ch 2)
   A. The removal or destruction of any part of an arch will cause the entire arch to collapse
   B. Unrestrained beam ends (fire cut beams) will collapse at fires more readily than restrained
   beams, but floor collapses with unrestrained beams will not topple bearing walls
   C. Non-bearing walls in balloon construction often fail in an inward-outward fashion
   D. The presence of a buttress on an exterior wall can indicate the point where the roof trusses
   or girders are supported by a bearing wall

Answer 10

5. C

Question 11

6. Fire load is the measure of maximum heat release when all combustibles in an area are
   burned. Both the content and structure of a building contribute to fire load. Structural collapse
   during a fire is directly proportional to the fire load. (Ch 2)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 11

6. A

Question 12

7. Loads are forces acting on a structure. Dead loads, live loads, and impact loads can cause
   collapse. Which example of a load is incorrectly indicated? (Ch 2)
   A. Torsional load — A floor collapse in a brick and joist building creates a torsional load on
   the bearing walls
   B. Static load — A refrigerator in a kitchen
   C. Impact load — A master stream directed in a pulsating manner against a building
   D. Concentrated load — Heavy cast-iron fixtures in a bathroom
   E. Dead load — Fire escapes on an OLT
   F. Live load — A file cabinet and a desk in an office

Answer 12

7. A

Question 13

8. A primary structural member is a structural member that supports another structural
   member in the same building. The collapse of a primary structural member may trigger the
   secondary collapse of the other structural member it supports. All of the following are considered
   primary structural members except? (Ch 2)
   A. Bearing Walls E. Hip Rafters
   B. Columns F. Ridgepoles
   C. Girders G. Tail beams
   D. Header Beams H. Trimmer beams

Answer 13

8. G

Question 14

9. A partition wall that extends from floor slab to the floor slab above is known as a ______
   wall? (Ch 2)
   A. Demising B. Veneer C. Spandrel D. Area

Answer 14

9. A

Question 15

10. A fire wall between two buildings has all of the following characteristics except?
    (Ch 2)
    A. It is designed to prevent the passage of fire
    B. It must be independent of the roof structure on either side
    C. It must be designed to withstand the complete collapse of a structure on either side
    D. A party wall with a parapet extending above the roof is an example of a true fire wall

Answer 15

10. D

Question 16

11. Match the type of construction below with its major firefighting problem? (Ch 3)
12. Fire Resistive A. Combustible outside wood walls
13. Non-combustible B. Large wood interior timber framework
14. Ordinary (Brick and Joist) C. Flat steel deck roof that ignites
15. Heavy Timber D. Concealed space fire / smoke spread
16. Wood Frame E. Central HVAC system smoke spread

Answer 16

11.

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A

Question 17

12. Match the type of construction below with its major collapse hazard (Ch 3)
13. Fire Resistive A. Concrete and Fluted metal deck
14. Non-combustible B. Open web bar joist—roof cave in
15. Ordinary (Brick and Joist) C. Parapet wall collapse
16. Heavy Timber D. Combustible bearing walls
17. Wood Frame E. Falling masonry walls

Answer 17

13. A
14. B
15. C
16. E
17. D

Question 18

13. Members operating at a fire-resistive, steel skeleton building would expect all of the
    following at a serious fire where heat reaches the fluted metal deck supporting the concrete floor
    above except? (Ch 3)
    A. The steel beams supporting the fluted metal deck may start to expand, and if restricted, they
    will sag and bow downward
    B. The floor may crack and erupt upwards several feet
    C. A heated concrete floor can crack, allowing heat, smoke and flame to spread to the floor
    above
    D. Steel expansion will be greater than the concrete when heated by fire

Answer 18

13. B

Question 19

14. Which should be treated with more caution with regard to the possibility of collapse at a
    fire in a typical building of Class 4, wood-frame construction? (Ch 3)
    A. Flames burning through or against a side wall of the structure
    B. Flames burning through or against a front or rear wall of the structure
    C. Fire burning through several floors
    D. Fire burning through the roof

Answer 19

14. A

Question 20

PART III – AUC 338 {Substations and Energized Electrical Equipment}:
1. The purpose of applying water streams to exposed electrical components at Con Ed
facilities is to prevent collateral damage and further loss of power to other areas of the city. In
regards to the application of water in these situations, it would be correct to state which methods
are permitted when placed at the appropriate, safe distances away? (2.1, 5.5)
A. Handlines
B. Tower Ladder
C. Engine Apparatus Deck Gun
D. Ladder Pipe
E. Portable Akron New Yorker Multiversal

Answer 20

1. B, C, D, E

Handlines shall never be used on energized electrical components at Con Edison
facilities.

5.5 If conditions don’t allow for the use of a Tower Ladder, consider the feasibility of using
an Engine Apparatus Deck Gun, the ladder pipe on an Aerial Ladder, or a portable Akron
New Yorker Multiversal.

Question 21

2. All of the following nozzles / tips are permitted for these operations when placed at the
   appropriate, safe distances away, except? (5.5 Note)
   A. Akron Turbomaster Nozzle C. Solid Stream Tips
   B. Aquastream Nozzle D. Fog Tips

Answer 21

2. B

NOTE: The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine
Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle shall not
be used because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintaining
safe operating distances.

