WEEK #13 WEEK OF 4/28/14 PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 4 ADDENDUMS 1, 2 & 3 PART II – SAFETY BULLETINS #83 - END PART III – TB – SCBA PART IV – TB – FORCIBLE ENTRY #1 & 2 PART V – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE #2 & 3 INSTRUCTOR: BC DAVE SIMMS Flashcards

PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 4 ADDENDUMS 1, 2 & 3 PART II – SAFETY BULLETINS #83 - END PART III – TB – SCBA PART IV – TB – FORCIBLE ENTRY #1 & 2 PART V – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE #2 & 3

1
Q

PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 4 ADDENDUMS 1, 2 & 3:
1. You are a lieutenant working your first day tour in the field. During the morning BISP you
come across several violations. In which one would you be correct to issue a Notice of
Violation? (Add. 1 sec. 2)
a. Illegal use of a kerosene heater
b. A building with a façade that you deem to be an immediate hazard
c. An MTA owned property with a large accumulation of illegally stored waste
d. A commercial occupancy which has failed to provide adequate exit signs on the premises

A
  1. D
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2
Q
  1. A member of your unit has just filled out a notice of Violation and has asked you which
    part of the NOV she should serve to the respondent. The answer you gave the firefighter was:
    (6.2)
    a. White copy
    b. Blue copy
    c. Gold copy
    d. Pink copy
A
  1. C
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3
Q
  1. You have just filled out a Notice of Violation for several violations in a multiple dwelling.
    The owner cannot be located, but an employee who works at the premises has stated that she is
    willing to accept the NOV and hand it to the owner, who is due to arrive at the premises shortly.
    In this situation, you were most correct when you performed which action? (pg. 12, 13)
    a. Served the employee with the NOV
    b. Affixed the NOV to any wall in the building’s main lobby, preferably near the main
    entrance
    c. Located a tenant of the building and told the tenant to personally hand it to the owner of the
    building
    d. Affixed the NOV to a counter or desk top in the main lobby if one is available
A
  1. B
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4
Q
  1. Engine Company 168 is reinspecting a premise that the unit had previously written a
    Violation Order against. The owner of the occupancy is present and is stating that he is trying his
    best to comply with the VO, but feels the Fire Department has not given him enough time to
    correct the problem. You as the lieutenant would be correct if you were to tell the owner that he
    can have an extension to fix the problem if he has corrected what percentage of the problem?
    (Add. 2 sec. 2)
    a. 75%
    b. 65%
    c. Significant progress
    d. No extensions are permitted. Issue a summons for failure to comply with an order of the
    Fire Commissioner
A
  1. A
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5
Q
  1. A member of your unit has discovered a violation in a Port Authority owned building
    which he feels warrants corrective action. In this situation you were correct when you performed
    which action? (Add 2, pg 4)
    a. Explained to the firefighter that Violation Orders cannot be issued to Non Jurisdictional
    Agencies
    b. Write the VO and leave the pink copy at the premise
    c. Write the VO, leave no copies at the premise, forward all copies (pink, yellow, and both
    whites) to the Field Public Communications Unit (FPCU)
    d. Issued a Notice of Violation instead of a Violation Order
A
  1. B

Effective immediately the following procedure shall be adhered to whenever a violation order is
issued to a City Agency or a Non Jurisdictional Agency:
1. When a Violation Order has been issued, the pink copy shall left at the premises.

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6
Q
  1. Ladder Company 108 performing a reinspection of a building for which the unit had
    previously written a Violation Order against. There has not been significant progress made and
    you as the officer order a summons for failure to comply with the VO to be issued. In regard to
    proper service of a summons, you would be incorrect if you were to believe which choice?
    (Add 3, sec. 4.1-4.5)
    a. The summons should be personally served on the owner of the building or business
    b. If the business is a corporation or partnership, the summons given to an individual who is
    authorized to accept service on their behalf, i.e. president, vice president, partner, managing
    agent.
    c. The summons must be served on the same person the VO was issued to
    d. If serving a corporation and personal service is not possible, bring the summons back to
    quarters and forward it to the Administrative Enforcement Unit, Bureau of Legal Affairs
A
  1. C
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7
Q
  1. You have had the misfortune to have to issue four (4) criminal court summons during a
    single BISP period. Which one will most likely be dismissed for improper service? (9.1.3)
    a. Defendant A refused to accept the summons, so you dropped it at his feet. Defendant left
    the scene without the summons
    b. Defendant B slammed the door in your face and refused to open it when you told her she
    was being served with a summons. You left the summons in front of the door
    c. Defendant C was so angry at being served with a summons, he tore it up in front of you,
    threw the pieces to the floor, called you an obscene name and stormed off without the summons
    d. Defendant D left the scene prior to being served. You left the summons at the premises
    with someone who stated he was the defendant’s 16 year old brother. The brother produced the
    required proper identification.
A
  1. D

b. If a defendant leaves before you have an opportunity to serve the summons, you may leave it with another person at the premises who is of suitable age (18 or older) and discretion. If this person refuses to take the summons, you may leave it in their direct vicinity.

