WEEK #2 WEEK OF 9/23/13 PART I – LADDERS 3 (TENEMENTS) Pgs 36 – to the end PART II – AUC’s #149, 150 & 151 PART III – PRIVATE DWELLINGS, CH. #6 {Lightweight Construction} PART IV – ENGINE OPS – CH. #9 & Add #1 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards

PART I – LADDERS 3 (TENEMENTS) Pgs 36 – to the end PART II – AUC’s #149, 150 & 151 PART III – PRIVATE DWELLINGS, CH. #6 {Lightweight Construction} PART IV – ENGINE OPS – CH. #9 & Add #1

1
Q

PART I – LADDERS 3 (TENEMENTS) Pgs 36 – to the end:

  1. A company officer conducting drill on the Roof FF’s position was incorrect when he
    stated? (5.3.3A, C)

A. Never attempt to climb onto or off a bulkhead or similar type structure at a spot near or
next to an open shaft
B. Never attempt to climb onto or off a bulkhead or similar type structure at a spot near a
building wall that faces on a shaft, areaway, courtyard or street
C. To gain access to the roof of a bulkhead, position a halligan as a stop parallel to the bottom
of a removed bulkhead door, with the door placed at an angle of 30-45 degrees with the roof
D. If in doubt regarding where you are getting off a roof bulkhead, drop an object, (never a
tool) and listen for the sound of it hitting the roof surface

A
  1. D

C. After gaining access to and venting a high bulkhead, the roof firefighter
should get off the same place where they gained access. This allows the
firefighter to descend at a location that they are familiar with. Some
bulkheads are erected flush with an exterior wall (i.e., one side of the
bulkhead is a continuation of a building). This reduces the selection of an
egress from the bulkhead. If in doubt the firefighter may drop an object
(a tool if necessary) and listen for the sound of it hitting the roof surface.
(Figure 5J)

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2
Q
  1. A Ladder Company arrives at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story OLT building
    that is on the corner of 3rd Avenue and 109th street. The front of the building is on 3rd Avenue and
    has 4 front windows and no front fire escape. In regards to their sizeup, the members would be
    incorrect to think? (5.4.1 A, C, 5.4.2)

A. The frontage sizeup clearly indicates the building has two railroad flats
B. If there are 6 mailboxes on each wall of the entrance hall, this would generally indicate
railroad flats
C. Apartments numbered 1N and 1S, and 2N and 2S, would generally mean two apartments
per floor
D. Four doors on each floor does not necessarily indicate 4 apartments per floor

A
  1. A
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3
Q
  1. Members conducting sizeup at OLT fires, would be correct to think? (5.4.3 A, B)

A. Smoke issuing from the cornice and showing readily from the cornice, indicates that smoke
and heat are entering the cockloft—and that the cornice should be opened
B. If doubtful about the existence of fire in the cornice or cockloft, open up the returns or open
the roof above with initially a 3’ x 6’ cut
C. When determining where to place a roof cut, use the sense of touch at the base of soil or
waste pipes
D. A rapidly rising column of smoke with particles or embers ascending to higher levels,
visible over the roof top of the building frequently is an indicator of a top floor fire

A
  1. C
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4
Q
  1. You are the 1st Arriving Ladder Company Officer operating at a 4th floor fire in a 5-story
    OLT. While conducting and supervising searches at this fire, you would be correct to think that?
    (5.5.2, 5.5.7)

A. You should be certain that the area in the vicinity of the entrance door, and behind the
entrance door is searched for possible victims at some point during the room or apartment search
B. If any primary or secondary search is delayed or not completed for any reason, the 2nd
Ladder Company Officer must be notified
C. The 1st OV attempting to perform search from the fire floor fire escape must notify his/her
officer before any venting is attempted for a suspected life hazard. This notification is not
required for known life hazards.
D. If the 1st OV cannot make entry into the fire apartment, he/she should probe the immediate
area with hand, foot, or tool. If the adjoining apartment is charged with heat or smoke, the OV
should notify his/her officer before making entry (when teamed) into this adjoining apartment

A
  1. D

Officers of units performing search shall be certain that the area in the vicinity of
the entrance door, and behind the entrance door are searched for possible victims.
After a quick check of this area the room or apartment search can begin.

NOTE: If primary or secondary search is delayed or not completed for any
reason, the incident commander must be notified.
5. D

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5
Q
  1. Who is responsible for maintaining control of the door to the fire apartment and insuring
    units operating above the fire floor are made aware of any conditions affecting their safety,?
    (5.5.9 Note)

A. The First Ladder Officer
B. The First Engine Officer
C. The Second Engine Officer
D. The Engine and Ladder Officers operating on the fire floor

A
  1. D
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6
Q
  1. When searching, which point below is inaccurate regarding search tactics? (Pg 45-46)

A. A low mattress may indicate a bunk bed, check for an upper bunk
B. Narrow, tapered legs with wheels in a bedroom may indicate a crib
C. Narrow legs close together in a kitchen may indicate a high chair
D. A locked bathroom door is usually an indication that no one is inside

A
  1. D
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7
Q
  1. At 1300 hours, the 1st Ladder Company OV is on the fire floor fire escape at a fire on the
    3rd floor of a 6-story OLT. The OV is waiting to perform horizontal ventilation for
    extinguishment. He then hears the Engine Officer make 3 statements as follows: (5.7.2)

Statement 1 — “Engine 69 to Engine 69 Chauffeur, START WATER”
Statement 2 — “Engine 69 to Command, we have high heat condition, just starting the
attack”
Statement 3 — “Engine 69 to Command, we have water on the fire”

In this situation, the 1st OV may now immediately vent the windows in the immediate fire area
only for extinguishment purposes to facilitate the engine companies advance. Do you:

A. Agree or D. Disagree?

A
  1. D
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8
Q
  1. Members arrive at the scene of an OLT fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-sory building. The
    members observe / receive the following information regarding life hazards on the scene:
  2. The dispatcher informs them on their arrival “Reports of people trapped”
  3. They can see a victim hanging out of a window
  4. They hear a victim moaning for help from the fire escape
  5. A 15 year old on scene states, “My mother is in the back bedroom—I could not get
    her out”
  6. A police officer on scene states, “I saw 2 people at the window on the 3rd floor, I tried
    to get in, and I could not make it”

How many of these situations constitute a known life hazard? (5.7.3)

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

A

8 ­C(2,3,4,5)

A known life hazard is defined as follows:
 A victim can be seen by the rescuer
 A victim can be heard by the rescuer
 A member has information from a credible source or a person at the scene
indicating the location of the life hazard
NOTE: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall
forward a report to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of
these incidents will be conducted.