Question 22

3. The Tower Ladder is the PRIMARY means of applying water to energized electrical
   components and requires the hydrant being used to be flushed thoroughly. Then the TL
   waterway should be flushed away from the operation for several minutes until the water runs
   clear. Regarding the operation of the basket stream, it would be incorrect to state that?
   (5.4.5, 5.4.6, 5.6.1, 7.3, 7.6)
   A. The apparatus should be connected to the facilities station ground grid prior to applying
   water
   B. All members must be removed from the apparatus before applying the stream to the target
   C. If a stream is not reaching the intended target, shut down the water supply at the pumper,
   and adjust the basket and / or stream pattern
   D. Only fresh water with or without foam shall be used. Do not use salt water

Answer 22

3. D

7.6 No additives including any type of foam shall be used. Additives increase the electrical
conductivity of the water.

Question 23

4. The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized
   electrical components of 138 kV is _____ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and _____
   feet for any stream less than 30 degrees? (5.3)
   A. 15, 25 B. 15, 75 C. 25, 75 D. 25, 125

Answer 23

4. B

5.3 The following are the minimum safe operating distances for applying water on energized
or de-energized electrical components:
• 15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
• 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and
streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and onehalf
(1½) lengths of hose.
• 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
This distance is equal to approximately one-half (½) length of hose.
• 125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams
and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and
one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
NOTE: These minimum safe operating distances are from the tip of the nozzle to the nearest
energized electrical equipment in the direction of the stream.

Question 24

5. The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized
   electrical components of 345 kV is _____ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and _____
   feet for any stream less than 30 degrees? (5.3)
   A. 15, 25 B. 15, 75 C. 25, 75 D. 25, 125

Answer 24

5. D

Question 25

6. Capacitor banks containing exposed electrical conductors are also found at substations in locked cages. Regarding operations at capacitor bank incidents, it would be least accurate to state that? (Add 2 2.3, 3.2, 5.4) A. The exposed electrical contacts pose an electrocution hazard B. Once power is removed, capacitors no longer contain a deadly electrical charge C. Treat all capacitor fires as PCB incidents D. Small fires can be extinguished with Dry Chemical

Answer 25

6. B

Question 26

7. If a Battery Room fire were to occur at a substation, which of the following extinguishing agents may be utilized? (Add 2 5.5) A. Water or Carbon dioxide C. Dry Chemical or Carbon Dioxide B. Water or Dry Chemical D. Only Dry Chemical may be used

Answer 26

7. B 5.5 Battery Room Fire – Carbon dioxide should not be used as an extinguishing agent at these fires. The plastic battery shell may crack when cold CO2 gas is applied to the fire causing sulfuric acid to spill out and be vaporized by the heat. This creates a respiratory hazard as the acid in the batteries is very corrosive. Dry chemical extinguishers will work here as will water application from a safe distance.

Question 27

8. Exposed 3” electrical bus that runs overhead is a major hazard found at Con Ed substations as high voltages are carried on the outside skin of the bus. Members arriving at a Con Ed or other independent substation should know that when raising an aerial ladder or tower ladder bucket, they should maintain a safe clearance of? (Add 2 Section 6) A. 10 feet from 138 kV exposed bus, and 18 feet from 345 kV exposed bus B. 18 feet from 138 kV exposed bus, and 18 feet from 345 kV exposed bus C. 10 feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where 138 kV exposed bus exists, and 18 feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where 345 kV exposed bus exists D. 18 feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where either 138 or 345 kV exposed bus exists

Answer 27

8. D

Question 28

9. Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6 gas) is a colorless, odorless gas that can present an asphyxiation hazard in confined areas and below grade spaces. It is used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment and is ______ times heavier than air? (Add 2 3.5) A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer 28

9. C a. Thermal decomposition of SF6 gas produces: 1) Hydrogen Fluoride (HF) – This gas has a strong irritating odor similar to rotten eggs. Prolonged exposure to HF gas will desensitize your sense of smell making it undetectable. Inhaling HF gas can result in immediate or delayed onset pulmonary edema. 2) Metal Fluoride powder – This white powder is a byproduct of thermal decomposition of SF6 gas and is extremely corrosive to bare skin. The initial sign of exposure would be reddening of the skin. Skin contact and inhalation must be avoided.

Question 29

10. First alarm units arriving at a major substation transformer fire would be correct if they took which of the following actions? (Add 2 4.1, 4.2, 5.2, 6) A. Responded to the designated muster site, retrieved pertinent hazard information from the Lockbox located outside the substation, & met with the Con Ed White Hat B. Stretched a 3 ½” line to the sprinkler siamese that protects the transformers and immediately charged the system C. Avoided bringing metal tools into the substation, and did not allow any tools to project above their shoulders. D. Did not place any aerial ladder or any part of a tower ladder over any wall or fence. Portable ladders, as necessary, were placed only against solid, concrete walls

Answer 29

10. C 5.2 A 3½” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged, to the sprinkler siamese if present. If requested by Con Edison White Hat, supply the siamese with water at the posted pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only the transformers.  When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 18-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line and do not place portable ladders, aerial ladders or tower ladder booms or buckets against or over the wall or fence. 4.2 Meet and consult with the Con Edison White Hat at the muster site. Have White Hat retrieve information from the Lockbox located inside the substation.