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8
Q
  1. Indicate the choice in which a summons was improperly served against a New York City
    Agency. (9.4.1)
    a. To a custodian of a public school for a large accumulation of rubbish in the hallway during
    school hours
    b. To a New York City Housing Authority manager for a standpipe or sprinkler shutdown
    without notifying the FDNY
    c. When directed by the Bureau of Fire Prevention
    d. To the principal of a public school for a locked exit
A
  1. A
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9
Q

PART II – SAFETY BULLETINS #83 - END:
1. The protective hood is part of a firefighter’s personal protective equipment (PPE) and its
use is mandated by the department and the NFPA. Which one of the following firefighters is
acting incorrectly in regard to his/her protective hood? (SB 83 sec. 4, 5)
a. A member is utilizing a protective hood which is saturated with water at a 10-75
b. A firefighter is cleaning her hood with a liquid detergent
c. An officer is air drying his hood on the apparatus floor away from any sunlight
d. Members are wringing water out of their hoods after they became saturated with water
from a hose stream

A
  1. D
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10
Q
  1. Lieutenant Rice is working a 9x6 tour in Engine 34. He has just been informed by his
    forcible entry firefighter that the firefighter’s hood must be placed out of service and there are no
    spare hoods available in the firehouse for use. An alarm for a 10-75 has just been received via
    teleprinter. Lieutenant Rice would be correct in which action? (3)
    a. Order the firefighter not to enter an IDLH area at the 10-75
    b. Insure that the firefighter has his/her helmet earflaps down and coat collar up and secured
    by the neck strap prior to entering the fire area
    c. Have the firefighters earflaps down and coat collar up and secured by the neck strap. This
    firefighter may enter the fire area for rescue purposes only
    d. Have the firefighter only respond to non structural responses until a replacement hood can
    be obtained
A
  1. B
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11
Q
  1. When no spare hood is available for a member with a missing or out of service hood, an
    officer should perform which action to obtain a spare? (3)
    a. Direct the member to the quartermaster
    b. Call the quartermaster for immediate delivery of a spare hood
    c. Obtain a spare from the administrative battalion
    d. Order the member to borrow a hood from another members coat pocket
A
  1. A
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12
Q
  1. Wearing the hood in a hostile environment can somewhat reduce a firefighters ability to
    note changing fire conditions in the immediate area. Other correct statements concerning the
    hood are found in all but which answer? (2, 3, 5, 6)
    a. Reasons for placing the hood out of service include but are not limited to contamination
    and any damage detected during its serviceability inspection
    b. A member feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood must under all circumstances
    immediately leave the fire area
    c. The hood shall be inspected at the start of each tour and after each use
    d. Hood shall be worn whether dry, wet, or saturated with moisture
A
  1. B
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13
Q
  1. You are a Captain operating as the FAST unit at a fire on the third floor of a five story non
    fireproof tenement building. There are window bars on all floors of the building. From your
    knowledge of window bars, you know that at a minimum, the unit assigned to remove window
    bars from the building should insure that the bars are removed from where on the building?
    (SB 84 sec. 4.8)
    a. At least one window on the fire floor and all floors above the fire floor
    b. All window bars on the fire floor and floor above
    c. One window on the fire floor and floor above
    d. All windows on the fire floor and one window on the floor above the fire
A
  1. C
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14
Q
  1. A study group from Queens made the following statements in regard to window bars
    placed on buildings throughout New York City. An incorrect statement they made can be found
    in which choice? (sec. 4)
    a. The first due aerial ladder should, if possible, leave room for a tower ladder in front of the
    building
    b. The second handline should initially back up the first line. If not needed it can be advanced
    to the floor above the fire
    c. A tower ladder shall be special called at fires in buildings with window bars
    d. The location of window bars that have been cleared should be communicated to all units
A
  1. C
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15
Q
  1. From a firefighting standpoint, the main drawback of a gypsum roof deck system is best
    found in which choice? (SB 85 3.1)
    a. The large open web lightweight steel trusses which support them
    b. They are extremely vulnerable to moisture causing a deterioration of the system
    c. The large open spaces which they span and the weight of the material which can weigh up
    to 17.5 lbs/sq. ft. or 135 lbs per plank
    d. They will not support the weight of a firefighter under fire conditions
A
  1. B
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16
Q
  1. You are a lieutenant supervising roof operations during a second alarm at a one story motor
    vehicle repair shop. As the roof firefighter makes his initial cut, a large cloud of white powdery
    residue is observed coming from the cut. In this situation you were acting properly when you
    performed which action? (3.4)
    a. Ordered all members operating on the roof to an area of safety and evaluated conditions on
    the roof
    b. Made an immediate notification to the incident commander and ordered all personnel off
    the roof
    c. Ensured that the firefighter making the cut operated with a harness sling and guide member
    to prevent the member from falling
    d. Notified the incident commander that roof operations will be seriously delayed due to the
    minimum commitment of members allowed to operate on the roof
A
  1. B
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17
Q
  1. Engine Company 201 is preparing to operate the first hoseline in an occupied taxpayer
    occupancy. They have just heard an announcement via handie talkie stating that the occupancy
    has a gypsum concrete roof deck. The proper course of action for the officer to take at this type
    of fire would be to: (3.3)
    a. Advance a 2 ½” handline and operate from a place of safety within the structure
    b. Stretch the first line to the Siamese, and if manpower and conditions permit, a second line
    to the most serious exposure
    c. Enter the building with an 1 ¾” handline only in an emergency
    d. Stand fast with a charged 2 ½ “ handline outside the building until a determination as to the
    safety of the roof deck can be established
A
  1. A
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18
Q
  1. Engine Company 1 and Ladder Company 24 are operating at an automobile accident with
    fire in a Toyota RAV4 electric vehicle. These two lieutenants would be acting incorrectly if they
    were to believe which choice below? (SB 86 sec. 1-4)
    a. Do not allow the orange colored high voltage wires to be cut
    b. Battery pack fires can be extinguished using copious amounts of water or Class D powder
    extinguishing agent
    c. Pulling the service plug will disable the automobiles traction batteries
    d. It is permissible to use extrication tools in the passenger compartment, but not on the
    traction batteries or any energized components
A
  1. C
  2. SECURING THE VEHICLE
    • Place the selector lever in the “P” position.
    • Apply the parking brake fully.
    • Shut off vehicle power by turning off the keyed motor switch.
    • Chock the wheels.
    Securing the vehicle assures that it will not operate inadvertently. However, it does not
    disconnect the individual traction batteries or cut off battery pack voltage potential. The
    vehicle makes virtually no noise when the drive system is powered and the vehicle is parked
    or stopped. Never assume the vehicle is off simply because it is silent.
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19
Q
  1. High Visibility Safety Vests have been issued to all units, one to each riding position.
    Which one of the following members would be required to wear a High Visibility Safety Vest at
    an incident? (SB 88 sec 2.1)
    a. An engine company member operating a hoseline in close proximity to the fire with
    donned SCBA and bunker gear on an express highway
    b. A ladder company member operating at an automobile accident at night on a secondary
    roadway
    c. A ladder company firefighter with donned bunker gear directing traffic during daylight
    hours (bright sunny day).
    d. All members operating at a hazardous material incident on an express highway
A
  1. C