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9
Q
  1. During search procedures in NFP buildings, it would be correct to state? (5.7.3)

A. The Ladder Officer shall be notified when a search team enters from the exterior to conduct
a standard search or a search for a known life hazard
B. The Ladder Officer may decide to disapprove an entry for standard search activities by an
OV or LCC. This guideline does not apply when there is a known life hazard
C. A member entering for search from an exterior window should know that after clearing out
the window, then reassessing the smoke and heat, then probing the immediate area, the priority
action is then to begin conducting the search
D. When searching a room, if a victim is found, immediately transmit a 10-45 with the
appropriate subcode, and include your location and planned exit route

A
  1. A

 Search the room and locate any victim. If a victim is found immediately
transmit radio code 10-45, include your location and planned exit route. The
Company Officer and Incident Commander shall take necessary action to
support your rescue effort.

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10
Q
  1. Ladder company members arriving on the scene of a top floor fire in a 6-story NLT
    building were incorrect in which one of the following actions: (5.9.2, 5.9.4, 5.9.6)

A. They performed initial roof ventilation of the bulkhead, skylights, and scuttles before
cutting the roof
B. After venting the roof, they communicated the impact on the ventilation profile of the fire
C. They then cut a 3’ x 6’ coffin cut on the roof directly over the fire
D. When cutting, made the 1st cut 3’ long, the second cut 6’ long, and made the third cut as
their knockout cut

A
  1. D

C. Cut #2 “knock out” corner cut for tool insertion.

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11
Q
  1. When a fire is burning in a top floor apartment, it is not efficient to wait until the fire is
    knocked down before examining the cockloft. An early inspection can be made by going to a
    room adjacent to the fire (in the same or adjoining apartment) and opening an observation hole in
    that ceiling. (5.9.6 Note)

A. Agree or D. Disagree?

A
  1. A

NOTE: When a fire is burning in a top floor apartment, it is not efficient to wait until the fire is
“knocked down” before examining the cockloft. An early inspection can be made by
going to a room adjacent to the fire (in the same or adjoining apartment) and opening
an observation hole in that ceiling. If fire can be seen burning in the cockloft, the
observation hole should not be expanded until a charged hoseline has been positioned.
It is a good practice while waiting for the charged hoseline to ventilate all windows in
the apartment, because once the ceiling is opened the floor will quickly become filled
with smoke. This is also the time to make sure that a roof ventilation hole is being cut
directly above the fire.

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12
Q
  1. A member who is trapped in a front apartment of an OLT and wants to escape by going
    through the partition wall of the rear apartment would be correct to think that? (6.1.1–6.1.5)

A. The order of preference is the use of the halligan, axe, or the hook to break through the wall
B. A hole should be punched right about waist level, before using short strokes to snap the lath
off the near wall
C. For best results, open up the opposite side of the wall at the same time as you open up the
near side of the wall
D. Use the Swim Move or Reduced Profile Maneuver to move through the opening

A
  1. D
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13
Q
  1. You are a Battalion Chief supervising overhauling operations after a fire has been knocked
    down in an OLT apartment. You (and the company officers) would be incorrect to consider
    which points while supervising operations? (7.1.6, 7.1.7)

A. The partitions that separate apartments in OLT buildings are not firestopped between the
ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above
B. Floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building in OLT’s
C. Fire travelling in the bay between floor beams not only permits lateral fire spread within
the building, but also extension into an adjoining building via beam ends or defective masonry
D. The horizontal arteries allowing lateral extension between the ceiling of one floor and the
underside of the floor above exist in every bay from the front to the rear of the building

A
  1. D
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14
Q
  1. While overhauling at tenement fires, a Ladder Officer would be correct to think that?
    (7.1.7, Fig 7A, Fig 7B, 7.2.6)

A. In tenements, you will find steel “I”-beams and steel “I” columns
B. You will also find steel in all Old Law Tenements
C. A member operating on the roof of a building for a lower floor fire that detects heat at the
base of a soil pipe, should promptly initiate a 3’ x 6’ roof cut
D. When a boxed out protrusion existing on a wall contains a steel column that was involved
in fire, then the entire length of this void will have to be examined,

A
  1. D
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15
Q
  1. You are the 2nd due Ladder Officer operating on the floor above at an OLT fire. How many
    of the following condition(s) found in the floor above apartment would justify you calling for a
    line to the floor above. (7.3.1)
  2. A smoke condition found at the apartment entrance
  3. High temperatures—only at the ceiling level
  4. A crackling sound heard within the apartment
  5. A fiery glow seen through the smoke
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A
  1. C (2, 3, 4)

7.3.1 A smoke condition at the apartment entrance is not enough reason to believe that
fire has extended to this floor. However, high temperatures even only at the
ceiling level or a crackling sound heard within the apartment or a fiery glow seen
through the smoke are all indications of fire extension and justify calling for a
hand line.

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16
Q
  1. While supervising operations on the floor above, a second ladder company officer would
    be correct to think that? (7.3.2, 7.3.5, 7.4.1D)
    A. If a wall is too hot to keep your hand on, it should first be opened right at the hot spot
    B. If fire is found in a bay, that bay and at least two adjoining bays on each side should be
    opened for examination
    C. When fire is found extending to the floor above, the ceiling or wall with extension should
    immediately be fully opened to define the outer edge of the fire
    D. To make small probing holes in the ceiling, use the handle or the point of the hook
A
  1. D
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17
Q
  1. The officer of the 2nd due ladder company on the floor above the fire is instructed by the
    All Hands BC to cut open the flooring above because they cannot fully extinguish the fire in the
    ceiling from below. In this situation, the officer would be incorrect to think? (7.4.2)
    A. Cuts that are parallel to the joist should be made close to the opposite joists of the bays
    adjoining the one we wish to expose
    B. Cuts should be made to expose the entire bay and its joists, as well as the two adjoining
    bays
    C. Cutting with a saw is the most efficient method
    D. If cutting a floor with an axe, cut at a 60 degree angle straight across the grain
A
  1. D

Primary Method:
A. Cutting with saw - Because it is the most efficient. Area must be vented to
prevent buildup of carbon monoxide.
B. Cutting with axe - Cut floor at a 60 degree angle and on a bias as shown.
This is easier than cutting across the grain.

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18
Q
  1. While overhauling in warm or hot weather, the IC may permit members to remove only
    their? (8.4)
    A. Bunker coat
    B. Bunker pant
    C. Bunker coat and pant
    D. Bunker coat and gloves
A
  1. A

8.4 In warm or hot weather, the Incident Commander may permit the members to remove
their bunker coats to reduce the debilitating effects of excessive perspiration. However,
they must always wear bunker pants, boots, helmets and gloves while overhauling.
8.5 Adequate lighting is required at all times.

