WEEK #3 WEEK OF 1/27/14 PART I – CFR-D MANUAL CH. #3 PART II – DUNN CH. #1 - 3 PART III – AUC 338 PART IV – FFP – PD'S CH. #1 - 5 PART V – TB - EMERGENCIES #2 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards

Question 1

Q

PART I – CFR-D MANUAL CH. #3:
1. Regarding decontamination procedures, a company officer should be aware of all of the
following except? (15.2, 15.2.1, 15.2.2, 15.2.3, 15.3.2)
A. The company officer will determine if the minor cleaning (decontamination) procedure can
be used on the items in question
B. Equipment and clothing with minor contamination of blood or other body fluids should be
spot cleaned as soon as practical using a mixture of one part bleach to 99 parts water
C. The member preparing the disinfection mixture should empty the packet of bleach into the
container first, and then fill it with water
D. The use of stronger (more than 99 to 1) mixtures has no advantage in killing bacteria and
viruses and may deteriorate equipment
E. Mixtures remaining at the end of a tour should de disposed of in the slop sink. Officers
shall ensure that a new solution is prepared each tour

Answer

A

E

C. Mixtures remaining after 24 hours shall be disposed in the slop sink.

Question 2

Q

All of the following items may be completely immersed in the decontamination mixture in
the slop sink except? (15.3.7, 15.6.1)
A. Boots
B. Helmets
C. Motorola portable radios / handie-talkies
D. Non-Motorola portable radios / handie-talkies

Answer

A

D

15.3.7 Boots and helmets can be immersed in the slop sink. The solution can be applied
to hard to reach areas on boots and helmets by using a cleaning cloth soaked in
the bleach solution.

15.6.1 Non-Motorola portable radios/handie-talkies shall not be decontaminated in
quarters. The portable radios/handie-talkie shall be turned off and placed in a
double sealed clear plastic bag with biohazard label attached. Bagged items shall
be placed on the apparatus in an appropriate location to preserve the integrity of
the bag and transported to quarters. The bagged items shall be placed in a light
traffic area (remote and secure) on the apparatus floor. Special Operations
Command (SOC) shall be notified to pickup and decontaminate any non-
Motorola portable radios/handie-talkies.

Question 3

Q

If a firefighter’s work duty uniform or firefighting PPE becomes contaminated with large
amounts of body fluids, it would be incorrect to think? (15.7)
A. SOC should be notified of the need for temporary replacement equipment
B. All items requiring decontamination should be bagged in double red bags
C. The bagged items shall be placed on the apparatus in an appropriate location to preserve the
bag integrity and transported to quarters
D. The bagged items, marked with the member’s name, assigned unit, and type of
contaminant, shall be placed in a light traffic location on the apparatus floor pending collection
by SOC

Question 4

Q

Regarding the storage and use of bleach, it would be incorrect to state that?
(15.13, 15.14.1)
A. Bleach shall not be mixed with hydrogen peroxide, ammonia, or any other cleansing agent
B. Members over exposed to bleach should be moved to fresh air
C. Members who have made contact with bleach shall immediately flush their skin or eyes
with running water for at least 5 minutes
D. BHS or the Medical Officer on emergency duty should be notified by the Officer on duty
when bleach overexposure occurs

Answer

A

C

15.14 First Aid for Overexposure to Bleach
15.14.1 Members overexposed to bleach shall be moved to fresh air. In case of contact,
immediately flush skin or eyes with running water for at least 15 minutes. The
Officer on duty shall notify BHS during normal clinic hours or the Medical
Officer on emergency duty at all other times.

Question 5

Q

The single most effective method of reducing disease transmission is? (16.2)
A. Frequent, adequate hand washing
B. Use of masks
C. Getting promoted to Lieutenant
D. Transmitting a 10-91

Question 6

Q

Fire resistance & collapse resistance are directly related to the mass of a building. (Ch 1)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Question 7

Q

When objects must be thrown from windows during overhaul and salvage operations, it
would be correct to believe which point(s) below? (Ch 1)
A. You must obtain permission from the IC
B. A FF must be outside the building to act as a Safety Guard
C. The FF (Safety Guard) must indicate when the area is clear and objects may be thrown
from windows
D. When all objects have been thrown, notify the FF (Safety Guard)

Question 8

Q

When operating at fires, it would be incorrect to think that? (Ch 1)
A. When venting windows from the inside of a building, first attempt to manually open the
window before breaking glass with a tool
B. If venting windows by breaking glass from the inside, first break a small section to warn
firefighters outside
C. When trimming broken glass from windows, knock the glass shards outside after assuring
the area is clear below
D. Commercial glass is more dangerous than residential glass due to its thickness and weight

Question 9

Q

Dunn added new definitions in his revised book. Which new definition is incorrectly
indicated? (Ch 2)
A. Corner safe areas — the four flanking zones around a building perimeter
B. Fluted metal steel deck — A wavy piece of sheet steel deck used to support a concrete floor
C. Global collapse — a pancake collapse of all floors with the walls remaining in place
D. Progressive collapse — The initial structural failure spreads from structural element to
structural element resulting in a collapse of the entire structure or a disproportionately large part
of it