2.1 Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when
operating on all highways at all times, day or night. This includes, but is not limited to,
incidents such as vehicle collisions, extrications, fluid spills, dangerous conditions,
vehicle fires, and at any operation that the Incident Commander deems necessary.
The scene must also be protected from the hazards of moving traffic by utilizing
apparatus blocking or total lane closure

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20
Q

PART III – TB – SCBA:
1. The FDNY currently utilizes the Scott 4.5 Positive Pressure Self Contained Breathing
Apparatus (SCBA). From the following choose and incorrect statement in regard to the SCBA.
(2.1)
a. The SCBA will protect against the entry of contaminants through the eyes
b. The SCBA will not protect against heat exhaustion or exposure to flame and heat
c. If a member runs out of air, the facepiece should be removed
d. If a member is wearing a donned facepiece, contaminants can still enter the respiratory tract
via a punctured eardrum

A
  1. C
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21
Q
  1. Members of a Queens Study group made the following statements in regard to the SCBA.
    Which one requires correcting? (2.3, 2.4)
    a. Contact lenses can be worn with the facepiece. Approval by the Chief Medical Officer is
    required.
    b. Glasses with temple bars or straps that pass between the face and seal of the facepiece are
    prohibited
    c. If corrective lenses are required, a member may request a lens frame kit through the mask
    service unit.
    d. The SCBA is never to be used underwater. If submerged it must be placed out of service
A
  1. A