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19
Q
  1. Before throwing any materials out of a window, Officers shall insure a member is posted
    below and the area examined first. No material shall be thrown onto any roof or setback.
    Regarding the throwing of materials into shafts, it would be accurate to state? (9.9)
  2. Involved materials must not be thrown into any kind of shaft
  3. No materials may be thrown into any kind of shaft
  4. Involved materials must not be thrown into any enclosed shaft
  5. No materials may be thrown into any narrow shaft
    A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 1, 4 D. 3, 4
A
  1. D

9.9 The removal of involved materials to enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be
permitted.

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20
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant supervising overhaul operations after a top floor fire has been
    extinguished in an OLT. Which of the following structural element(s) may be removed from the
    building? (9.3, 9.8)
    A. Lintels, only if deeply charred
    B. Floor joists, if there is no other way to extinguish them
    C. Roof joists, if there is no other way to extinguish them
    D. Wooden structural members that are scorched or have blistered paint
A
  1. B, C

9.3 The removal of major structural elements is a very serious matter. Floor joists or roof
joists should not be removed if complete extinguishment can be accomplished in any
other manner. LINTELS in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not
be removed, regardless of charring, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
To remove them from their anchorage could result in injury and considerable property
damage through partial collapse.

9.8 Wooden structural members that are deeply charred may be removed from the building.
Those that have merely been scorched or on which the paint has been blistered shall be
left in the apartment for possible reuse.

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21
Q

PART II – AUC’s #149, 150 & 151:
1. The Buckeye Pipeline is comprised of two steel pipes that carry gasoline in one pipe and
kerosene base aviation fuel in the other pipe. When units are assigned to shut Manual Valves to
isolate sections of the pipeline (other than the Shipper’s line from the LIC terminal), they would
be most correct to think that the long wrench with the square female fitting is inserted into the
valve box onto a male square fitting and turned? (2.3.2)
A. 24 full turns C. 48 full turns
B. 42 half turns D. 84 half turns

A
  1. D

2.3.2 Manual shut off valves are generally located below ground in a valve housing
under a hinged cover. The cover is opened by inserting a short tee wrench, into a
latching device and by making a quarter turn left or right (the handle of the
combination type wrench can also be used to open the cover). The three and onehalf
foot long wrench with a female fitting is then inserted into the valve box onto
a male square fitting and turned clockwise 42 full turns (84 half turns) to shut off
the valve. The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper’s lines
extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (48 half
turns) clockwise.

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22
Q
  1. A Captain of an Engine Company that is an assigned or an alternate unit on Pipeline
    responses would be incorrect to believe which of the following items / equipment are required to
    be maintained on the rig or in quarters? (4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.9, 4.11 TB Foam)
    A. 2 sets of Unit Alarm Assignment and Instruction Cards—one set on the apparatus and the
    other in a prominent, clearly marked and protected place at the housewatch desk
    B. 2 sets of tee wrenches and long wrenches (or 2 combo wrenches)—one set on the apparatus
    and one set shall be hung on the wall near the housewatch desk
    C. Two maps—each stored with each set of UAAC and Instruction cards
    D. Two cans of foam concentrate must be stored on the apparatus as required and additional
    cans of foam stored with the spare wrenches
A
  1. D

4.11 Foam concentrate must be carried on all apparatus as required. Additional cans of foam
must be stored with the spare wrenches for use by relocated units.

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23
Q
  1. Regarding FDNY response and tactics at Pipeline incidents, it would be correct to state
    that? (4.12, 6.1, 6.2.2)
    A. An Engine out of quarters receiving notification to respond to a second alarm for a pipeline
    leak should return to quarters to pick up the additional cans of foam only if nearby
    B. Manual valves should always be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards—except
    in serious situations where a unit is required to protect life or property
    C. Patrols by units may be on foot or by apparatus. Foot patrols are to be conducted by two
    HT equipped FF’s
    D. If a unit is required to both close a manual valve and patrol to an adjacent valve, they must
    first close the valve, then perform their patrol duties
    E. A unit performing isolation duties should indicate they are 10-84 on their apparatus MDT
    when they reach a valve location, then inform the dispatcher by apparatus radio of valve closure
    and patrol duty completion
A
  1. C

4.12 Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm for a street box
associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus.
Note: Engine companies out of quarters, receiving a notification to respond to a second
alarm for a pipeline leak must not return to quarters for the additional cans of foam.

6.1 Isolation of the leak. Isolation of a pipeline or valve leak is vital in controlling the
amount of fuel lost, and thereby reduce the danger of, and intensity of a possible fire.
Isolation duties are carried out by manually shutting down valves. Valves should always
be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards, except when a unit is required to
protect life in a serious life threatening situation, and is thereby prevented from carrying
out isolation duties.

6.2.2 Patrolling the pipeline in the sector to locate the leak. Patrols will be on foot or by
apparatus as designated on alarm assignment cards. When units have the
responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), both
functions are carried out simultaneously.
A. Foot patrols are conducted by two handi-talkie equipped firefighters.

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24
Q
  1. Department apparatus should be brought no closer than _____ feet to a leak, and the IC
    must position flag persons at least _____ feet on each side of an incident adjacent to railroad
    tracks? (6.5.7, 6.6.2, 6.6.3)
    A. 600, 800 C. 800, 1000
    B. 600, 1000 D. 1000, 600
A
  1. B
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25
Q
  1. Units responding to an alarm for a Buckeye Pipeline incident would be incorrect to think
    that? (6.2.3, 6.2.4, 6.3, 6.4, 6.5.1, 7.3.1, 7.3.6)
    A. Unless otherwise instructed, Chiefs should respond to a rendezvous location until the leak
    is located and a Command Post established
    B. Upon confirmation of a confirmed leak—transmit a second alarm. If ignition occurs,
    additional alarms must be transmitted
    C. Once the leak location is identified, the location, an estimate of the amount of product in
    the street, the topography and exposures should be included in a preliminary report to the
    dispatcher
    D. Manually closed valves should never be re-opened before the fire or emergency is over
    E. Re-opening a valve may actually decrease the amount of a fuel spill. This may only be
    done after an evaluation
A
  1. D

6.2.3 Chief officers responding on the initial alarm, unless otherwise instructed, shall
initially respond to the rendezvous location designated on the assignment card.
6.2.4 When the leak is located, a Command Post will be established at a location
consistent with operational procedures.