Question 30

PART IV – PRIVATE DWELLINGS CH. #1 - 5: 1. The major weakness from a firefighting and fire protection standpoint at private dwelling fires is the? (Ch 1 2.1) A. Lack of a secondary egress from the upper floors B. Open and unenclosed stairway C. Use of balloon frame construction D. Use of lightweight construction

Answer 30

1. B

Question 31

2. Balloon frame construction is commonly found in which three types of private dwelling(s)? (Ch 1 3.1, 3.3, Ch 4 3.1) A. Straight line colonial E. Ranch B. Cape Style F. Split Level C. Queen Anne G. Semi-attached D. Flat Roof H. Older, larger 2 ½-3 story PD’s

Answer 31

2. A, C, H

Question 32

3. All of the following construction features are commonly associated with each type of private dwelling indicated below except? (Ch 1 3.1-3.4) A. Straight Line Colonial—Have kitchens with a stairway leading to both the side door and the cellar B. Cape Style—Have dormers indicating likely 2nd floor bedrooms whose easiest access is via portable ladders to windows on the exposure 1 and 3 sides of the house C. Queen Anne—May have old hot air ducts and / or dumbwaiter shafts D. Flat Roof—Have decorative peaks in the front without a window indicating flat roof construction

Answer 32

3. B 3.2 Cape Style Houses (Photos 1.5 & 1.6) Cape houses usually come in two different styles. One is called an A frame cape and the other a wide line cape. The A frame cape has a front entrance and usually a side entrance with a stoop. The wide line cape will have a rear entrance and may have two window dormers that are normally found facing the street. The presence of dormers usually increases the likelihood of 2nd floor bedrooms. Portable laddering of these dormers can be very difficult. The easiest exterior access to these rooms, via portable ladders, is through windows that are found on the exposure 2 & 4 sides of the house. These homes may have a full sized second floor or a dormer on the rear only.

Question 33

4. Engine 302 arrives at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a private dwelling where fire is showing out of a side window. How many of the following construction features found on the exterior of the PD are indicators of the location of the stairway to the second floor? (Ch 1 4) 1. Two secondary entrances found adjacent to each other on the same side of the house—one with a stoop, one at ground level 2. A stoop at the main front entrance to the house 3. A stoop on a secondary side entrance to the house 4. Offset windows found on the exposure 2 or 4 side of the house A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer 33

4. C (1,3,4)

Question 34

5. Offset windows on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a private dwelling should be used as necessary for VEIS, especially for known life hazards. (Ch 1 4) A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 34

5. D

Question 35

6. A Lieutenant arriving at a fire in a private dwelling would be correct in which of the following sizeup consideration(s)? (Ch 2 2.4, 2.6, 2.7, Photos 2.3, 2.4) A. Exterior cellar entrances may be found on the front, rear or sides of PD’s and indicate a possible cellar occupancy B. An attic occupancy is indicated by an adequate height of 6 feet or more C. The lack of windows on the side of a PD combined with a secondary entrance that has a stoop on that same side of the house is indicative of a second floor apartment with two entrances to the stairway leading upstairs D. Porch roofs constructed of wood frame, aluminum or lightweight materials may provide a suitable platform from which to work E. Modern 3 family MD’s are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area — requiring PD tactics F. Balloon construction lacks fire stopping between floors on both interior and exterior walls G. Early collapse can

Answer 35

6. A, E

Question 36

7. When transmitting a 10-75 for a fire in a PD, which point(s) must also be transmitted if they can be determined? (Ch 2 2.8 SB 84—4.1, Comm 8—10-75) A. Whether the roof is peaked or flat B. The presence of window bars C. The height of the building D. The type of building / occupancy E. The location of the fire

Answer 36

7. A, B, C, D, E

Question 37

8. The primary consideration in the placement of the first hose line for access to a fire in a PD is via the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area for fires in the? (Ch 3 1.6, 1.7) A. Cellar only C. Cellar and upper floors only B. Cellar and first floor only D. Entire building — on all floors

Answer 37

8. A hmmmm, I don't know 1.6 The primary consideration for the placement of the first hoseline is through the front door for the protection of both the interior stairs and the members conducting searches above the fire. 1.7 The engine company officer shall announce via handi-talkie when a hoseline attack is to commence. Advancing hoselines will cause conditions opposite the hoseline and above to worsen, as the heat, fire, and steam are pushed by the force of the stream. Conditions in areas behind, adjoining or above the operating hoseline must be monitored for sudden possible deterioration due to the effects of hoseline advancement on the fire. All members must be alert to fireground communications concerning hoseline placement and the commencement of hoseline operations so that they may seek refuge if necessary.