Question 10

Q

Which point mentioned below in the definitions is inaccurate? (Ch 2)
A. The removal or destruction of any part of an arch will cause the entire arch to collapse
B. Unrestrained beam ends (fire cut beams) will collapse at fires more readily than restrained
beams, but floor collapses with unrestrained beams will not topple bearing walls
C. Non-bearing walls in balloon construction often fail in an inward-outward fashion
D. The presence of a buttress on an exterior wall can indicate the point where the roof trusses
or girders are supported by a bearing wall

Question 11

Q

Fire load is the measure of maximum heat release when all combustibles in an area are
burned. Both the content and structure of a building contribute to fire load. Structural collapse
during a fire is directly proportional to the fire load. (Ch 2)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Question 12

Q

Loads are forces acting on a structure. Dead loads, live loads, and impact loads can cause
collapse. Which example of a load is incorrectly indicated? (Ch 2)
A. Torsional load — A floor collapse in a brick and joist building creates a torsional load on
the bearing walls
B. Static load — A refrigerator in a kitchen
C. Impact load — A master stream directed in a pulsating manner against a building
D. Concentrated load — Heavy cast-iron fixtures in a bathroom
E. Dead load — Fire escapes on an OLT
F. Live load — A file cabinet and a desk in an office

Question 13

Q

A primary structural member is a structural member that supports another structural
member in the same building. The collapse of a primary structural member may trigger the
secondary collapse of the other structural member it supports. All of the following are considered
primary structural members except? (Ch 2)
A. Bearing Walls E. Hip Rafters
B. Columns F. Ridgepoles
C. Girders G. Tail beams
D. Header Beams H. Trimmer beams

Question 14

Q

A partition wall that extends from floor slab to the floor slab above is known as a ______
wall? (Ch 2)
A. Demising B. Veneer C. Spandrel D. Area

Question 15

Q

A fire wall between two buildings has all of the following characteristics except?
(Ch 2)
A. It is designed to prevent the passage of fire
B. It must be independent of the roof structure on either side
C. It must be designed to withstand the complete collapse of a structure on either side
D. A party wall with a parapet extending above the roof is an example of a true fire wall

Question 16

Q

Match the type of construction below with its major firefighting problem? (Ch 3)
Fire Resistive A. Combustible outside wood walls
Non-combustible B. Large wood interior timber framework
Ordinary (Brick and Joist) C. Flat steel deck roof that ignites
Heavy Timber D. Concealed space fire / smoke spread
Wood Frame E. Central HVAC system smoke spread

Question 17

Q

Match the type of construction below with its major collapse hazard (Ch 3)
Fire Resistive A. Concrete and Fluted metal deck
Non-combustible B. Open web bar joist—roof cave in
Ordinary (Brick and Joist) C. Parapet wall collapse
Heavy Timber D. Combustible bearing walls
Wood Frame E. Falling masonry walls

Question 18

Q

Members operating at a fire-resistive, steel skeleton building would expect all of the
following at a serious fire where heat reaches the fluted metal deck supporting the concrete floor
above except? (Ch 3)
A. The steel beams supporting the fluted metal deck may start to expand, and if restricted, they
will sag and bow downward
B. The floor may crack and erupt upwards several feet
C. A heated concrete floor can crack, allowing heat, smoke and flame to spread to the floor
above
D. Steel expansion will be greater than the concrete when heated by fire

Question 19

Q

Which should be treated with more caution with regard to the possibility of collapse at a
fire in a typical building of Class 4, wood-frame construction? (Ch 3)
A. Flames burning through or against a side wall of the structure
B. Flames burning through or against a front or rear wall of the structure
C. Fire burning through several floors
D. Fire burning through the roof

Question 20

Q

PART III – AUC 338 {Substations and Energized Electrical Equipment}:
1. The purpose of applying water streams to exposed electrical components at Con Ed
facilities is to prevent collateral damage and further loss of power to other areas of the city. In
regards to the application of water in these situations, it would be correct to state which methods
are permitted when placed at the appropriate, safe distances away? (2.1, 5.5)
A. Handlines
B. Tower Ladder
C. Engine Apparatus Deck Gun
D. Ladder Pipe
E. Portable Akron New Yorker Multiversal

Answer

A

B, C, D, E

Handlines shall never be used on energized electrical components at Con Edison
facilities.

5.5 If conditions don’t allow for the use of a Tower Ladder, consider the feasibility of using
an Engine Apparatus Deck Gun, the ladder pipe on an Aerial Ladder, or a portable Akron
New Yorker Multiversal.

Question 21

Q

All of the following nozzles / tips are permitted for these operations when placed at the
appropriate, safe distances away, except? (5.5 Note)
A. Akron Turbomaster Nozzle C. Solid Stream Tips
B. Aquastream Nozzle D. Fog Tips

Answer

A

B

NOTE: The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine
Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle shall not
be used because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintaining
safe operating distances.