2.3 CONTACT LENSES AND GLASSES
2.3.1 Contact lenses may be worn with the SCBA.

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22
Q
  1. A probationary firefighter has asked you, her lieutenant, to explain some of the various
    features of the SCBA’s cylinder to her during the morning inspection. You made the following
    statements. In which one were you not entirely correct? (3.2)
    a. The cylinder holds purified oxygen enhanced breathing air
    b. A hydrostatic test is performed every 5 years on the cylinder
    c. Cylinders have a service life of 15 years
    d. 30, 45, and 60 minute cylinders vary in size. Each cylinder has a specific harness assembly.
    The harness assemblies are cylinder specific and not interchangeable.
A
  1. A
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23
Q
  1. Each SCBA is equipped with an End Of Service Time Indicator (EOSTI) alarms called the
    Vibralert and Heads Up Display (HUD). The Vibrablert and HUD will actuate when cylinder
    pressure reaches approximately what per cent for each? (3.2.8)
    a. 25% Vibralert, 33% HUD
    b. 25% Vibralert, 25% HUD
    c. 33% Vibralert, 33% HUD
    d. 33% Vibralert, 25% HUD
A
  1. B
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24
Q
  1. You are a lieutenant in a company that is designated a battalion cylinder depot. In regard to
    the various cylinders that may be found in your quarters, you know that which one of the
    following is incorrect? (3.2.11, 3.2.12, 3.2.16)
    a. All spare cylinders, including those on the apparatus, reserve apparatus, and special units
    are inspected weekly on Monday.
    b. Spare cylinders found below 4500 psi shall be tagged and returned to Mask Service Unit
    (MSU) for further inspection
    c. It is prohibited to use company or spare SCBA’s when drilling members in Unconscious
    Firefighter Removal procedures
    d. Cylinders with a blue top (training cylinders) are suitable for firefighting purposes and
    permissible to use.
A
  1. D
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25
Q
  1. All members should be aware that cylinders should be exchanged for one that is full in all
    but which of the following situations? (3.3.1, 3.8.9)
    a. Prior to operating, when the remote gauge reads less than full (green area)
    b. While operating, when the remote gauge reads less than ¼
    c. While operating when the HUD is flashing yellow
    d. When the vibralert in the facepiece actuates
A
  1. C
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26
Q
  1. The Scott 4.5 SCBA is equipped with a universal air connection (UAC) installed as part of
    the SCBA which permits replenishment of breathable air to the user. Consider the following
    statements and indicate which one is incorrect in regard to the UAC. (3.5.1, 3.5.2)
    a. The UAC can be utilized for emergency use and routine charging of the SCBA
    b. The UAC must have its protective dust cover in place. An SCBA with a missing dust cover
    shall be placed out of service
    c. The UAC is not to be used for buddy breathing
    d. The UAC has a relief valve which will open if the supply of air to the cylinder exceeds its
    maximum rated capacity. However the supply pressure from the high pressure coupling of the
    emergency air supply to be connected to the UAC must not exceed 4500 psi
A
  1. A
27
Q
  1. A firefighter in your engine company has suffered a malfunction of his SCBA’s pressure
    reducers primary and secondary systems in the open position. When a failure of this type occurs,
    the lieutenant would be aware that all of the following should happen with which exception?
    (3.6.1, 3.6.2)
    a. The members vibralert will activate
    b. All pressure in excess of 185 psi will rapidly be discharged into the atmosphere through a
    relief valve in the pressure reducer assembly
    c. The firefighter must fully close the cylinder valve on his/her SCBA
    d. The member must leave the contaminated area immediately, accompanied by another
    member
A
  1. C
28
Q
  1. The Positive Pressure Demand Regulator regulates and maintains pressure within the
    donned facepiece. It reduces pressure to just above atmospheric. In regard to the regulator, which
    one of the choices given is incorrect? (3.8.1, 3.8.2, 3.8.4)
    a. For a regulator failure in the closed position, turn the purge valve counter clockwise
    b. When the regulator fails in the open position, air flow can be controlled by closing both the
    purge valve and cylinder valve
    c. The manual shutoff valve must be pressed prior to removing the facepiece. If not, a full 45
    minute cylinder can be depleted in approximately 4 minutes
    d. When pressed, the switch on the manual shutoff holds the regulator in the closed position,
    stopping the air flow. The switch automatically releases when the member inhales through the
    facepiece, starting the airflow.
A
  1. B
  2. For the following Emergencies:
     Failure of the regulator in the closed position, (no air to
    facepiece) turn purge valve counter-clockwise. If failure of the
    regulator in the open position, (too much air flow in the
    facepiece), air flow can be controlled by opening the purge
    valve fully and partially closing the cylinder valve.
     To provide airflow if facepiece becomes severely damaged.
     If the manual shut-off switch fails to release for any reason.
    NOTE: In all SCBA emergencies, the member must notify their officer and
    immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be
    accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA.
29
Q
  1. The Heads Up Display (HUD) and Vibralert form a part of the End Of Service Time
    Indicator (EOSTI) system. An incorrect statement made by members of a ladder company at a
    recent operation can be found in which answer? (3.8.5, 3.8.9)
    a. The HUD is comprised of four rectangular lights which indicate cylinder pressure, and a
    round red light which indicates low battery
    b. The HUD and Vibralert work independently of each other and may not activate at the same
    time
    c. When the cylinder valve is turned on, the HUD will illuminate all 5 lights for twenty
    seconds.
    d. A member who observes his/her HUD showing one yellow light flashing slowly must
    immediately leave the area after notifying his/her officer
A
  1. D
  2. FULL cylinder - indicated by the two green lights glowing near the center
    of the display.
  3. THREE-QUARTERS cylinder - indicated by a single green light glowing.
  4. ONE-HALF cylinder - indicated by the yellow light flashing slowly at
    once a second.
  5. ONE-QUARTER cylinder - EOSTI indicated by the red light at the far
    left flashing rapidly at ten times a second. When this warning light is
    flashing rapidly, the member must notify their officer and
    immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be
    accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.
30
Q
  1. The Scott facepiece is an integral part of the SCBA. From the following, choose the answer
    that is incorrect in regard to the facepiece. (3.9)
    a. If a members personal facepiece is placed out of service, it should be sent to the Mask
    Service Unit (MSU) with an RT-2 attached
    b. The member whose personal facepiece is placed out of service shall respond to all alarms,
    but shall not be permitted to enter any IDLH areas
    c. If the member requires a small or extra large facepiece, the officer shall notify their
    Division to obtain a spare
    d. The facepiece must have all components in place including nose cup, voicemitter,
    inhalation valve, voicemitter ducts and nosecup retainer. If any component is missing, place the
    facepiece out of service
A
  1. B
31
Q
  1. You are an SA Captain working a 6x9 tour outside of your assigned Division. When you
    arrive at quarters a firefighter who has just returned from a long term light duty assignment
    informs you that he is unable to achieve a good seal with any of the units assigned standard
    facepieces. Another firefighter has checked out the facepieces and has no difficulty achieving a
    seal. In this situation, you were correct when you performed which action? (4.2.3E)
    a. Immediately notified the Safety Command and Mask Service Unit by phone
    b. Ordered the member to use another members personal facepiece
    c. Obtained a spare small or extra large facepiece from the Battalion for the member
    d. Forwarded a report to the Chief of the Mask Service Unit giving details and actions taken
A
  1. A
32
Q
  1. The PAK Alert SE-7 is a lifesaving component of the SCBA. A member should know that
    the PAK Alert will activate when a member remains motionless for how many seconds?
    (3.10.5, 3.10.7)
    a. Pre alarm 12 seconds, full alarm 20 seconds
    b. Pre alarm 30 seconds, full alarm 40 seconds
    c. Pre alarm 20 seconds, full alarm 12 seconds after pre alarm
    d. Pre alarm 20 seconds, full alarm 30 seconds
A
  1. C
33
Q
  1. A senior firefighter is instructing a newly assigned probationary firefighter in regard to
    procedures concerning the company SCBA’s. The senior firefighter was no quite correct when
    he stated that all SCBA’s should be inspected at the following times except? (4.1.1)
    a. Immediately before Multi Unit Drill (MUD)
    b. After each use
    c. Immediately before the 0900 roll call
    d. Immediately after the 1800 roll call
    15.
A
  1. C
34
Q
  1. A lieutenant observed several members of her unit discussing the donning of their SCBA’s
    from the standing position. The following statements were made. Which one should the
    lieutenant correct? (5.1, 5.3)
    a. To open the cylinder reach back and turn the cylinder valve fully counterclockwise
    b. The activation of the vibralert is an indication that the cylinder valve is fully open
    c. While awaiting orders to enter a contaminated area, the facepiece should be placed in the
    standby position. Never allow the facepiece to dangle free
    d. The shoulder straps are adjusted after connecting the quick release buckle of the pre
    adjusted waist straps
A
  1. B
35
Q
  1. A ladder company lieutenant is supervising operations after a concrete ceiling collapse in a
    hi rise office building. All members are accounted for but the lieutenant observes one member
    with a damaged facepiece. Correct guidelines for the lieutenant to tell this disorientated member
    can be found in all but which answer? (6.5)
    a. Leave the facepiece on and cover the damaged area with one hand
    b. If the leak is large, press the manual shutoff switch on the regulator after each breath to
    limit the loss of breathable air
    c. If the damaged area is too large to allow regulator shutoff, leave the purge valve in the
    open position to continually supply air to the member
    d. Immediately leave the contaminated area accompanied by another member
A
  1. C
36
Q
  1. You are a lieutenant who has been ordered by the incident commander to obtain a FAST
    PAK forthwith in order to provide air to a trapped child inside a private dwelling. The FAST
    Ladder Company has just reported to the front of the building with all their associated
    equipment, and due to a blizzard the nearest FAST PAK equipped unit is parked over one block
    away. In this situation, you were correct when you performed which action? (6.6.3)
    a. Utilized the FAST PAK from the FAST Unit
    b. Obtained a FAST PAK from the nearest FAST PAK equipped unit, other than the FAST
    unit
    c. Had a member share his/her facepiece with the child
    d. Remind the members that facepiece sharing is only permitted with members in an extreme
    emergency
A
  1. B
37
Q
  1. Communications during fire operations can be difficult under normal circumstances and
    very difficult while utilizing the self contained breathing apparatus. A member wishing to
    transmit a handie talkie message from an IDLH was correct when she utilized which procedure?
    (7.2)
    a. Removed the microphone from its harness clip and placed it directly on the voicemitter
    b. Lifted her facepiece for a brief moment, just long enough to transmit her message
    c. Kept the microphone in the harness clip, bent her neck to place the voicemitter in the
    vicinity of the microphone, and transmitted her message
    d. Removed the microphone from its harness clip and placed it directly on her throat while
    speaking
A
  1. D it says