6.3 If ignition occurs before arrival of the first Fire Department unit, the duties required by
the UAAC and Instruction Card must still be performed, and additional alarms
transmitted immediately. Isolation of the pipeline by closing manually operated valves is
still of primary importance to reduce the amount of fuel released.
6.4 Manually closed valves are to be re-opened only by personnel of the Buckeye Pipeline
Company when the fire or emergency is over, when directed to do so by the Incident
Commander, or to locate the leak upon direction of the Incident Commander.

6.5.1 The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to shut down the
valves for the purpose of isolating the leak and decreasing the amount of fuel
spilled. After the pipeline is shut down, and fuel has stopped being pumped, the
Incident Commander should re-evaluate the situation and make a determination if
it would be prudent and useful to reopen certain valves. A brief survey of the
elevation diagrams of the pipeline route (found in the Buckeye Pipeline
Operations Manual) might indicate that opening a valve might actually ease the
head pressure created by an elevation of the pipeline, and thereby decrease the
amount of fuel spilled. This would consequently decrease the pressure at the leak
site, and lessen the amount of fuel leakage. This should be done after careful
evaluation of the topography, pipeline run, other pertinent conditions, time
factors, and after consultation with representatives of the Buckeye Pipeline
Company at the scene.

7.3.1 Upon confirmation of a confirmed leak, transmit a second alarm for the street box
nearest the leak location.

7.3.6 When the leak location is identified, the location, estimate of the amount of
product in the street, and the topography and exposures should be included in the
preliminary report to the dispatcher.

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26
Q
  1. Units arrive at the scene of a second alarm transmitted for a Buckeye Pipeline leak and find
    a large spill of unignited gasoline near a manual valve location due to an accident by
    construction workers. There is a strong wind blowing from North to South. Which action below
    would be incorrect for them to consider in this situation? (6.5.2, 6.5.3, 6.5.5)
    A. The primary consideration is for the evacuation of the area involved
    B. The spilled fuel should be covered with foam
    C. Ignition sources to the south of the spill should be extinguished first
    D. If ignition occurs with trapped workers, a solid hose stream held horizontally a few feet
    above the ground and moved rapidly side to side will wash burning gasoline aside to provide a
    path for rescue
A
  1. D

B. Solid hose streams held horizontally a few inches above the ground and
moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline or aviation
fuel aside to provide a path for rescue. Use caution to prevent gasoline
from flowing behind units and trapping them.

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27
Q
  1. Manual valves may be actually operated (turned, closed…) only during? (10.3.2,
    10.4.7, 10.5.10)
    A. Familiarization Drills or Division Drills C. Division Drills
    B. Division Drills or Borough Drills. D. Borough Drills.
A
  1. D
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28
Q
  1. The Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline carries natural gas that is non-toxic, lighter than air,
    which can be an asphyxiant, and is combustible in concentrations from? (1.1)
    A. 5%-10% C. 7%-15%
    B. 5%-15% D. 5%-20%
A
  1. B
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29
Q
  1. Except in the event of an immediate threat to life or property, no valves of the Iroquois
    Natural Gas Pipeline should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in
    consultation with Con Ed Iroquois personnel. (4.5)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A
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30
Q
  1. Units arrive on the scene of a reported leak in Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline. They would
    be correct to consider which of the following point(s)? (7.1, 7.1.2, 7.2.3)
    A. Their initial actions should be to setup a perimeter and eliminate ignition sources
    B. FDNY units should typically perform isolation duties by manually shutting down valves
    C. If the natural gas has ignited—the gas supply must be shut by responding units
    D. If the gas is escaping without ignition, the use of fog lines to assist may actually hinder the
    dissipation of gas
    E. Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak is normally performed by the first arriving engine
    and ladder companies
A
  1. A, D

7.1 Isolation of the pipeline is vital in controlling the gas leak. Isolation duties are typically
carried out by remotely shutting down valves from the Iroquois Gas Control center.
7.1.1 The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter
and eliminate sources of ignition. Natural gas is lighter then air and will naturally
disperse into the atmosphere. If the natural gas has ignited, consider shutting
down the gas supply.

7.1.2 Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration
shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere
without the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may
actually hinder the dissipation of the gas. The Incident Commander must evaluate
existing conditions such as weather, exposure problems, etc. in determining the
most effective method in dispersing the gas.

7.2.3 Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company
or SOC Support Ladder Company as designated by the Incident Commander.
The designated units shall utilize their metering capabilities during their patrol
duties.
Note: If Rescue, Squad or SOC Support Ladder Company personnel are not
available, the IC shall order available units to perform these duties.

31
Q
  1. The first arriving Battalion Chief operating at an alarm for a reported leak in Iroquois
    Natural Gas Pipeline would be incorrect to think? (7.1, 7.3.1, 7.4.2)
    A. Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm for the street box nearest the location
    B. When the leak is located, establish an Incident Command Post at a location consistent with
    existing conditions
    C. In the event of a sub sea leak, a Marine Company will be assigned to patrol the sub sea
    pipeline
    D. All venting will normally occur in Northport, L.I. and must be coordinated by the IC with
    the Iroquois Gas Control Center
    E. Flag persons must be positioned at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident to warn
    members immediately upon any suspicious indication of an approaching train
A
  1. B

7.2.5 When the leak is located, the Incident Commander will establish an Operations
Post at a location consistent with existing conditions.

32
Q
  1. During a training exercise on the Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline, it would be accurate to
    state after consulting Iroquois / Con Ed personnel valves shall? (8.1)
    A. Only be partially closed
    B. Only be fully closed
    C. Be partially or fully closed
    D. Under no circumstances be even partially closed
A
  1. A
33
Q
  1. While operating at a Brush fire, members should be aware of all of the following terms
    except? (3.3, 3.4)
    A. Looking at the fire from the rear of the blackened area, the left side is called the left flank
    B. The head of the fire is called the leading edge
    C. Fingers are isolated small fires downwind from the main fire
    D. Bog fires start on the surface and burn downward into the soft spongy ground
A
  1. C

3.3.4 Fingers are strips of long, thin sections of fire extending outward from the main
blackened fire area.

34
Q
  1. Regarding the use of Brush Fire Units, it would be correct to state? (4.5.5 A, B,
    4.5.10B, 4.5.14)
    A. BFUs have MDTs and can also be dispatched by radio
    B. BFUs shall always be designated by their assigned number on Department radio and
    handie-talkie (“BFU 3 to Command”)
    C. BFU winches can be used for self extrication or used to tow out full size apparatus
    D. BFUs can knock over trees, go through hedgerows, and traverse streams
A
  1. B

A. The Computer Alarm Dispatching System (CADS) has been programmed
to identify Brush Fire Units independently. BFUs do not have MDTs,
they are dispatched by radio.
Note. For administrative and fire report purposes, BFUs are assigned the numeral “9”.
Example: BFU 1 would be recorded as 9-501 on payroll and operations reports
that require numerals.
B. The Borough Commander shall determine the operating locations of BFUs
staffed independently

B. Special attention should be given to four wheel-drive operations, use of
winch and water pump operation. BFU winches are designed for
self-extrication or for use on similar weight vehicles. They shall not be
used to tow out full size apparatus or heavy trucks.