Question 22

Q

The Tower Ladder is the PRIMARY means of applying water to energized electrical
components and requires the hydrant being used to be flushed thoroughly. Then the TL
waterway should be flushed away from the operation for several minutes until the water runs
clear. Regarding the operation of the basket stream, it would be incorrect to state that?
(5.4.5, 5.4.6, 5.6.1, 7.3, 7.6)
A. The apparatus should be connected to the facilities station ground grid prior to applying
water
B. All members must be removed from the apparatus before applying the stream to the target
C. If a stream is not reaching the intended target, shut down the water supply at the pumper,
and adjust the basket and / or stream pattern
D. Only fresh water with or without foam shall be used. Do not use salt water

Answer

A

D

7.6 No additives including any type of foam shall be used. Additives increase the electrical
conductivity of the water.

Question 23

Q

The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized
electrical components of 138 kV is _____ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and _____
feet for any stream less than 30 degrees? (5.3)
A. 15, 25 B. 15, 75 C. 25, 75 D. 25, 125

Answer

A

B

5.3 The following are the minimum safe operating distances for applying water on energized
or de-energized electrical components:
• 15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
• 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and
streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and onehalf
(1½) lengths of hose.
• 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
This distance is equal to approximately one-half (½) length of hose.
• 125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams
and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and
one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
NOTE: These minimum safe operating distances are from the tip of the nozzle to the nearest
energized electrical equipment in the direction of the stream.

Question 24

Q

The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized
electrical components of 345 kV is _____ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and _____
feet for any stream less than 30 degrees? (5.3)
A. 15, 25 B. 15, 75 C. 25, 75 D. 25, 125

Question 25

Q

Capacitor banks containing exposed electrical conductors are also found at substations in
locked cages. Regarding operations at capacitor bank incidents, it would be least accurate to state
that? (Add 2 2.3, 3.2, 5.4)
A. The exposed electrical contacts pose an electrocution hazard
B. Once power is removed, capacitors no longer contain a deadly electrical charge
C. Treat all capacitor fires as PCB incidents
D. Small fires can be extinguished with Dry Chemical

Question 26

Q

If a Battery Room fire were to occur at a substation, which of the following extinguishing
agents may be utilized? (Add 2 5.5)
A. Water or Carbon dioxide C. Dry Chemical or Carbon Dioxide
B. Water or Dry Chemical D. Only Dry Chemical may be used

Answer

A

B

5.5 Battery Room Fire – Carbon dioxide should not be used as an extinguishing agent at
these fires. The plastic battery shell may crack when cold CO2 gas is applied to the fire
causing sulfuric acid to spill out and be vaporized by the heat. This creates a respiratory
hazard as the acid in the batteries is very corrosive. Dry chemical extinguishers will
work here as will water application from a safe distance.

Question 27

Q

Exposed 3” electrical bus that runs overhead is a major hazard found at Con Ed substations
as high voltages are carried on the outside skin of the bus. Members arriving at a Con Ed or other
independent substation should know that when raising an aerial ladder or tower ladder bucket,
they should maintain a safe clearance of? (Add 2 Section 6)
A. 10 feet from 138 kV exposed bus, and 18 feet from 345 kV exposed bus
B. 18 feet from 138 kV exposed bus, and 18 feet from 345 kV exposed bus
C. 10 feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where 138 kV exposed bus exists, and 18
feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where 345 kV exposed bus exists
D. 18 feet from the substation’s exterior fence line where either 138 or 345 kV exposed bus
exists

Question 28

Q

Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6 gas) is a colorless, odorless gas that can present an
asphyxiation hazard in confined areas and below grade spaces. It is used to insulate and
extinguish arcs in electrical equipment and is ______ times heavier than air? (Add 2 3.5)
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer

A

C

a. Thermal decomposition of SF6 gas produces:
1) Hydrogen Fluoride (HF) – This gas has a strong irritating odor similar to rotten
eggs. Prolonged exposure to HF gas will desensitize your sense of smell making
it undetectable. Inhaling HF gas can result in immediate or delayed onset
pulmonary edema.
2) Metal Fluoride powder – This white powder is a byproduct of thermal
decomposition of SF6 gas and is extremely corrosive to bare skin. The initial
sign of exposure would be reddening of the skin. Skin contact and inhalation
must be avoided.

Question 29

Q

First alarm units arriving at a major substation transformer fire would be correct if they
took which of the following actions? (Add 2 4.1, 4.2, 5.2, 6)
A. Responded to the designated muster site, retrieved pertinent hazard information from the
Lockbox located outside the substation, & met with the Con Ed White Hat
B. Stretched a 3 ½” line to the sprinkler siamese that protects the transformers and
immediately charged the system
C. Avoided bringing metal tools into the substation, and did not allow any tools to project
above their shoulders.
D. Did not place any aerial ladder or any part of a tower ladder over any wall or fence.
Portable ladders, as necessary, were placed only against solid, concrete walls

Answer

A

C

5.2 A 3½” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged, to the sprinkler siamese if present.
If requested by Con Edison White Hat, supply the siamese with water at the posted
pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only the transformers.

 When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 18-foot safe clearance
horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line and do not place portable ladders,
aerial ladders or tower ladder booms or buckets against or over the wall or fence.

4.2 Meet and consult with the Con Edison White Hat at the muster site. Have White Hat
retrieve information from the Lockbox located inside the substation.