but

7.2 USING THE HANDIE-TALKIE WITH THE SELF CONTAINED BREATHING
APPARATUS
7.2.1 Remove the microphone from the harness clip.
7.2.2 Place the microphone directly on the voicemitter.
7.2.3 After completing radio transmission, the microphone can be returned to the
harness clip.

38
Q
  1. While operating an 1 ¾” handline at a fire in a multiple dwelling, the officer of Engine
    Company 82 observes a condition that he feels is immediately dangerous to the members of his
    unit. In order to notify his nozzle firefighter of this, the officer would be correct to: (7.4.1)
    a. Forcibly strike the member four times on the back and pull the member in the direction
    away from the danger
    b. Strike the nozzle firefighter three times on the cylinder and push the member away from
    the area of danger
    c. Tug on the nozzle four times and inform the nozzle firefighter which direction you want
    him to move
    d. Forcibly strike the nozzle firefighter with four distinct blows on the shoulder and pull him
    in a specific direction
A
  1. D
39
Q
  1. Firefighters in your unit are preparing to clean and disinfect the unit’s SCBA’s. You
    observe the operation, and realize that they were not entirely correct in which action?
    (8.1, 8.3, 8.5)
    a. SCBA’s are cleaned and disinfected during the roll call inspection after having been
    assigned, and after each use
    b. Grossly decontaminated SCBA’s that are not able to be cleaned or disinfected due to blood
    or body fluids should be wiped down with an increased hypochlorite solution increased beyond
    the recommended amount
    c. Facepieces should be immersed in a hypochlorate solution for 5 minutes, never longer
    d. The nosecup need not be disassembled for cleaning and disinfecting
A
  1. B

8.2.2 NEVER INCREASE THE CONCENTRATION OF HOUSEHOLD BLEACH
IN THE DILUTION BEYOND THE RECOMMENDED AMOUNT. Stronger
amounts of the solution will prematurely deteriorate rubber and severely corrode
metallic parts. Both solution concentration and duration of immersion must be
strictly adhered to.

40
Q
  1. You are a member of a ladder company searching a large open area in the basement of a
    taxpayer and have just come across an unconscious firefighter. The firefighter has lost his helmet
    but through the thick smoke you can see that his SCBA identification is labeled with white
    numerals on a red background, 177-4. You transmit an immediate MAYDAY message, notifying
    Command that you have found: (10.3, 10.7)
    a. Ladder 177 Irons
    b. Engine 177 Back Up
    c. Ladder 177 Roof
    d. Ladder 177 OV
A
  1. D
41
Q

PART IV – TB – FORCIBLE ENTRY #1 & 2:
1. Captain Maher is preparing to give a drill on forcible entry to the members of Ladder
Company 102. He made the following statements. In which one was he not entirely correct?
(FE 1 sec. 1.1 – 1.4)
a. Forcible entry is a team effort that requires close coordination between the members
b. When forcible entry is required, start immediately.
c. Doors should be forced in a manner to preserve their integrity
d. Doors should always be forced for minor emergencies such as gas leaks, water leaks, food
on the stove, etc.