4.5.14 While BFUs are highly capable and effective operating in these environments,
there are limitations. BFUs cannot knock over trees, go through hedgerows, or
traverse streams and ponds.

35
Q
  1. Units operating at brush fires should know all of the following special vehicles / equipment
    are accurately described except? (4.6.5, 4.7.1, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 5.1.5, 5.8.2)
    A. ATV’s are equipped to remove injured members utilizing a mounted Stokes basket
    B. The one inch Forestry hose, in 100 foot lengths, is intended only for wildland operations
    C. BFUs can be used for vehicle fires that are a sufficient distance off the road, which makes a
    hose stretch impractical
    D. A mini-manifold supplied by one 2 ½” line can supply up to three 1” hose lines
    E. The Rescue apparatus winch can be used to extricate bogged-down apparatus
A
  1. D

4.7.4 Staten Island Battalions carry a mini-manifold consisting of a 2-1/2-inch inlet
supplying four gated outlets reduced to 1-inch discharges. One 2-1/2-inch line
can be stretched deep into the woods to supply this manifold where four 1-inch
forestry lines can then be operated.

36
Q
  1. First alarm engines arriving at the scene of a brush fire would be correct to consider all of
    the following tactics except? (5.1.2, 5.4.2, 5.4.3, 5.4.10 )
    A. A unit should not self commit to an operation unless a structure is exposed
    B. The initial attack should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants except to
    protect exposures.
    C. The best time to move in for a close attack is when the wind diminishes
    D. Never attack or operate in front of the fire
    E. Brush fires should be attacked and extinguished from the flanks first, then units should
    move to the interior burning areas
A
  1. D

5.4.5 In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire.

37
Q
  1. A Captain conducting drill on brush fire operations was correct in which one statement that
    he made below? (5.4.13, 5.4.16, 5.4.17, 5.5.6)
    A. Streams should be directed at the flames above the burning brush
    B. Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Therefore units
    should be positioned at the top of the hill to protect exposures, and attack the fire from that
    position
    C. Using a water curtain to break-up heat waves is generally effective
    D. Members can raise brooms in the air or operate streams into the air to verify their location
    to the IC
A
  1. D

5.4.13 Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above
the brush

5.4.16 Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units
positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire
from the bottom of the hill and work upward.

5.4.17 Attempting to break-up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally
ineffective. Instead, utilize streams to apply water directly onto exposures.

5.5.6 A raised tower ladder can provide the IC with an excellent vantage point to
observe the overall area of operations, location of exposures, fire travel, and to
direct firefighting operations. In addition:
 A raised tower-ladder can also serve as a reference point for units
operating in the brush.
 Units operating in the brush may be obscured. To verify a unit’s location,
contact the unit via handie-talkie and have members raise brooms in the
air, or operate streams into the air.

38
Q
  1. Never operate a hose line beneath a high voltage line as electric current may be transmitted
    via the particles in the smoke? (5.11.11
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A
39
Q

(Questions 19 - 21 are Battalion Chief ONLY questions)
19. The primary use of the NYPD helicopter at Brush Fire operations is for? (9.1)
A. Implementation of fireground strategy
B. Control of field forces
C. Air Recon
D. Water drops

A

19.C

40
Q
  1. A Battalion Chief special called to a 3rd Alarm brush fire as the Air Recon Chief should be
    aware that the? (9.2, 9.4, 9.5, 9.6)
    A. Helicopter will not fly in winds over 30 mph
    B. Helicopter has limited operating time—1 to 2 hours
    C. Responding BC should call the NYPD Aviation Base and inform them of the response
    D. Use of the Bambi bucket is under the control of the ARC, in consult with the IC
A
  1. C

9.4 The helicopter will not fly in winds over 40 mph.
9.5 The helicopter has limited operating time, generally 2-3 hours.

9.6 Water Drops
9.6.1 Water drops utilizing the Bambi bucket, should be confined to areas that are
remote from FDNY field forces and must be used with the greatest discretion and
control. The use of the Bambi bucket shall be under the control of the IC, in
consultation with the ARC. The ARC shall notify the NYPD Helicopter Pilot
directly of the location of the water drop. The communications between the ARC
and the NYPD Helicopter Pilot shall be made according to a pre-arranged
communications plan.

41
Q
  1. An Air Recon Chief operating at a 4-Alarm Brush fire needs to refuel and decides to use a
    Forward Refueling Site other than Floyd Bennett Field. In this situation, the ARC should notify
    the IC that a forward Refueling Site will be used and insure a ___________ is special called to
    that location for the duration of the refueling operation? (9.8)
    A. Foam Carrier and Foam Coordinator
    B. Foam Carrier and a Purple K Unit with the associated Engine Company
    C. Purple K Unit with the associated Engine Company and Battalion Chief
    D. Purple K Unit with the associated Engine Company and a Ladder Company
A
  1. B
42
Q

PART III – PRIVATE DWELLINGS, CH. #6 {Lightweight Construction}:
1. Regarding the potential for collapse in PD’s, it would be incorrect to state? (1.6, 1.7)
A. Early collapse is NOT a primary consideration at traditional PD’s
B. In traditional PD’s, one hour is amount of time before collapse is estimated to occur
C. In traditional PD’s, when there is no ceiling to protect structural components, 30 minutes is
amount of time before collapse is estimated to occur
D. When fire extends to the structural components in a PD constructed with lightweight
materials, collapse may occur suddenly, with little or no warning signs, within 5-10 minutes