Question 30

Q

PART IV – PRIVATE DWELLINGS CH. #1 - 5:
1. The major weakness from a firefighting and fire protection standpoint at private dwelling
fires is the? (Ch 1 2.1)
A. Lack of a secondary egress from the upper floors
B. Open and unenclosed stairway
C. Use of balloon frame construction
D. Use of lightweight construction

Question 31

Q

Balloon frame construction is commonly found in which three types of private dwelling(s)?
(Ch 1 3.1, 3.3, Ch 4 3.1)
A. Straight line colonial E. Ranch
B. Cape Style F. Split Level
C. Queen Anne G. Semi-attached
D. Flat Roof H. Older, larger 2 ½-3 story PD’s

Question 32

Q

All of the following construction features are commonly associated with each type of
private dwelling indicated below except? (Ch 1 3.1-3.4)
A. Straight Line Colonial—Have kitchens with a stairway leading to both the side door and
the cellar
B. Cape Style—Have dormers indicating likely 2nd floor bedrooms whose easiest access is via
portable ladders to windows on the exposure 1 and 3 sides of the house
C. Queen Anne—May have old hot air ducts and / or dumbwaiter shafts
D. Flat Roof—Have decorative peaks in the front without a window indicating flat roof
construction

Answer

A

B

3.2 Cape Style Houses (Photos 1.5 & 1.6)
Cape houses usually come in two different styles. One is called an A frame cape and the
other a wide line cape. The A frame cape has a front entrance and usually a side entrance
with a stoop. The wide line cape will have a rear entrance and may have two window
dormers that are normally found facing the street. The presence of dormers usually
increases the likelihood of 2nd floor bedrooms. Portable laddering of these dormers can
be very difficult. The easiest exterior access to these rooms, via portable ladders, is
through windows that are found on the exposure 2 & 4 sides of the house. These homes
may have a full sized second floor or a dormer on the rear only.

Question 33

Q

Engine 302 arrives at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a private dwelling where fire
is showing out of a side window. How many of the following construction features found on the
exterior of the PD are indicators of the location of the stairway to the second floor? (Ch 1 4)
Two secondary entrances found adjacent to each other on the same side of the house—one
with a stoop, one at ground level
A stoop at the main front entrance to the house
A stoop on a secondary side entrance to the house
Offset windows found on the exposure 2 or 4 side of the house
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer

A

C (1,3,4)

Question 34

Q

Offset windows on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a private dwelling should be used as
necessary for VEIS, especially for known life hazards. (Ch 1 4)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Question 35

Q

A Lieutenant arriving at a fire in a private dwelling would be correct in which of the
following sizeup consideration(s)? (Ch 2 2.4, 2.6, 2.7, Photos 2.3, 2.4)
A. Exterior cellar entrances may be found on the front, rear or sides of PD’s and indicate a
possible cellar occupancy
B. An attic occupancy is indicated by an adequate height of 6 feet or more
C. The lack of windows on the side of a PD combined with a secondary entrance that has a
stoop on that same side of the house is indicative of a second floor apartment with two entrances
to the stairway leading upstairs
D. Porch roofs constructed of wood frame, aluminum or lightweight materials may provide a
suitable platform from which to work
E. Modern 3 family MD’s are often built with three separate entrances that have no common
area — requiring PD tactics
F. Balloon construction lacks fire stopping between floors on both interior and exterior walls
G. Early collapse can

Question 36

Q

When transmitting a 10-75 for a fire in a PD, which point(s) must also be transmitted if
they can be determined? (Ch 2 2.8 SB 84—4.1, Comm 8—10-75)
A. Whether the roof is peaked or flat
B. The presence of window bars
C. The height of the building
D. The type of building / occupancy
E. The location of the fire

Answer

A

A, B, C, D, E

Question 37

Q

The primary consideration in the placement of the first hose line for access to a fire in a PD
is via the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area for fires in the?
(Ch 3 1.6, 1.7)
A. Cellar only C. Cellar and upper floors only
B. Cellar and first floor only D. Entire building — on all floors

Answer

A

A
hmmmm, I don’t know

1.6 The primary consideration for the placement of the first hoseline is through the front door
for the protection of both the interior stairs and the members conducting searches above
the fire.
1.7 The engine company officer shall announce via handi-talkie when a hoseline attack is to
commence. Advancing hoselines will cause conditions opposite the hoseline and above
to worsen, as the heat, fire, and steam are pushed by the force of the stream. Conditions
in areas behind, adjoining or above the operating hoseline must be monitored for sudden
possible deterioration due to the effects of hoseline advancement on the fire.
All members must be alert to fireground communications concerning hoseline placement
and the commencement of hoseline operations so that they may seek refuge if necessary.

Question 38

Q

A company officer conducting drill on cellar fires was incorrect in which one of the
following points he made at drill? (Ch 3 2.5, 2.6)
A. The status and door construction of the interior cellar door is a critical factor and should be
determined and communicated to the IC, if conditions permit
B. A thermal imaging camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling
indicates the interior cellar door is open
C. Smoke showing significant force and speed under pressure on the first floor indicates that
the interior cellar door is open
D. Only a Chief Officer may order an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window

Answer

A

D

2.6 The Incident Commander should consider ordering an exterior hoseline to be operated
into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in
applying water from the interior. Some examples are as follows:
 Unable to gain entry to or advance the hoseline to the cellar level
 Unable to locate the interior cellar entrance
 A serious or advanced cellar fire