A
  1. D
42
Q
  1. A firefighter attempting to force an inward opening door would be correct if he/she were to
    apply which method? (2.1)
    a. Place the fork of the halligan 1”- 2” above or below the lock
    b. Initially the concave side of the fork is positioned next to the door
    c. If stiff resistance is met while driving the halligan with the axe, turn the halligan so that the
    bevel side of the fork is against the door jamb
    d. Drive the hook of the halligan completely into the door jamb 6” above or below the lock
    and apply upward pressure
A
  1. C

A. By placing the fork of the Halligan approximately 6” above or below the lock with the
bevel side of the fork next to the door, slightly canted toward the floor or ceiling.

NOTES:
1) If stiff resistance is met while driving the Halligan with the axe, turn the Halligan
so the bevel side of the fork is against the door jamb. Drive the Halligan in and
force the door.

43
Q
  1. A truck company officer explaining to his unit methods used to force outward opening
    doors should be corrected for making which statement? (3.1)
    a. The method used is determined by the type of lock cylinder encountered
    b. Flush fitting doors may be forced utilizing either the adz or fork end of the halligan tool
    c. When using the fork end of the halligan on a flush fitting door place the concave side of the
    fork against the door, tool canted slightly for initial penetration
    d. When forcing a flush fitting door with the adz end of the halligan, place the adz end 6”
    above or below the lock and drive it into the space between the door and jamb without
    penetrating the jamb. Pry downward and out with the fork end of the tool
A
  1. A

3.1 The method used to force outward opening doors is determined by the position of the door in
the frame.

44
Q
  1. Ladder Company 141 has arrived first at a fire on the third floor of a commercial
    occupancy. They are presented with smoke pushing from around the frame of a steel door. The
    door has a lock cylinder located in the center of the door, covered by a metal plate and four bolts.
    The lieutenant should advise the forcible entry team that this is indicative of which kind of lock?
    (4.2 B6)
    a. Multi lock
    b. Rim lock
    c. Fox lock
    d. Police lock
A
  1. C

6) (Double bar lock - Fox locks) Easily recognizable by the location of the
cylinder in the center of the door.
a. Cylinders are usually covered with a metal plate with four bolts.
b. Using a Halligan, shear off the top two bolts and one bottom bolt then
turn the plate down exposing the lock cylinder. Remove the cylinder
with the K tool. Using the square key tool, turn the tool towards the
bottom bar thus unlocking the door

45
Q
  1. Lieutenant Friday was explaining Police Locks to the members of his downtown unit. He
    was not stating just the facts when he made which statement? (FE 1 sec. 4.2 B5,
    FE 2 sec 1.4B)
    a. The police lock is a rim lock whose ring holding the tumbler in place will be almost flush
    with the door
    b. A special 5/32” square key tool is required
    c. Police locks (aka vertical bar locks) are generally found in commercial areas
    d. Usually a few good shots on the door may cause the vertical bar to jump from the hole in
    the floor, thus unlocking the door
A
  1. C

5) On police locks (rim locks) the stem of the cylinder is square shaped thus
requiring a special 5/32” square key tool for those locks.
Police locks, also known as vertical bar locks, are usually found in tenement
areas on wooden or kalamein doors. Usually a few good shots an the door
may cause the vertical bar to jump from the hole in the floor, thus unlocking the
door.