Question 38

9. A company officer conducting drill on cellar fires was incorrect in which one of the following points he made at drill? (Ch 3 2.5, 2.6) A. The status and door construction of the interior cellar door is a critical factor and should be determined and communicated to the IC, if conditions permit B. A thermal imaging camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling indicates the interior cellar door is open C. Smoke showing significant force and speed under pressure on the first floor indicates that the interior cellar door is open D. Only a Chief Officer may order an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window

Answer 38

9. D 2.6 The Incident Commander should consider ordering an exterior hoseline to be operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior. Some examples are as follows:  Unable to gain entry to or advance the hoseline to the cellar level  Unable to locate the interior cellar entrance  A serious or advanced cellar fire

Question 39

10. A 1st due Ladder Company is operating at a cellar fire in a 2 ½ story PD where they have found the fire, but the engine has just suffered a burst length and cannot attack the fire. The Irons FF then gives a “Mayday” indicating he is trapped in the rear of the cellar by fire. The IC then orders the officer in charge of the second hose line to knockdown the fire from the exterior side cellar window due to the delay in applying water to the fire. In this situation, the company officer should be aware that the operation of the hoseline into a cellar window with members still in the cellar is? (Ch 3 2.6) A. Not permitted under any circumstances B. Not permitted unless the members in the cellar have an area of refuge in the cellar C. Not permitted unless the members in the cellar have a charged hoseline D. Only permitted in an emergency

Answer 39

10. D

Question 40

11. Engine companies operating at cellar fires would be correct to consider which point(s) below? (Ch 3 2.6 Note, 2.7.1) A. Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication between the first Engine and Ladder Officer B. The first hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire C. In detached and semi-attached PD’s, the main entrance is usually the option that provides the quickest access to the cellar D. In attached structures, stretching the first line through a rear secondary entrance is generally the fastest option to apply water quickly on the fire E. At serious cellar fires, it is a good practice to have a precautionary charged line in position near the side of the building for emergency conditions that may develop

Answer 40

11. A, B, E

Question 41

12. First alarm units arriving at a fire in the cellar of a 2-story, detached, flat roof PD would be incorrect to consider which one of the following tactics? (Ch 3 2.7.2) A. High heat at the top of the interior cellar stairs precludes the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs B. Questionable stability of the interior cellar stairs precludes the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs C. When there is a serious fire condition in the cellar, the first hose line must advance through the main entrance to protect the first floor, and the second line should advance to extinguish the fire via a secondary entrance D. The safety of members is the paramount concern in making the decision to advance down the interior cellar stairs

Answer 41

12. C 2.7.2 The first hoseline should not be advanced down the interior cellar stairs unless fire and stairway conditions permit for the rapid and safe descent of the hoseline. Various factors, including the following, would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs:  High heat conditions at the top of the stairs  Questionable stability of the stairway  Immediate availability of a second hoseline  Initial size-up indicating a serious fire condition

Question 42

13. The first arriving engine at a PD cellar fire has stretched an 1 ¾” hose line through the main entrance of the PD, but the first ladder is unable to locate an interior cellar entrance. At this time there are no other engine companies at the scene. In this situation, the repositioning of this hose line to a secondary entrance may be performed by the engine officer only if? (2.7.4) A. Ordered by a Battalion Chief, but not by an Acting Battalion Chief B. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief or a Battalion Chief C. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief, a Battalion Chief, or a company officer who is the IC where there is only one engine at the scene D. The engine officer transmits an “Urgent” utilizing the EAB, insures it is acknowledged by the ladder company, and insures that ladder members operating on the first floor are withdrawn before repositioning occurs

Answer 42

13. B

Question 43

13. The first arriving engine at a PD cellar fire has stretched an 1 ¾” hose line through the main entrance of the PD, but the first ladder is unable to locate an interior cellar entrance. At this time there are no other engine companies at the scene. In this situation, the repositioning of this hose line to a secondary entrance may be performed by the engine officer only if? (2.7.4) A. Ordered by a Battalion Chief, but not by an Acting Battalion Chief B. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief or a Battalion Chief C. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief, a Battalion Chief, or a company officer who is the IC where there is only one engine at the scene D. The engine officer transmits an “Urgent” utilizing the EAB, insures it is acknowledged by the ladder company, and insures that ladder members operating on the first floor are withdrawn before repositioning occurs

Answer 43

14. D 2.7.4 When there is no other hoseline available and there is a delay in gaining access or applying water to the cellar through the interior, the Incident Commander may consider repositioning the first hoseline from the first floor into the cellar through an exterior entrance. The decision to reposition the first hoseline can only be made by a Chief Officer. If possible, primary searches on all floors above the fire should be complete before proceeding. The repositioning of the first hoseline must be carefully coordinated and communicated to all units operating. The Incident Commander should transmit an URGENT message utilizing the emergency alert button to broadcast this to all members and ensure an acknowledgement from all units/members operating in the interior. For safety, all members operating on the first floor must be withdrawn before the hoseline is moved and members operating on the upper floors may need to be repositioned to a safe area, near a means of egress. Fire conditions above the fire may become severe when this hoseline is repositioned.

Question 44

15. At PD fires, a 1 ¾ is recommended in? (Ch 3 5.3, 6.4) A. All situations due to the need for speed and mobility B. Most situations, but a 2 ½” line should be considered under certain conditions

Answer 44

15. B 5.3 Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection. Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire. 6.3.1 Consider stretching a 2½” hoseline if increased volume or reach of the stream is a consideration.