Question 39

Q

A 1st due Ladder Company is operating at a cellar fire in a 2 ½ story PD where they have
found the fire, but the engine has just suffered a burst length and cannot attack the fire. The Irons
FF then gives a “Mayday” indicating he is trapped in the rear of the cellar by fire. The IC then
orders the officer in charge of the second hose line to knockdown the fire from the exterior side
cellar window due to the delay in applying water to the fire. In this situation, the company officer
should be aware that the operation of the hoseline into a cellar window with members still in the
cellar is? (Ch 3 2.6)
A. Not permitted under any circumstances
B. Not permitted unless the members in the cellar have an area of refuge in the cellar
C. Not permitted unless the members in the cellar have a charged hoseline
D. Only permitted in an emergency

Question 40

Q

Engine companies operating at cellar fires would be correct to consider which point(s)
below? (Ch 3 2.6 Note, 2.7.1)
A. Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication
between the first Engine and Ladder Officer
B. The first hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access
to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire
C. In detached and semi-attached PD’s, the main entrance is usually the option that provides
the quickest access to the cellar
D. In attached structures, stretching the first line through a rear secondary entrance is
generally the fastest option to apply water quickly on the fire
E. At serious cellar fires, it is a good practice to have a precautionary charged line in position
near the side of the building for emergency conditions that may develop

Question 41

Q

First alarm units arriving at a fire in the cellar of a 2-story, detached, flat roof PD would be
incorrect to consider which one of the following tactics? (Ch 3 2.7.2)
A. High heat at the top of the interior cellar stairs precludes the descent of the first hoseline
down the interior cellar stairs
B. Questionable stability of the interior cellar stairs precludes the descent of the first hoseline
down the interior cellar stairs
C. When there is a serious fire condition in the cellar, the first hose line must advance through
the main entrance to protect the first floor, and the second line should advance to extinguish the
fire via a secondary entrance
D. The safety of members is the paramount concern in making the decision to advance down
the interior cellar stairs

Answer

A

C

2.7.2 The first hoseline should not be advanced down the interior cellar stairs unless
fire and stairway conditions permit for the rapid and safe descent of the
hoseline. Various factors, including the following, would preclude the descent of
the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs:
 High heat conditions at the top of the stairs
 Questionable stability of the stairway
 Immediate availability of a second hoseline
 Initial size-up indicating a serious fire condition

Question 42

Q

The first arriving engine at a PD cellar fire has stretched an 1 ¾” hose line through the
main entrance of the PD, but the first ladder is unable to locate an interior cellar entrance. At this
time there are no other engine companies at the scene. In this situation, the repositioning of this
hose line to a secondary entrance may be performed by the engine officer only if? (2.7.4)
A. Ordered by a Battalion Chief, but not by an Acting Battalion Chief
B. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief or a Battalion Chief
C. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief, a Battalion Chief, or a company officer who is the
IC where there is only one engine at the scene
D. The engine officer transmits an “Urgent” utilizing the EAB, insures it is acknowledged by
the ladder company, and insures that ladder members operating on the first floor are withdrawn
before repositioning occurs

Question 43

Q

The first arriving engine at a PD cellar fire has stretched an 1 ¾” hose line through the
main entrance of the PD, but the first ladder is unable to locate an interior cellar entrance. At this
time there are no other engine companies at the scene. In this situation, the repositioning of this
hose line to a secondary entrance may be performed by the engine officer only if? (2.7.4)
A. Ordered by a Battalion Chief, but not by an Acting Battalion Chief
B. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief or a Battalion Chief
C. Ordered by an Acting Battalion Chief, a Battalion Chief, or a company officer who is the
IC where there is only one engine at the scene
D. The engine officer transmits an “Urgent” utilizing the EAB, insures it is acknowledged by
the ladder company, and insures that ladder members operating on the first floor are withdrawn
before repositioning occurs

Answer

A

D

2.7.4 When there is no other hoseline available and there is a delay in gaining access or
applying water to the cellar through the interior, the Incident Commander may
consider repositioning the first hoseline from the first floor into the cellar through
an exterior entrance.
The decision to reposition the first hoseline can only be made by a Chief Officer.
If possible, primary searches on all floors above the fire should be complete
before proceeding. The repositioning of the first hoseline must be carefully
coordinated and communicated to all units operating. The Incident Commander
should transmit an URGENT message utilizing the emergency alert button to
broadcast this to all members and ensure an acknowledgement from all
units/members operating in the interior.
For safety, all members operating on the first floor must be withdrawn before the
hoseline is moved and members operating on the upper floors may need to be
repositioned to a safe area, near a means of egress. Fire conditions above the fire
may become severe when this hoseline is repositioned.

Question 44

Q

At PD fires, a 1 ¾ is recommended in? (Ch 3 5.3, 6.4)
A. All situations due to the need for speed and mobility
B. Most situations, but a 2 ½” line should be considered under certain conditions

Answer

A

B

5.3 Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream,
increased volume of water and increased exposure protection.
Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire.