A
  1. C
43
Q
  1. In any building construction, the critical area subject to failure as a result of fire is the point
    of connection. (1.5)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A
44
Q
  1. Collapse is __________ the primary consideration in buildings constructed with
    lightweight materials? (1.7)
    A. Always B. Generally C. Often D. Usually
A
  1. A
45
Q
  1. An area in a building that is unsupported by columns with spans greater than ____ feet is
    generally an indication that lightweight construction is present? (1.8)
    A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30
A
  1. C
46
Q
  1. Which of the following lightweight material(s), when used as beams to support floors,
    would create what is known as a truss loft?
    A. Laminated wooden I-beams C. Metal C-joists
    B. Lightweight parallel chord wood truss D. Composite Truss
A
  1. B, D
47
Q
  1. How many of the following construction feature(s) of lightweight construction are correctly
    stated? (2.2.5A, 2.2.5 C, 3.2.1, 3.4.1)
  2. A lightweight wood truss peaked roof exposed to sufficient fire can be expected to collapse
    as one complete unit into the structure
  3. Plywood burns rapidly and fails at a fast rate, allowing fires that extend to the cockloft /
    attic area to quickly vent thru the roof
  4. The weakest point of lightweight parallel wood chord truss is the sheet metal gusset plates
  5. Metal C-joists must be braced with strapping to prevent them from twisting
A
  1. D
48
Q
  1. You are the officer of an Engine Company that is inspecting a CDA building reportedly
    using lightweight construction between its ceilings and floors, and its top floor ceiling and roof
    above. You should know that unless this building is equipped with an automatic sprinkler
    system, these areas with lightweight construction are required to be divided into equal areas of
    ______ square feet or less? (2.2.6A)
    A. 400 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1000
A
  1. B
49
Q
  1. First alarm units arrive on the scene of a fire in a 2-story lightweight constructed building.
    There is a heavy fire and smoke condition showing on the first floor. The second ladder is on the
    floor above and finds a very minor smoke condition. In this situation, the second ladder company
    officer should suspect what kind of flooring? (2.2.4, 3.4.3)
    A. Oriental Strand Board flooring
    B. Plywood flooring
    C. Vinyl flooring
    D. A concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel
A
  1. D
50
Q
  1. Units arrive on scene of a fire on the second floor of a newer type PD where lightweight
    construction is suspected. In this situation, it would be incorrect for them to believe that?
    (4.1.1—4.1.4, 4.3.1)
    A. The IC shall ensure that all members on the scene are made aware of the presence of
    lightweight construction
    B. The borough dispatcher shall be advised in preliminary and progress reports of the presence
    of lightweight construction
    C. As soon as conditions permit, an immediate inspection of the ceiling voids should be
    conducted. In this case—an inspection hole should be made immediately upon entering the first
    floor.
    D. If fire enters concealed spaces with lightweight construction, all members shall be directed
    not to enter the fire area or areas above until the IC determines the risk of a planned coordinated
    attack—especially when C-Joists and Wooden I-Beams are involved
A
  1. D
51
Q
  1. Units respond to the scene of a fire reported in a 2-story PD with lightweight construction
    that is still under construction. In this situation, an interior attack is permissible? (4.1.7)
    A. Only if the fire is minor
    B. Only if the fire is confined to a small area
    C. Only if the fire is minor or confined to a small area
    D. Only if the fire is minor or medium or confined to a small area
    E. Under no circumstances should an interior attack be conducted in an unoccupied PD under
    construction with lightweight construction
A
  1. C
52
Q
  1. Units arrive on the scene of a fire in a 3-story, new type PD and observe during sizeup the
    presence of smoke pushing at the 2nd floor line on the outside of the building. In this situation,
    they should suspect? (4.1.12)
    A. Laminated wood I-beams C. Metal C-joists
    B. Open web truss D. Ordinary construction
A
  1. B
53
Q
  1. You are the officer of the first arriving engine at a scene of a fire in a 2 ½ story PD with
    CIDS indicating lightweight construction. Your sizeup on arrival finds a medium fire condition
    on the first floor of the structure and there are no window bars on the building. In this situation,
    after transmitting the 10-75 and giving the sizeup, you would be most correct to request an
    additional? (4.2.1)
    A. Engine
    B. Ladder
    C. Engine and Ladder
    D. Ladder and BC
A
  1. A
54
Q
  1. Regarding engine company operations at fires in PD’s with lightweight construction, it
    would be incorrect to state that? (4.1.13, 4.2.6)
    A. Nozzle FF’s should use the leg forward method
    B. A backup hoseline must be positioned for the first hoseline.
    C. The second hoseline stretched must be stretched as the backup line
    D. Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be
    hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the stream
A
  1. C

4.1.13 During overhaul, only the minimum number of firefighters necessary to complete
the task should be used. Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily
damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the
reach of the hose stream. Members should not operate directly above or below
the structurally damaged area, including the entire length of the joist.

4.2.2 A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line. When the 2nd line is
needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the IC to a location
remote from the 1st hoseline, a 3rd hoseline must be positioned as a back-up line.
The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a
building constructed of lightweight materials.

55
Q
  1. Indiscriminate removal of plasterboard on ceilings and walls during the overhaul stage can
    cause instability in PD’s of lightweight construction, particularly in buildings with? (4.3.5)
    A. Laminated wood I-beams C. Metal C-joists
    B. Open web truss D. Ordinary construction
A
  1. C
56
Q
  1. In which of the following situation(s) should a member be allowed to cut the roof of either
    a peaked or flat roof PD with lightweight construction? (4.3.8)
    A. Inspection holes only at a top floor fire
    B. Top floor fire where there is clear indication that the fire has not entered the cockloft
    C. Fire on a floor other than the top floor where there is clear indication that the fire has not
    entered the cockloft
    D. Only from the safety of a TL, when necessary for operations
    E. Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of
    lightweight construction
A
  1. E
57
Q
  1. A Battalion Chief conducting drill on Ladder company operations at PD fires suspected to
    have lightweight construction made the following comments: (4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.3.10, 4.3.11, 4.4.2)
  2. If fire is located on the cellar or first floor preventing visual identification of the type of
    construction, an available unit can be assigned to make an examination, preferably in a
    similar detached structure
  3. If any room was involved in fire, immediately enter the room to make one or more
    inspection holes in the ceiling to check for extension
  4. If any room was involved in fire, ladder officers shall insure a hoseline is in position
    before any additional openings are made besides inspection holes
  5. When not already completed by the first ladder, the second ladder operating on the floor(s)
    above shall make inspection holes to determine the type of construction and the extent of
    fire in any concealed areas
    The BC was correct in how many statements?
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A
  1. B (3, 4)

4.3.1 When lightweight construction is suspected, the first arriving ladder company
shall make an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine
the type of support system present (i.e. for a fire on the 2nd floor, an inspection
hole can be made on the 1st floor). This critical task shall be done immediately
upon arrival. The IC must be notified of the results of this examination.
4.3.2 When fire is located in the cellar or the first floor and conditions prevent visual
identification of the type of construction, an examination could be made in a
similar attached exposure. This inspection shall be assigned by the IC to an
available unit.
4.3.3 Before entering any room that was involved in fire, one or more inspection holes
shall be made in the ceiling to check for fire extension. The ladder company
officer shall ensure that a charged line is in position before any additional
openings are made. The IC must be notified of the results of this examination.