Question 45

16. A Lieutenant conducting drill on the stretching of hose lines at PD fires was incorrect when she stated that? (Ch 3, Pgs 5-7) A. At all fires (cellar, first floor, upper floors), the second hoseline should be initially positioned and charged outside the fire building B. At first floor fires, the first hoseline should be stretched through the main entrance door to the first floor C. At upper floor fires, the first hoseline should be stretched through the main entrance door on the first floor D. At a fully involved PD fire, the first arriving engine should drop two handlines if they are backstretching, and make a cursory evaluation of the building for collapse potential before entering

Answer 45

16. D 5. BUILDING FULLY INVOLVED 5.1 Whenever the first arriving engine company backstretches to the hydrant, they should consider dropping two hoselines in front of the building. 5.2 Units shall maintain the front of fire building accessible for tower ladder placement. 5.3 Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection. Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire. 5.4 Operate the hoseline on the exterior to protect exposures before entering the building. Note: Buildings fully involved have an increased collapse potential and require a complete evaluation by the IC before entering. 5.5 Wood frame buildings that initially appear fully involved may only have their exterior siding burning.

Question 46

17. A Ladder officer conducting drill on VEIS at PD fires was incorrect when she stated that? (Ch 4 2.1—2.4) A. Ventilation for extinguishment is a controlled and coordinated tactic which should coincide with the Engine Company extinguishment of the fire B. Ventilation for search is a controlled and coordinated tactic performed to facilitate the movement of a firefighter into an area to conduct a search C. Immediately upon entering a room from a window, members should make a quick check / sweep of the floor in the hall outside the door for victims, before closing the door D. When the search of a room has been completed and the main body of fire has not yet been extinguished, the door to the room shall be opened. E. When more than one occupant is found on an upper floor, the primary function of the engine is to protect the interior stairs

Answer 46

17. D 2.2 When the search of the room has been completed, the door shall be kept closed until the main body of fire has been extinguished

Question 47

18. A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a piece of baseboard on an______ wall, and check for the presence of a _______? (Ch 4 3.1) A. Interior, Ribbon C. Interior, Ledger Board B. Exterior, Sole Plate D. Exterior, Header

Answer 47

18.B

Question 48

19. Regarding the responsibilities of ladder companies at PD fires, the first due ladder is generally responsible for which two tasks? (Ch 4 4.1, 4.2) A. Ventilation of a peak roof B. Ventilation of a flat roof C. Shutting down the utilities D. Attempting an examination of the cellar for fire

Answer 48

19. B, D

Question 49

20. Ladder 155 arrives as the first truck company at a fire on the first floor of a 2-Family Private Dwelling in a rear bedroom. After gaining entry to the first floor through the main entrance, Irons FF was left at the front entrance door to hold it in a closed position. The Irons FF would be correct to control the front door until? (Ch 4 5.1 A) 1. The Ladder Officer informed him that the door to the rear bedroom was closed, confining the fire 2. A charged hoseline was advancing through the front door 3. The Can FF had placed water on the fire with the can A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3 E. Only #2

Answer 49

20. A

Question 50

21. First Alarm units arrive at the scene of a 10-75 for fire on the first floor of a two-story PD with window bars on both the first and second floors. In this situation, if conditions allow, who is responsible for initiating the removal of window bars? (5.1 D #5) A. The first ladder outside team on both the front and rear of the building B. The second ladder outside team on both the front and rear of the building C. The first ladder outside team on the side or rear of the building only D. The special called Ladder Company above the 10-75, on both the front and rear of the building

Answer 50

21. A

Question 51

22. Regarding the operations of the 1st arriving ladder company outside team at PD fires, it would be correct to state that? (Ch 4 5.1 D #4, 5.2 A #1-2, 5.3 B #3) A. A member proceeding to the rear at an apparent first or second floor fire may vent a small cellar window, without requesting permission, to insure the fire did not start in the cellar B. At portable ladder operations, where the initial survey indicates there is no visible life hazard, the position of the first Roof / OV team, is to perform VEIS on the lower or upper floor area that is most likely to be occupied. C. One member of the first Roof / OV team should carry a 6’ halligan hook and / or halligan, while the other member brings the appropriate portable ladder D. Where there is an obvious occupied attic, the first Ladder LCC, when teamed up, may perform VEIS of the attic area using an aerial ladder or tower ladder E. Early ventilation of an unoccupied attic window by the 1st LCC at cellar and first floor fires does not require permission and should be initiated to improve the overall condition on the upper floors

Answer 51

22. D 4. Members proceeding to the side or rear must visually examine cellar windows to determine interior fire conditions. Members shall not vent windows unless ordered to do so by the Ladder Company Officer. All observations must be reported to the Ladder Company Officer and Incident Commander. 3. When the Roof/OV team does not need to use the aerial, the chauffeur may use the aerial for necessary ventilation. Venting the attic window may greatly assist interior operations. This ventilation tactic must be controlled and communicated with the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area to be vented

Question 52

23. The second arriving ladder company at PD fires would be incorrect to think that? (Ch 4 5.5 #1-6) A. It is critical that the second ladder officer contact the first ladder officer to determine the 1st Ladder Inside team’s location B. Prior to proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, the second ladder officer must notify either the first engine or ladder officer operating on the fire floor C. At top floor fires, the second ladder officer should remain with the inside team on the floor below until needed, checking the floors below for fire D. At top floor fires in attached PD’s, the second ladder inside team should examine exposures for possible extension

Answer 52

23. B 5. Prior to proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, notify company officers operating on the fire floor. When operating above the fire floor, a secondary means of egress should be secured as soon as possible.