46
Q
  1. Padlocks are portable detachable locking devices having sliding and pivoting shackles that
    pass through a staple and then are made fast. A wise inside team member would know that which
    of the following forcible entry techniques is inappropriate for these locks? (5.1D)
    a. Attack the point of least resistance
    b. The hook of the halligan or the duckbill can be driven through the staple or shackle
    c. The cylinder on some padlocks can be pulled using the bam bam tool
    d. Use a bolt cutter to cut both regular and heavy duty, case hardened shackles and padlocks
A
  1. D
47
Q
  1. When removing a regular padlock, a firefighter would be correct to attack any of these
    points with which exception? (5.1B)
    a. Body of the lock
    b. Point of attachment
    c. Shackle
    d. Staple
A
  1. A
48
Q
  1. A firefighter wishing to remove an American Series 2000 lock would be correct if he/she
    were to cut through the body of the lock with the partner saw at which point? (6.1C2)
    a. Halfway from the top
    b. 2/3 up from the keyway
    c. 2/3 up from the bottom of the lock
    d. 1/3 up from the keywa
A
  1. B
49
Q
  1. Windows and window gates can be successfully taken when firefighters utilize all of the
    following techniques with which exception? (8.1)
    a. Single windows and/or window locks can be forced by placing the fork end of the halligan
    under the center of the window sill and applying a downward pressure on the halligan
    b. Attack a window gate at the lock side, opposite the hinges
    c. Forcing or kicking in a window gate could result in jamming the gate
    d. Protect –A –Guard window gates are easily opened from the inside. If necessary to force
    this type of gate, members should concentrate on the hinge side
A
  1. B
50
Q
  1. Members of a ladder company in the Bronx have to force their way into an elevator room
    on the 18th floor of a New York City Housing Project. The roof firefighter has informed you, a
    lieutenant, that the elevator room has a multi lock on the door and the lock is engaged. The roof
    firefighter wishes to begin cutting his way into the elevator room but is not sure where to make
    the necessary cut. You were correct when you advised this firefighter to make which type of cut?
    (9.1)
    a. A triangular cut in the upper quadrant of the door diagonally across from the lock, large
    enough to fit his/her arm through
    b. A cut in the center of the door around the keyway, insuring that all four bars of the multi
    lock are cut
    c. A triangular cut in the lower quadrant of the door on the doorknob side, large enough to get
    the members arm in and unlock the door, but small enough so that the bar is not cut
    d. A square cut around the doorknob, which will release the mortise lock from the doorjamb
A
  1. C
51
Q
  1. A lieutenant from a ladder company of the first to arrive truck at a taxpayer fire is
    presented with a locked electrically operated roll down security gate on exposure 0 (zero). The
    lieutenant would be correct to order all actions taken with which exception? (10.1)
    a. Remove the cover plate of the operator housing to expose the switch that converts the gate
    from electrical to mechanical
    b. Pull the switch away from the chain hoist mechanism, and utilize the chain to mechanically
    raise the gate
    c. The bicycle chain mechanism can also be cut with a set of bolt cutters, and the door raised
    manually with two or three members
    d. The door can also be cut with a partner saw. Make a triangular cut and pull the slats on
    either side of the opening towards the center of the cut for removal
A
  1. B
52
Q
  1. The inside team from Ladder Company 20 is about to force a door to a tenement building.
    The F/E firefighter had the following thoughts concerning forcible entry in these types of
    buildings. He was incorrect in which one? (FE 2, sec. 1.1)
    a. When required, forcible entry should be initiated immediately
    b. Force a door in a manner to preserve its integrity
    c. A panel should only be removed if the door cannot be forced and time is of the essence
    d. If after forcing a door, excessive heat conditions make it impracticable for immediate entry
    and search, the door should be held closed, but not relocked, until the line is ready to advance
A
  1. C
53
Q
  1. Sometimes it is necessary to attack the hinges of a door when no other method of forcible
    entry works. When attacking the hinges of an inward opening door, a member would be correct
    if he/she were to perform which correct action? (1.5)
    a. Remove the hinge pins on the outside of the door
    b. Place the fork of the halligan tool above the upper hinge of the door and drive it in with an
    axe, forcing the screws from the hinge. Then repeat the process below the lower hinge
    c. Strike the solid part of the door with the back of an axe adjacent to where the upper hinge is
    located, until the hinge is freed. Then use the same method on the lower hinge
    d. The lower hinge should generally be attacked first so that the integrity of the door can be
    maintained and the member can operate below the level of any smoke and heat
A
  1. C
54
Q
  1. Forcible entry requires a coordinated team effort with members acting in unison. When
    forcing an inward opening door in a tenement building, firefighters would be incorrect to believe
    which statement? (1.2)
    a. The member holding the halligan is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe firefighter
    when to strike
    b. The axe firefighter shall never strike without being specifically told to do so by the officer
    c. The halligan is held with the hand at the hook end palm up and the hand at the fork end
    palm down
    d. The halligan should be placed with the fork end 6” above or below the lock, slightly
    canted toward the floor or ceiling
A
  1. B
55
Q

PART V – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES – WATER RESCUE #2 & 3:
1. You are the officer of a four firefighter engine company responding on a January night to
an alarm for a person who has fallen through the ice on a frozen pond. Positions that you should
be prepared to assume at this rescue include which of the following? (Water Rescue 2,
3.1-3.4)
a. Rescue Coordinator only
b. Spotter only
c. Rescue Coordinator and Spotter
d. Spotter or Secondary Tether if necessary

A
  1. C
  2. POSITIONS
    3.1 Rescue Coordinator – The Company Officer assumes this position and shall be located
    where they can observe and direct the whole operation. In a 4-Firefighter Engine
    Company, the Officer will also assume the responsibilities of the Spotter until an
    additional unit arrives.
    3.2 Spotter – A firefighter or Company Officer (4-Firefighter Engine Company) will assume
    this position and shall be positioned where they can keep sight of the victim. This may
    include using the apparatus as a vantage point. An aerial or tower ladder may be raised to
    facilitate spotter positioning
56
Q
  1. An officer performing a company drill in regard to ice and cold water rescue procedures
    was incorrect when she made which statement concerning tools and equipment? (3.3,
    3.4, 4.1, 10)
    a. The Rescue Coordinator should be thermal imaging camera equipped during the night
    b. The Primary and Secondary Tether firefighters will don Personal Floatation Devices
    (PFD’s)
    c. Both Primary and Secondary Rescuers shall wear Cold Water Suits (CWS)
    d. All members shall be handie talkie equipped
A
  1. D

4.1 All members except the Primary and Secondary Rescuers will be equipped with Handie-
Talkies. The Primary and Secondary Tethers shall wear PFDs.