4.3.1 When lightweight construction is suspected, the first arriving ladder company
shall make an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine
the type of support system present (i.e. for a fire on the 2nd floor, an inspection
hole can be made on the 1st floor). This critical task shall be done immediately
upon arrival. The IC must be notified of the results of this examination.
4.3.2 When fire is located in the cellar or the first floor and conditions prevent visual
identification of the type of construction, an examination could be made in a
similar attached exposure. This inspection shall be assigned by the IC to an
available unit.
4.3.3 Before entering any room that was involved in fire, one or more inspection holes
shall be made in the ceiling to check for fire extension. The ladder company
officer shall ensure that a charged line is in position before any additional
openings are made. The IC must be notified of the results of this examination.

4.4.2 Due to the collapse potential, operations above the fire floor in a lightweight
constructed private dwelling are extremely hazardous. In all cases, fire conditions
will dictate the feasibility of floor above operations. A known life hazard on the
floor(s) above must be addressed within the limits of safety. Members should
continually evaluate the risks versus the potential benefits.

58
Q
  1. You are the officer of Ladder 99 that has just arrived at a top floor fire in a 2-story PD with
    lightweight construction. Engine 100 stretched a line to the second floor and knocked down the
    fire and reports a contents fire only. On your arrival on the top floor you determine that it is
    clearly a contents fire as well, however there is a significant smoke condition. In this situation, it
    would be most correct for you to order your Roof FF? (4.3.10)
    A. To not go to the roof under any circumstances—because the fire is already knocked down
    B. To not go to the roof under any circumstances—regardless of the status of the fire
    C. To go to the roof, but only to check the rear and sides, vent top floor windows and
    skylights, and inspect HVAC duct vents for unusual heat. Then, immediately leave the roof
    D. To go to the roof, to check the rear and sides, vent top floor windows and skylights, and
    inspect HVAC duct vents for unusual heat. Then, contact the Ladder Officer or IC as to whether
    they require you to remain on the roof for other duties
A
  1. C

4.3.10 When the fire is on the top floor and there is clear indication that the fire has not
entered the cockloft, roof operations shall be limited to:
 Checking the rear and sides of the building.
 Venting the top floor windows, and skylights if present (see 4.3.7)
 Inspecting HVAC duct vents for unusual heat.
All members shall be removed from the roof upon completion of these duties.

59
Q
  1. Regarding the operation of units above the fire in a lightweight constructed PD, it would be
    correct to state? (4.4.2, 4.5.1, 4.5.2)
    A. In all cases, life concerns will dictate the feasibility of floor above operations
    B. A suspected or known life hazard must be addressed within the limits of safety
    C. If lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat all members should be advised
    by the IC not to enter the fire area or the areas directly above
    D. Searches must be conducted with consideration that interior operational time will be of
    limited duration. The only exception is when immediate action must be taken to address a
    suspected or known life hazard
A
  1. C

4.4.2 Due to the collapse potential, operations above the fire floor in a lightweight
constructed private dwelling are extremely hazardous. In all cases, fire conditions
will dictate the feasibility of floor above operations. A known life hazard on the
floor(s) above must be addressed within the limits of safety. Members should
continually evaluate the risks versus the potential benefits

4.5.1 The importance of conducting search operations in buildings built with traditional
construction materials is the same for buildings with lightweight construction.
These newer lightweight buildings are more susceptible to collapse from the
effects of fire and high heat; and a careful risk-reward evaluation must be
conducted to ensure that firefighters are not placed at undue risk.
When lightweight components are exposed to fire or high heat, the IC should
advise all members not to enter the fire area and the area(s) directly above; a
defensive strategy should be strongly considered. It may be necessary to remove
members or suspend interior operations until further assessment of structural
stability and collapse potential can be made.

4.5.2 Searches must be conducted with consideration that interior operational time will
be of limited duration. The only exception is when immediate action must be
taken to address a known life hazard. In this situation, risk should be minimized
by utilizing only the personnel needed to safely execute the rescue

60
Q
  1. KEY size-up indicators for the IC at a fire in a PD with lightweight construction include?
    (4.6.3)
    A. Extent of the fire E. Auxiliary appliances
    B. Location of the fire F. Weather
    C. Height G. Volume of smoke and fire
    D. Area H. Smoke action
A
  1. A, B, G, H

4.6.3 Key size-up indicators for the IC include:
 Extent of the fire. (light, medium, heavy)
 Location of the fire (top floor, cellar, void spaces, etc.)
 Volume of smoke and fire (light, medium, or heavy)
 Smoke action (pushing, twisting, or rolling under pressure)

61
Q
  1. If the sizeup of a PD fire determines that the fire involves only the contents and has not
    extended to the structural components, then standard tactics for PD fires are generally
    appropriate. (4.6.4)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A
62
Q

PART IV – ENGINE OPS – CH. #9 & Add #1:
1. Units arriving on the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer with CIDS indicating that the
building has a non-automatic sprinkler system would expect to find a Siamese connection
painted what color? (9.3.2)
A. Yellow C. Aluminum
B. Silver D. Green

A
  1. C
63
Q
  1. A Captain conducting drill on standpipe system operations was correct when he stated
    that standpipe systems should? (9.3.3—9.3.6, 9.4.7)
    A. Always be supplied with 2 ½ inch hose or greater
    B. Never be supplied or stretched from with a PRD on the selected outlet
    C. Always be supplied by at least 2 different pumpers through at least two independent
    siamese connections
    D. As a general rule, have at least a separate engine company supplying the standpipe system
    for each hoseline stretched
A
  1. D
64
Q
  1. An ECC is supplying a standpipe system with 2 lengths of 3 ½” hose in a High Rise MD
    where there is fire on the 18th floor and the first hose line with a 3 length of hose is being
    stretched from an outlet on the 17th floor. In this situation, the pump discharge pressure for this
    one line operation should start at ______ psi?
    A. 185 B. 190 C. 195 D. 200
    4.
A
  1. B

I don’t know about this one, chart in ch9 add1 says floors 1-20 gets 200psi

65
Q
  1. Which point regarding standpipe system operations is not stated correctly?
    (9.4.2, 9.4.4, 9.4.7, 9.4.9)
    A. The first and second due engine companies will always operate together at standpipe
    operations to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose line
    B. The inline pressure gauge should always be used on the standpipe outlet to ensure correct
    nozzle pressure. The inline gauge reading is only accurate when the nozzle is open fully and
    water is flowing.
    C. Due to the potential for pressure problems, the FT-2 tip should not be used on hoselines
    stretched from standpipe outlets
    D. As a rule of thumb, 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose stretched from a standpipe outlet requires 80 psi
    at the outlet with water flowing
A
  1. D

As a rule of thumb three lengths of 2 1/2” hose requires 70 psi at the outlet and four
lengths of 2 1/2” hose requires 80 psi at the outlet WITH WATER FLOWING.