6.3.1 Consider stretching a 2½” hoseline if increased volume or reach of the stream is a
consideration.

Question 45

Q

A Lieutenant conducting drill on the stretching of hose lines at PD fires was incorrect when
she stated that? (Ch 3, Pgs 5-7)
A. At all fires (cellar, first floor, upper floors), the second hoseline should be initially
positioned and charged outside the fire building
B. At first floor fires, the first hoseline should be stretched through the main entrance door to
the first floor
C. At upper floor fires, the first hoseline should be stretched through the main entrance door
on the first floor
D. At a fully involved PD fire, the first arriving engine should drop two handlines if they are
backstretching, and make a cursory evaluation of the building for collapse potential before
entering

Answer

A

D
BUILDING FULLY INVOLVED
5.1 Whenever the first arriving engine company backstretches to the hydrant, they should
consider dropping two hoselines in front of the building.
5.2 Units shall maintain the front of fire building accessible for tower ladder placement.
5.3 Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream,
increased volume of water and increased exposure protection.
Note: A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire.
5.4 Operate the hoseline on the exterior to protect exposures before entering the building.
Note: Buildings fully involved have an increased collapse potential and require a
complete evaluation by the IC before entering.
5.5 Wood frame buildings that initially appear fully involved may only have their exterior
siding burning.

Question 46

Q

A Ladder officer conducting drill on VEIS at PD fires was incorrect when she stated that?
(Ch 4 2.1—2.4)
A. Ventilation for extinguishment is a controlled and coordinated tactic which should coincide
with the Engine Company extinguishment of the fire
B. Ventilation for search is a controlled and coordinated tactic performed to facilitate the
movement of a firefighter into an area to conduct a search
C. Immediately upon entering a room from a window, members should make a quick check /
sweep of the floor in the hall outside the door for victims, before closing the door
D. When the search of a room has been completed and the main body of fire has not yet been
extinguished, the door to the room shall be opened.
E. When more than one occupant is found on an upper floor, the primary function of the
engine is to protect the interior stairs

Answer

A

D

2.2 When the search of the room has been completed, the door shall be kept closed until the
main body of fire has been extinguished

Question 47

Q

A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a piece of
baseboard on an______ wall, and check for the presence of a _______? (Ch 4 3.1)
A. Interior, Ribbon C. Interior, Ledger Board
B. Exterior, Sole Plate D. Exterior, Header

Question 48

Q

Regarding the responsibilities of ladder companies at PD fires, the first due ladder is
generally responsible for which two tasks? (Ch 4 4.1, 4.2)
A. Ventilation of a peak roof
B. Ventilation of a flat roof
C. Shutting down the utilities
D. Attempting an examination of the cellar for fire

Question 49

Q

Ladder 155 arrives as the first truck company at a fire on the first floor of a 2-Family
Private Dwelling in a rear bedroom. After gaining entry to the first floor through the main
entrance, Irons FF was left at the front entrance door to hold it in a closed position. The Irons FF
would be correct to control the front door until? (Ch 4 5.1 A)
The Ladder Officer informed him that the door to the rear bedroom was closed, confining
the fire
A charged hoseline was advancing through the front door
The Can FF had placed water on the fire with the can
A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3 E. Only #2

Question 50

Q

First Alarm units arrive at the scene of a 10-75 for fire on the first floor of a two-story PD
with window bars on both the first and second floors. In this situation, if conditions allow, who is
responsible for initiating the removal of window bars? (5.1 D #5)
A. The first ladder outside team on both the front and rear of the building
B. The second ladder outside team on both the front and rear of the building
C. The first ladder outside team on the side or rear of the building only
D. The special called Ladder Company above the 10-75, on both the front and rear of the
building

Question 51

Q

Regarding the operations of the 1st arriving ladder company outside team at PD fires, it
would be correct to state that? (Ch 4 5.1 D #4, 5.2 A #1-2, 5.3 B #3)
A. A member proceeding to the rear at an apparent first or second floor fire may vent a small
cellar window, without requesting permission, to insure the fire did not start in the cellar
B. At portable ladder operations, where the initial survey indicates there is no visible life
hazard, the position of the first Roof / OV team, is to perform VEIS on the lower or upper floor
area that is most likely to be occupied.
C. One member of the first Roof / OV team should carry a 6’ halligan hook and / or halligan,
while the other member brings the appropriate portable ladder
D. Where there is an obvious occupied attic, the first Ladder LCC, when teamed up, may
perform VEIS of the attic area using an aerial ladder or tower ladder
E. Early ventilation of an unoccupied attic window by the 1st LCC at cellar and first floor fires
does not require permission and should be initiated to improve the overall condition on the upper
floors

Answer

A

D
Members proceeding to the side or rear must visually examine cellar windows
to determine interior fire conditions. Members shall not vent windows unless
ordered to do so by the Ladder Company Officer. All observations must be
reported to the Ladder Company Officer and Incident Commander.
When the Roof/OV team does not need to use the aerial, the chauffeur may
use the aerial for necessary ventilation. Venting the attic window may greatly
assist interior operations. This ventilation tactic must be controlled and
communicated with the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area to
be vented

Question 52

Q

The second arriving ladder company at PD fires would be incorrect to think that?
(Ch 4 5.5 #1-6)
A. It is critical that the second ladder officer contact the first ladder officer to determine the 1st
Ladder Inside team’s location
B. Prior to proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, the second ladder officer must
notify either the first engine or ladder officer operating on the fire floor
C. At top floor fires, the second ladder officer should remain with the inside team on the floor
below until needed, checking the floors below for fire
D. At top floor fires in attached PD’s, the second ladder inside team should examine exposures
for possible extension

Answer

A

B
Prior to proceeding to the floors above via the interior stairs, notify company
officers operating on the fire floor. When operating above the fire floor, a
secondary means of egress should be secured as soon as possible.