Question 53

24. The second ladder company arrives with their aerial ladder at the scene of a PD first floor fire with heavy smoke conditions on the second floor and finds the first ladder Roof / OV team is using the bucket for VEIS. In this situation, the second ladder Roof / OV team should survey the sides and rear of the PD and then operate using? (Ch 4 5.7 A #2, 5.8 A #2) A. Ladders on the lower or upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard B. Their aerial ladder to the upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard C. A portable ladder to the upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard D. Their aerial ladder to the upper floors, or a portable ladder, in the area of the greatest life hazard

Answer 53

24. C 2. When the 1st arriving Roof/OV team is using the apparatus for VEIS, the 2nd arriving Roof/OV team shall operate with portable ladders in areas not covered 2. When the 1st arriving Roof/OV team is using their apparatus for VEIS, the 2nd arriving Roof/OV team should operate with portable ladders in areas not covered

Question 54

25. Regarding peaked roof operations at PD fires, it would be inaccurate to state that? (6.1, 6.2 A & B) A. The order of preference for roof access is Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, then Portable Ladder B. The preferred position of the Tower Ladder is parallel to the front of the building so the basket can be placed over the corner of the building near the peak of the roof C. An aerial ladder placed to a peak roof shall have the ladder extended at least 5’ above and to one side of the peak D. Whenever an aerial ladder or tower ladder basket cannot be placed near the peak, it should be placed in the “VALLEY” area where a hook ladder can be used to reach the peak E. If roof skylights are found, they should be vented prior to cutting the roof only when directed by the IC

Answer 54

25. E

Question 55

26. An officer conducting drill on opening a peaked roof at a fire in a Queen Anne PD was correct when she stated that? (6.3 A, B, C) A. The first hole should be cut at the main gable B. The power saw may only be used from an aerial ladder or tower ladder C. If cutting a peak roof with an axe, cut over the fire parallel to and on the windward side of the ridge. D. After the cut is made, push down the ceiling with a 6’ hook

Answer 55

26. A D sounds ok to me too 4. The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder as described in Firefighting Procedures, Ladders 6. 1. Working from a position straddling the peak, cut a hole over the fire, parallel to and on the lee side of the ridge. 3. A 6' hook (10' for a Queen Anne) should be brought to the roof to push down the ceiling on the top floor after the roof hole has been cut

Question 56

Answer Questions 27 - 28 based on the following scenario: At 0300 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 2-story, flat-roof PD. They note that the fire building is of Class 4 construction with three attached exposures on each side. Exposure 2 is showing significant smoke on the second floor, while exposure 4 has a light smoke condition on the second floor. There are no victims showing on the front of the building requiring a rescue at this time. 27. In this situation, it would be correct for the 1st Roof FF to take which action(s)? (Ch 4 7.1 A—1, 3, 5) A. Go to the roof of the fire building bringing the halligan and 6’ hook. He should not bring the Life Saving Rope because the building is only two stories in height B. Use the scuttle in Exposure 4 if it offers the easiest access to its interior than any other attached exposure C. Contact the LCC for assistance on the roof if a Life Saving Rope rescue is required D. Immediately vent the skylight if he hears over the HT that the first engine is advancing into the first floor with a charged line

Answer 56

27. C, D

Question 57

Answer Questions 27 - 28 based on the following scenario: At 0300 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 2-story, flat-roof PD. They note that the fire building is of Class 4 construction with three attached exposures on each side. Exposure 2 is showing significant smoke on the second floor, while exposure 4 has a light smoke condition on the second floor. There are no victims showing on the front of the building requiring a rescue at this time. 28. Which member(s) below would not be operating correctly at this incident if they performed the indicated tactics? (Ch 4 5.5 A #6, Pgs 17-18, 19, 20) A. The first OV should go to the rear to check for life hazards and perform VEIS. B. The first LCC should assist the first Roof FF with portable ladder placement to the roof C. The second Inside Team should proceed to Exposure 2 to check for extension, and the officer may direct the 2nd LCC to check Exposure 4. D. The second OV should conduct a survey of the rear and sides for victims, insure ventilation is completed as required in the rear, then if not needed to assist with any VEIS, team up with the 2nd LCC as needed in Exposure 4 E. The second Roof FF should take a 6’ halligan hook and halligan to the roof and assist in roof ventilation of the fire building and necessary exposures

Answer 57

28. E

Question 58

29. On arrival at a cellar fire in a two-family, peaked roof PD, the Roof / OV team of the first arriving ladder company conducted a survey around the perimeter of the dwelling for occupants in need of immediate rescue and found no visible life hazard. In this situation, they should then immediately perform VEIS of the ______? (Ch 4 9.2) A. Cellar B. 1st floor C. 2nd floor D. Attic

Answer 58

7.2 For cellar and first floor fires, the Roof/OV team of the first arriving ladder company will conduct a survey around the perimeter of the dwelling for occupants in need of immediate rescue. If no visible life hazard is found, they shall VEIS the first floor windows and assist in searches. They must ensure that all bedrooms on the first floor are searched quickly. After completion of first floor, they should VEIS the second floor if the second ladder company has not yet arrived.