66
Q
  1. A Captain discussing FDNY pumpers was incorrect when he stated that? (1.1, 1.4)
    A. Conventional Engines are two stage pumpers (1000 gpm or 2000 gpm), that are capable of
    supplying pressure over 250 psi
    B. High Pressure Engines are two stage pumpers (1000 gpm or 2000 gpm) that pump at
    discharge pressures up to 600 psi
    C. 3rd Stage Engines have a 3rd stage that can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi
    D. Conventional Engines should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi unless emergency
    conditions exist or they are ordered to do so by the IC
A
  1. D

“and” not “or”

1.4 All engines, including conventional engines, are capable or providing pressures over 250 psi.
However, unless emergency conditions exist and they are ordered to do so by the IC,
conventional engines should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi. (Table 1 shows
the standard flow/pressure charts of FDNY engines).

67
Q
  1. High pressure and 3rd Stage Engines have high pressure outlets and carry specialized
    equipment for high pressure pumping operations. Regarding this equipment, it would be
    incorrect to state that both apparatus have? (1.2, 3.1)
    A. 3” high-pressure supply hose — in 50’ lengths
    B. High-Pressure fittings — painted white and noticeably heavier
    C. Two High Pressure outlets
    D. Tether straps with gated hooks — that are recommended to be pre-attached to the highpressure
    supply hose
A
  1. C

1.2 High-pressure and 3rd-stage engines have the following specialized equipment;
 3” high-pressure supply hose, 50’ per length.
 High-pressure fittings.
 High-pressure outlets.
o One HP outlet on HP Engines.
o Two HP outlets on 3rd Stage Engines.
 Tether straps with gated hooks. This strap contains velcro bands that allow the strap
to be attached to the high-pressure supply hose either before or after the hose is
attached. (Figure 1) It is recommended that units pre-attach the tether strap to the
high-pressure supply hose and store together as a unit. (See Figure 2)

68
Q
  1. Based on the FDNY recommended pump pressures, high-pressure pumping operations are
    required at standpipe operations, when the fire floor is on the?
    A. 30th floor or above C. 40th floor or above
    B. 31st floor or above D. 41st floor or above
A
  1. B
69
Q
  1. High Pressure Pumping is defined as operating at discharge pressures over 250 psi. The IC
    shall be notified whenever high-pressure pumping is necessary. Whenever high pressure
    pumping is required, units shall? (1.3, 3.1)
    A. When possible, position the engine within two hose lengths of the FD connection being
    supplied
    B. Insure no more than 3 connected lengths of high-pressure supply hose is stretched to the
    FD connection
    C. Ensure a safety zone of at least 50 feet around the working engine and high pressure supply
    hose is established as soon as possible after initiating high-pressure pumping
    D. Ensure supply lines are connected to designated high pressure outlets and secured with a
    tether strap to both the engine and building FD connection
A
  1. D
70
Q
  1. A Battalion Chief should be designated as the High Pressure Pumping _______ ? (3.1)
    A. Sector Supervisor
    B. Group Supervisor
    C. Area Manager
    D. Branch Director
A
  1. B
71
Q
  1. High Pressure pumping operations are taking place at a fire in Manhattan at an 80-story
    Office building which has only one siamese connection. The 1st Engine ECC has stretched two
    lengths of hose to the siamese to supply the system. The 3rd Arriving Engine is also ordered to
    supply the standpipe system by the IC and is able to get within two lengths of the same siamese.
    During these operations, it would be correct to believe which point(s)?
    A. The Safety Zone for each apparatus and supply hose may need to be more than 50 feet
    B. Each supply length must be tethered and secured to each other by the tethered gated hook
    C. The ECC’s should use their Engine PRESET to charge the system, then slowly increase
    pressure to avoid damage to the building piping
    D. The standpipe should be supplied by two engines
    E. The 3rd arriving Engine may stretch his supply line to the FD connection only if he ensures
    he is operating at the same discharge pressure
A

10A, B, D

72
Q
  1. A box is transmitted for a fire in a high rise with a MINRESP of 4 Engines, and the
    response is as follows:
  2. 1st due — Engine 96 — High Pressure Engine
  3. 2nd due — Engine 97 — High Pressure Engine
  4. 3rd due — Engine 98 — Conventional Engine
  5. 4th due — Engine 99 — 3rd Stage Engine
    Which units on this response are required to position their apparatus at a hydrant in proximity to
    the standpipe siamese connection? (3.2)
    A. Only Engine 96 C. Only Engine 97 and 99
    B. Only Engine 96 and 97 D. Engine 97, 98, and 99
A
  1. C

3.2 Officers must be aware of the potential need for high-pressure pumping operations and
the pumping capabilities of responding engines. When other than first due to a fire in a
high-rise building, officers of high pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines shall direct
their ECCs to position the apparatus at a hydrant in proximity to the standpipe siamese
connection. Communicate with on-scene units to coordinate proper positioning.

73
Q
  1. Regarding the use of the 3rd stage, it would be incorrect to state? (4.1, 4.2)
    A. If 3rd Stage pumping is implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd Stage Engine is
    assigned to the incident
    B. ECC’s intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC—
    which must be a Battalion Chief or higher
    C. Pressures exceeding 600 psi require a 3rd Stage Pumper
    D. A 3rd Stage Pumper with its 3rd Stage engaged can pump higher volumes at pressures over
    400 psi than a two-stage pumper
A
  1. D
  2. 3RD STAGE PUMPING OPERATIONS
    4.1 Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage engine. When 3rd stage pumping is
    implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd Stage Engine is assigned to the incident.
    ECCs intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC. Only
    an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.
    4.2 As compared to two-stage engines, three-stage engines (with the third stage engaged) can
    pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump rpm’s.
    This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the preferred choice for pumping
    operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi. (Figure 7)
74
Q
  1. 3rd Stage Engines are the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge
    pressures over _____ psi? (4.2)
    A. 400 B. 500 C. 550 D. 600
A
  1. B

This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the preferred choice for pumping
operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi. (Figure 7)