57
Q
  1. From the three possible methods used to rescue a victim at an ice and cold water rescue
    emergency, the one that should be used where the victim is non ambulatory or too far from shore
    is the: (4.6)
    a. Reach Method
    b. Throw Method
    c. Go Method
    d. Swim Method
A
  1. C

4.3 Generally, there are three methods used for cold water/ice rescue.
• Reach
• Throw
• Go
4.4 The Reach method is used when a victim is ambulatory and can assist in their own
rescue. The rescuer uses a hook, pole or other device extended to the victim. When the
victim has gained a hold on the object, rescuers can pull the victim to safety.
4.5 The Throw method is used when the reach method is not feasible. Using a throw rope,
the rescuer hurls the rope to the victim. The victim should wrap the rope around their
arm to be pulled to safety.
4.6 The Go method is used for a non-ambulatory victim (unable to assist in their rescue) or is
too far from shore. Victims exposed to cold water will have problems with their motor
skills and manual dexterity, making them unable to hold a pole or a rope. This should be
the last method tried since it is the most dangerous.

58
Q
  1. While reviewing the procedures to be utilized during ice and cold water rescues, a
    firefighter made the following four statements. He was not entirely correct in which one?
    (6.1-6.3)
    a. When crawling out on the ice, the primary rescuer should insure that the tether is attached
    to the front of the suits chest harness
    b. If necessary to use the throw method, the rescuer throws the throw rope bag directly to the
    victim
    c. During the throw method, have the victim wrap the rope around their arm. Then pull the
    victim to safety
    d. During the Go Method, the primary rescuer should approach the victim from the side
A
  1. B
59
Q
  1. Members shall use a stretcher to remove victims when all other techniques are unsuccessful
    or may cause injury to the victim. Improper statements concerning this type of removal at an ice
    or cold water rescue can be found in which answer? (7.1, 7.2)
    a. It is more effective to bring the stretcher to the victim than the victim to the stretcher
    b. The victim should be placed in the floating stretcher with his/her head at the end nearest the
    floatation collar
    c. A portable ladder secured by a utility rope to a substantial object must be used when
    retrieving a stretcher from below grade. Use ladder hooks to support the ladder if possible
    d. Rescuers guide the stretcher onto the ladder rails while members above grade hoist on the
    working end of the rope until the victim can be carried off to a safe location
A
  1. A

7.2.4 The stretcher is not intended to be brought out to the victim. It will be more
effective to bring the victim to the stretcher. Upon retrieval of the victim, the
stretcher can be passed down to the rescuers where the victim will loaded onto
stretcher.

60
Q
  1. The primary rescuer from your unit has made contact with an unconscious victim during a
    cold water rescue operation utilizing the Go Method. This member is now observed waving one
    arm in the air. Because you are well versed in this type of rescue, you should order the members
    of your unit to: (8.1)
    a. Stop pulling on the rope
    b. Pull the rescuer and victim to shore
    c. Deploy the secondary rescuer to assist
    d. Increase the pull on the rope
A
  1. A
  2. COMMUNICATIONS
    8.1 Pre-determined hand signals have been established to allow the Rescuer and Tether to
    communicate. All members of the rescue team should be familiar with these hand signals.
    8.1.1 One hand placed on top of the rescuer’s head indicates the rescuer is ready to be
    pulled to shore. (Photo 27)
    8.1.2 One arm waving in the air indicates stop pulling. (Photo 28)
61
Q
  1. Maintenance of the cold water suit and its associated equipment will extend its serviceable
    life and ensure a safe operation. A company officer would know that which statement is incorrect
    in regard to equipment care and maintenance for the CWS? (9)
    a. All ice and cold water rescue equipment should be inspected quarterly in January, April,
    July and October
    b. In January and July the CWS should be hung out to dry for at least 48 hours
    c. Store the suit with the zipper in the closed position. The zipper should be lubricated with a
    lubricating stick (candle wax) by running the lubricating stick up and down the outside of the
    zipper
    d. If the suit should become soiled or contaminated with oil, scrub with a mild soap solution
    (dish soap) rinse with fresh water, and allow to dry before repacking
A
  1. C

9.2.1 Before repacking the suit into its carrying bag, the zipper should be lubricated.
Close the zipper and run a lubricating stick (candle wax) up and down the outside
of the zipper. Open and close the zipper 2-3 times. Store the suit with the zipper
in the open position

62
Q
  1. You are a covering officer in Ladder Company 137, supervising a live surf rescue drill on
    the beach during a warm July morning. You observe the members of this well trained surf rescue
    Ladder Company perform the following actions while training to do a Line Rescue, and offer
    criticism for which one? (Water Rescue 3 sec. 2, 3)
    a. Both primary and secondary rescuers wore a personal floatation device (PFD) and fins. The
    primary rescuer only was torpedo equipped
    b. The primary rescuer entered the water walking forward and swam out to the victim, letting
    the torpedo drag behind on the down sweep side
    c. Because the victim was conscious, the primary rescuer handed the torpedo to the victim
    d. The primary rescuer then established buoyancy and awaited assistance from the secondary
    rescuer
A
  1. B
  2. PROCEDURE
    3.1 Line Rescue
    3.1.1 The Primary Rescuer enters the water walking backwards and swims out to victim
    letting torpedo drag behind on the down sweep side. The rescuer should keep the
    victim in sight.
63
Q
  1. Operational considerations while performing a surf recue should include all of the
    following with which exception? (4)
    a. All members entering the water must wear life preservers
    b. The surfboard must be tethered at all times during use
    c. Victim should be removed from the waves prior to medical treatment, except spinal
    immobilization
    d. If the NYPD helicopter is on scene, members must be removed from the area beneath the
    helicopter as the rotor downwash can push a member underwater. The IC should contact the
    helicopter on the TAC”U” channel
A
  1. C

4.4 The victim should be removed from the waves before beginning medical treatment
including spinal immobilization.