Question 59

30. You are the 1st ladder officer at a cellar fire in a 2 ½ story PD. After conducting a size-up, it is decided to use a secondary entrance to quickly apply water on the fire. In this situation, you would be correct to believe? (Ch 4 10.1, 10.2, 10.3) A. If the second due ladder is not on scene yet, the inside team should perform a quick primary search of the first floor, then proceed to the same entrance as the first hoseline. B. If no hoseline is immediately available, and conditions permit, descend the interior cellar stairs with both members of the inside team to conduct a rapid, thorough primary search and attempt to confine the fire C. When descending the interior cellar stair via the secondary entrance, you should close any interior door found at the top of the stairs that leads to the first floor D. If a Bilco style door covers the exterior cellar entrance and might provide the quick access to the cellar, it should be utilized in preference to other cellar entrances

Answer 59

30. C

Question 60

31. First alarm units arrive at a PD cellar fire where the first engine and ladder officers decide the quickest access to the cellar is through the main entrance. In this situation, the ladder officer would be incorrect to believe that? (Ch 4 10.4) A. The Engine Officer shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a charged hoseline advances via the main entrance B. The 1st Inside Team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar C. If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the inside team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company officer and the other member complete the primary search of the cellar D. If the first hose line does not advance down the interior cellar stair, the first ladder inside team will assume responsibility for the primary search of the first floor and floors above

Answer 60

31. A, C

Question 61

32. Members operating at PD attic fires would be incorrect to believe? (Ch 4 11) A. When opening knee walls in attic spaces, avoid opening walls near the stairs B. Opening up a 3’ section of ceiling on the floor below may allow the engine to sweep the attic area from a small extension ladder C. If wood is encountered when attempting to open the attic area above, shift about 1-2 feet to one side and make another opening D. The bent tip or cockloft nozzle may be used effectively at attic fires

Answer 61

32. C

Question 62

PART V – TB - EMERGENCIES #2 {NATURAL GAS}: 1. A Lieutenant conducting drill on natural gas emergencies and fires was incorrect when she stated that? (2, 5, 7, 8) A. Natural gas is explosive when confined. Its explosive range is 5% to 15% B. Natural gas is lighter than air and odorless, but mercaptan added to it gives it a distinctive rotten egg odor C. Gas service piping may be steel, plastic, or copper, but plastic and copper gas pipes are not allowed inside structures D. Most gas valve shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety and require a ¼ turn clockwise to turn the valve to the off position

Answer 62

Most gas shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety and can easily be shut off using the fork end of a Halligan tool, (Picture 3) vice grips or pliers to turn the wing cock valve ¼ turn counter clockwise.

Question 63

2. You are a Lieutenant that has just arrived at a gas emergency at a stove in a building where you are unable to shut the appliance valve because it is damaged. You then determine that the building has a low pressure master meter with interior gas riser valves above coming off of the master meter. In this situation it would be preferable to next attempt to shut the? (Pg 4-5) A. Head of service valve C. Master meter B. Interior gas riser valve D. Curb valve

Answer 63

2. B

Question 64

3. Regarding exterior gas riser valves, it would be inaccurate to state? (Pg 6) A. They are located on the gas riser outside of the building before any exterior meters B. All external meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter C. If a curb valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve D. Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a building

Answer 64

3. D 4. Exterior Gas Riser Valve - Gas riser valves are located on the gas riser outside of the building before any exterior meters. It is a ¼ turn valve. All external meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter. If a curb valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve. This valve may be present outside, even when meters are installed inside the building. (Picture 10)

Question 65

Use the following scenario to answer questions 4 – 5: A company officer arrives on the scene as the extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. 4. In this situation, the officer would be correct to think that? (Pg 7) A. Curb valves are always found on the sidewalk side of the curb B. In all cases, the “U” shape or square end of the gas key should be used to turn the curb valve a ¼ turn clockwise C. When looking into the curb valve box, a yellow operating nut means that it is a plastic valve and plastic valve stops are easily broken with excessive force D. National Grid’s “Long Service” sometimes has its curb valve located across the street, sometimes found in the street. They will have an arrow on the concrete or steel cover pointing to the building they supply

Answer 65

4. D

Question 66

Use the following scenario to answer questions 4 – 5: A company officer arrives on the scene as the extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. 5. Unable to locate the curb valve immediately, the company officer now finds the street valve. In this situation he would be correct to think? (Pg 8) A. Street valves may never be operated by FDNY members B. Do not operate street valves except under extreme circumstances when directed by the FDNY IC after consult with a utility representative 6.