Question 53

Q

The second ladder company arrives with their aerial ladder at the scene of a PD first floor
fire with heavy smoke conditions on the second floor and finds the first ladder Roof / OV team is
using the bucket for VEIS. In this situation, the second ladder Roof / OV team should survey the
sides and rear of the PD and then operate using? (Ch 4 5.7 A #2, 5.8 A #2)
A. Ladders on the lower or upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard
B. Their aerial ladder to the upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard
C. A portable ladder to the upper floors in the area with the greatest life hazard
D. Their aerial ladder to the upper floors, or a portable ladder, in the area of the greatest life
hazard

Answer

A

C
When the 1st arriving Roof/OV team is using the apparatus for VEIS, the 2nd
arriving Roof/OV team shall operate with portable ladders in areas not
covered
When the 1st arriving Roof/OV team is using their apparatus for VEIS, the 2nd
arriving Roof/OV team should operate with portable ladders in areas not
covered

Question 54

Q

Regarding peaked roof operations at PD fires, it would be inaccurate to state that?
(6.1, 6.2 A & B)
A. The order of preference for roof access is Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, then Portable
Ladder
B. The preferred position of the Tower Ladder is parallel to the front of the building so the
basket can be placed over the corner of the building near the peak of the roof
C. An aerial ladder placed to a peak roof shall have the ladder extended at least 5’ above and
to one side of the peak
D. Whenever an aerial ladder or tower ladder basket cannot be placed near the peak, it should
be placed in the “VALLEY” area where a hook ladder can be used to reach the peak
E. If roof skylights are found, they should be vented prior to cutting the roof only when
directed by the IC

Question 55

Q

An officer conducting drill on opening a peaked roof at a fire in a Queen Anne PD was
correct when she stated that? (6.3 A, B, C)
A. The first hole should be cut at the main gable
B. The power saw may only be used from an aerial ladder or tower ladder
C. If cutting a peak roof with an axe, cut over the fire parallel to and on the windward side of
the ridge.
D. After the cut is made, push down the ceiling with a 6’ hook

Answer

A

A

D sounds ok to me too

The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder as
described in Firefighting Procedures, Ladders 6.
Working from a position straddling the peak, cut a hole over the fire, parallel
to and on the lee side of the ridge.
A 6’ hook (10’ for a Queen Anne) should be brought to the roof to push down
the ceiling on the top floor after the roof hole has been cut

Question 56

Q

Answer Questions 27 - 28 based on the following scenario:
At 0300 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 2-story,
flat-roof PD. They note that the fire building is of Class 4 construction with three attached
exposures on each side. Exposure 2 is showing significant smoke on the second floor, while
exposure 4 has a light smoke condition on the second floor. There are no victims showing
on the front of the building requiring a rescue at this time.
27. In this situation, it would be correct for the 1st Roof FF to take which action(s)?
(Ch 4 7.1 A—1, 3, 5)
A. Go to the roof of the fire building bringing the halligan and 6’ hook. He should not bring
the Life Saving Rope because the building is only two stories in height
B. Use the scuttle in Exposure 4 if it offers the easiest access to its interior than any other
attached exposure
C. Contact the LCC for assistance on the roof if a Life Saving Rope rescue is required
D. Immediately vent the skylight if he hears over the HT that the first engine is advancing into
the first floor with a charged line

Question 57

Q

Answer Questions 27 - 28 based on the following scenario:
At 0300 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 2-story,
flat-roof PD. They note that the fire building is of Class 4 construction with three attached
exposures on each side. Exposure 2 is showing significant smoke on the second floor, while
exposure 4 has a light smoke condition on the second floor. There are no victims showing
on the front of the building requiring a rescue at this time.

Which member(s) below would not be operating correctly at this incident if they performed
the indicated tactics? (Ch 4 5.5 A #6, Pgs 17-18, 19, 20)
A. The first OV should go to the rear to check for life hazards and perform VEIS.
B. The first LCC should assist the first Roof FF with portable ladder placement to the roof
C. The second Inside Team should proceed to Exposure 2 to check for extension, and the
officer may direct the 2nd LCC to check Exposure 4.
D. The second OV should conduct a survey of the rear and sides for victims, insure ventilation
is completed as required in the rear, then if not needed to assist with any VEIS, team up with the
2nd LCC as needed in Exposure 4
E. The second Roof FF should take a 6’ halligan hook and halligan to the roof and assist in
roof ventilation of the fire building and necessary exposures

Question 58

Q

On arrival at a cellar fire in a two-family, peaked roof PD, the Roof / OV team of the first
arriving ladder company conducted a survey around the perimeter of the dwelling for occupants
in need of immediate rescue and found no visible life hazard. In this situation, they should then
immediately perform VEIS of the ______? (Ch 4 9.2)
A. Cellar B. 1st floor C. 2nd floor D. Attic

Answer

A

7.2 For cellar and first floor fires, the Roof/OV team of the first arriving ladder company will
conduct a survey around the perimeter of the dwelling for occupants in need of
immediate rescue. If no visible life hazard is found, they shall VEIS the first floor
windows and assist in searches. They must ensure that all bedrooms on the first floor are
searched quickly. After completion of first floor, they should VEIS the second floor if
the second ladder company has not yet arrived.