Answer 66

5. B

Question 67

6. Members respond to the scene of an outdoor gas odor where they find a broken plastic gas pipe in a street excavation. In this situation, they would be correct to take which action? (Pg 9, 16) A. Use a tool to crimp the piping to stop the flow of gas B. Fold the piping to stop the flow of gas C. Fill the excavation area with water to stop the flow of gas D. Use a fog stream to dissipate the escaping gas

Answer 67

6. D

Question 68

7. A Captain conducting drill for gas leak emergencies was correct in which point(s) below? (Pgs 10-12) A. Non-FDNY issued flashlights are NOT intrinsically safe. B. FDNY issued flashlights and Thermal Imaging Cameras are intrinsically safe. C. If you cannot find the source of an indoor gas leak, take readings at sewers and manhole covers D. Power to a gas-filled building should be shut only by opening breakers. Never shut power to a gas filled building by pulling an electric meter E. When a building has an emergency power or generator, have it disabled before cutting power to a building F. A leak or break in low or high pressure gas piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags into the break G. Allow a leak of burning gas to burn until the gas supply is shut.

Answer 68

7-A, C, E, G

Question 69

Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario: First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2-story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in Exposure 4. Exp 2D Exp 2C Exp 2B Exp 2A Exp 2 Major Gas Leak Source Exp 4 Exp 4A Exp 4B Exp 4C Exp 4D 8. In this situation, they must insure they check at least which buildings besides the middle building and Exposure 4? (Pg 13) A. Exposure 2, 2A, 4A C. Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B B. Exposure 2, 2A, 4A, 4B D. Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B, 4C

Answer 69

8. D  Check at least three exposures on both sides of the occupancies with positive gas readings for the presence of a gas odor or leak including above and below the suspected leak. Evacuate and ventilate as necessary.

Question 70

Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario: First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2-story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in Exposure 4. Exp 2D Exp 2C Exp 2B Exp 2A Exp 2 Major Gas Leak Source Exp 4 Exp 4A Exp 4B Exp 4C Exp 4D 9. If gas levels are above the flammable limits in the 2-story frames, units should start venting on the? (Pg 13) A. First floor B. 2nd floor

Answer 70

9. B 9. If gas levels are above the flammable limits in the 2-story frames, units should start venting on the? (Pg 13) A. First floor B. 2nd floor

Question 71

10. A high pressure outdoor gas leak is indicated by which size-up point(s) below? (Pg 14) A. Heavy gas odor in the area B. Opaque cloud rising from the ground C. Dirt and debris blowing into the air from an excavation D. A loud roaring sound

Answer 71

10. A, B, C, D OUTDOOR GAS LEAK: Indicators  A heavy gas odor in the area. It may be intermittent especially on a windy day.  There may be an opaque cloud rising from the ground at the site of the leak.  Dirt and debris may be seen blowing into the air from an excavation. This would indicate a high pressure leak.  A loud roaring sound indicates a high pressure leak.

Question 72

11. In order to reduce the infiltration of an outdoor gas leak into surrounding properties, members may be ordered by a BC to remove ONLY what kind of covers in the street? (Pg 15) A. Sewer covers; AND any manhole cover found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep B. Sewer covers; AND round manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep C. Sewer covers; AND Round or Square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep D. Round AND Square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep

Answer 72

11. B

Question 73

12. You are a Lieutenant using a DCGI meter at a major indoor gas leak where you see your meter read 10% LEL. In this situation, you would be correct to think that the actual percent of gas in the air is? (Pg 18) A. 5%, and you are at the FDNY Indoor Action Level B. . 50%, and you are at the FDNY Indoor Action Level C. 5%, and you are NOT at the FDNY Indoor Action Level D. . 50%, and you are NOT at the FDNY Indoor Action Level

Answer 73

12. B

Question 74

13. The code 5-R-25 found on the Peck Vent in the Con Ed system indicates the location of the? (Pg 19-20) A. Curb valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk B. Curb valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk C. Street valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk D. Street valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk

Answer 74

13. A

Question 75

14. In the National Grid Coding System, which TWO sets of letters found on a Peck Vent would indicate that there is no curb valve present? (Pg 21) A. NCV B. NC C. EFV D. EXC

Answer 75

14. B, C

Question 76

15. Regarding the use of the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be correct to state that? (Add 1—Pg 2) A. It has only one sensor — for combustible gas B. The action level for both indoor and outdoor operations is 10% LEL C. A series of crosses under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is above 50% LEL and that members should not operate except for lifesaving purposes D. If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated

Answer 76

15. D

Question 77

16. Regarding the use of the oxygen sensor on the Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be incorrect to state that? (Add 1—Pg 3) A. The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8% B. The low oxygen alarm is set at 19.5% and high alarm is set at 23.0% C. Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA facepiece and notify the IC of abnormal oxygen readings D. A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.0% oxygen

Answer 77

16. D 6.1 The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%. The meter will read oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched atmospheres. The low oxygen level alarm is set at 19.5% and the high alarm level is set at 23.0%. Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA facepiece and notify the Incident Commander of abnormal oxygen readings on the Altair meter. Notify dispatcher of conditions, and have the utility company respond and request an ETA. A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 25% oxygen (Photo 1). Incident Commanders shall take necessary action to address the abnormal condition.