Question 59

Q

You are the 1st ladder officer at a cellar fire in a 2 ½ story PD. After conducting a size-up, it
is decided to use a secondary entrance to quickly apply water on the fire. In this situation, you
would be correct to believe? (Ch 4 10.1, 10.2, 10.3)
A. If the second due ladder is not on scene yet, the inside team should perform a quick
primary search of the first floor, then proceed to the same entrance as the first hoseline.
B. If no hoseline is immediately available, and conditions permit, descend the interior cellar
stairs with both members of the inside team to conduct a rapid, thorough primary search and
attempt to confine the fire
C. When descending the interior cellar stair via the secondary entrance, you should close any
interior door found at the top of the stairs that leads to the first floor
D. If a Bilco style door covers the exterior cellar entrance and might provide the quick access
to the cellar, it should be utilized in preference to other cellar entrances

Question 60

Q

First alarm units arrive at a PD cellar fire where the first engine and ladder officers decide
the quickest access to the cellar is through the main entrance. In this situation, the ladder officer
would be incorrect to believe that? (Ch 4 10.4)
A. The Engine Officer shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a charged
hoseline advances via the main entrance
B. The 1st Inside Team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into
the cellar
C. If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar,
one member of the inside team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company
officer and the other member complete the primary search of the cellar
D. If the first hose line does not advance down the interior cellar stair, the first ladder inside
team will assume responsibility for the primary search of the first floor and floors above

Question 61

Q

Members operating at PD attic fires would be incorrect to believe? (Ch 4 11)
A. When opening knee walls in attic spaces, avoid opening walls near the stairs
B. Opening up a 3’ section of ceiling on the floor below may allow the engine to sweep the
attic area from a small extension ladder
C. If wood is encountered when attempting to open the attic area above, shift about 1-2 feet to
one side and make another opening
D. The bent tip or cockloft nozzle may be used effectively at attic fires

Question 62

Q

PART V – TB - EMERGENCIES #2 {NATURAL GAS}:
1. A Lieutenant conducting drill on natural gas emergencies and fires was incorrect when she
stated that? (2, 5, 7, 8)
A. Natural gas is explosive when confined. Its explosive range is 5% to 15%
B. Natural gas is lighter than air and odorless, but mercaptan added to it gives it a distinctive
rotten egg odor
C. Gas service piping may be steel, plastic, or copper, but plastic and copper gas pipes are not
allowed inside structures
D. Most gas valve shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety and require a ¼ turn clockwise to turn the
valve to the off position

Answer

A

Most gas shutoffs are of the ¼ turn variety and can easily be shut off using the fork end of
a Halligan tool, (Picture 3) vice grips or pliers to turn the wing cock valve ¼ turn counter
clockwise.

Question 63

Q

You are a Lieutenant that has just arrived at a gas emergency at a stove in a building where
you are unable to shut the appliance valve because it is damaged. You then determine that the
building has a low pressure master meter with interior gas riser valves above coming off of the
master meter. In this situation it would be preferable to next attempt to shut the? (Pg 4-5)
A. Head of service valve C. Master meter
B. Interior gas riser valve D. Curb valve

Question 64

Q

Regarding exterior gas riser valves, it would be inaccurate to state? (Pg 6)
A. They are located on the gas riser outside of the building before any exterior meters
B. All external meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter
C. If a curb valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve
D. Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a
building

Answer

A

D
Exterior Gas Riser Valve - Gas riser valves are located on the gas riser outside
of the building before any exterior meters. It is a ¼ turn valve. All external
meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter. If a curb
valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve. This valve may be present
outside, even when meters are installed inside the building. (Picture 10)

Answer 28

A

7-A, C, E, G

Answer 29

A

D

 Check at least three exposures on both sides of the occupancies with positive gas
readings for the presence of a gas odor or leak including above and below the
suspected leak. Evacuate and ventilate as necessary.

Answer 30

A

B
If gas levels are above the flammable limits in the 2-story frames, units should start venting
on the? (Pg 13)
A. First floor B. 2nd floor

Answer 31

A

A, B, C, D

OUTDOOR GAS LEAK:
Indicators
 A heavy gas odor in the area. It may be intermittent especially on a windy day.
 There may be an opaque cloud rising from the ground at the site of the leak.
 Dirt and debris may be seen blowing into the air from an excavation. This would
indicate a high pressure leak.
 A loud roaring sound indicates a high pressure leak.

Answer 32

A

D

6.1 The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%. The meter will read oxygen deficient
or oxygen enriched atmospheres. The low oxygen level alarm is set at 19.5% and the
high alarm level is set at 23.0%. Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall
don their SCBA facepiece and notify the Incident Commander of abnormal oxygen
readings on the Altair meter. Notify dispatcher of conditions, and have the utility
company respond and request an ETA. A series of three crosses across the screen under
the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 25% oxygen (Photo 1). Incident
Commanders shall take necessary action to address the abnormal condition.