WEEK #2 WEEK OF 1/21/13 PART I – SAFETY BULLETINS #7 {CIRS} PART II – TB - FIRES #7 & 8 PART III – AUC’S #259, 266 & 268 PART IV – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 5.7 – end} PART V – DUNN - CHAPTERS 8 & 10 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards
PART I – SAFETY BULLETINS #7 {CIRS} PART II – TB - FIRES #7 & 8 PART III – AUC’S #259, 266 & 268 PART IV – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 5.7 – end} PART V – DUNN - CHAPTERS 8 & 10
- The medical officer must be notified in which situation(s)? (2.1, 2.2)
A. All injuries - Service connected, remainder of the tour, and minor injuries
B. All biological exposure - with or without symptoms
C. All non-biological exposure - with or without symptoms
D. All illnesses - unrelated to an exposure (food poisoning) - that occur on duty
- A, B
- Which one of the following injuries would be correctly reported as a minor injury?
(2.1.3)
A. A first degree burn
B. A sprain with only minor swelling or discoloration
C. Any degree of conjunctivitis
D. A member who faints for a few seconds - with a resulting minor contusion
- A
- If a member returns from an incident where he was exposed to a chemical and is now
coughing from the exposure, the company officer would be correct to prepare? (2.2.2)
A. Only an exposure report, indicating the symptoms
B. Only an injury report, indicating the exposure
C. Both an injury report and an exposure report, noting both in each narrative
- C
2.2 Exposures
2.2.1 Biological Exposures - A member exposed to bloodborne, airborne, or other
infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is required
with or without symptoms.
2.2.2 Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous
substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is
required only for symptoms.
Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure,
both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.
- An officer preparing an exposure or injury report is incorrect to think? (3.4, 3.5, 3.6)
A. No report can be initiated in the CIRS without first notifying the medical officer
B. An injury report in addition to the exposure report, must always be prepared if there are
symptoms to any type of exposure—biological or non-biological
C. The FDID number found on the lower left of the response ticket must be included when
initiating an injury or exposure report to which a unit responded
D. If an injury or exposure occurred at a non-response, the company officer shall enter all 9’s
in the 16-digit space where the FDID normally is entered
- A
- A company officer would be correct to think that? (4.1)
A. All available injury and exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than
7 days from the date of the injury / exposure.
B. An injury / exposure report not initiated within 7 days—cannot be entered into CIRS—
unless a CIRS 1 report is forwarded to the Chief of Operations
C. All Biological & Non-Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately
D. An officer may submit a “Group Report” for any identical biological exposure—provided
there are no symptoms and all members are assigned to the same unit
- A
4.1 All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later
than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature
and/or narrative.
Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the
date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is
required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of
command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances
- A multiple member injury report must be forwarded to the? (Add 2)
A. Chief of Operations, whenever two or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
whether medical leave is required or not
B. Chief of Operations, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
whether medical leave is required or not
C. Chief of Operations, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
resulting in medical leave
D. Chief of Safety, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
resulting in medical leave
- C
- An officer conducting drill on incinerator and compactor incidents was incorrect when she
stated that? (Communications 8, Fires 7—1.2, 1.3)
A. Extension of fire beyond the chute or shaft is more likely in the case of compactors
B. In city housing projects, the chute door is color coded gray to indicate a compactor
C. A compactor fire is only considered a structural fire if it extends beyond the unit or the
chute.
D. A 10-27 shall only be transmitted for a compactor or incinerator fire that does not extend
beyond the compactor unit or beyond the compactor or incinerator shaft
- C
- An officer conducting drill on incinerator and compactor incidents was incorrect when she
stated that? (Communications 8, Fires 7—1.2, 1.3)
A. Extension of fire beyond the chute or shaft is more likely in the case of compactors
B. In city housing projects, the chute door is color coded gray to indicate a compactor
C. A compactor fire is only considered a structural fire if it extends beyond the unit or the
chute.
D. A 10-27 shall only be transmitted for a compactor or incinerator fire that does not extend
beyond the compactor unit or beyond the compactor or incinerator shaft
- When searching for a blockage at incinerator operations, it would be inaccurate to state
that? (2.2, 4.1)
A. If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor
B. If you open a chute door on a floor and a draft goes inward or only a little smoke comes
out, the blockage is generally below that floor
C. If smoke is present on the uppermost floor, there may be a clogged or blocked spark
arrestor or fly ash collector
D. Engine company members may be used to assist with searching and venting provided that
at least two members from the engine remain in the lobby
- D
- When searching for a blockage at incinerator operations, it would be inaccurate to state
that? (2.2, 4.1)
A. If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor
B. If you open a chute door on a floor and a draft goes inward or only a little smoke comes
out, the blockage is generally below that floor
C. If smoke is present on the uppermost floor, there may be a clogged or blocked spark
arrestor or fly ash collector
D. Engine company members may be used to assist with searching and venting provided that
at least two members from the engine remain in the lobby
- Units operating at an incinerator emergency with a blockage causing a heavy smoke
condition should be guided by all of the following tactics except? (2.3 C, D, E, 2.4 B, 3.3)
A. Do not drop anything down the chute that is not secured with a rope
B. Whenever a blockage cannot be freed, consider burning it off
C. If all else fails, a hoseline can be used from the floor above to extinguish the fire
D. Whenever fire is put out by flooding the shaft with water, the auxiliary gas or fuel burner
must be shut down, and it must be shut before flooding the shaft
E. Members attempting to clear a blockage from the base of the incinerator or between the
incinerator and the 1st floor should first shut off the auxiliary burner
- D
- A Ladder company operating at an incinerator emergency where a blockage is reported on
the 4th floor of a 6-story building would be incorrect to think that? (2.1, 2.3 F, H, 2.4)
A. Before leaving the lobby, the Roof FF chocked open the stairwell door at the ground floor
level. He also opened and secured the stairwell bulkhead door
B. The LCC was sent to operate the oversized fans to improve ventilation
C. The Officer, FE team and OV operated inside the building searching for the blockage and
chocking open stairwell doors to vertically vent the smoke
D. The Roof FF, believing the blockage was near the top of the incinerator chute, looked for a
means of access into the fly ash collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are sometimes
equipped with a means of access.
- D
NOTE: A fly ash collector is an area near top of the incinerator vent shaft for collecting fly ash
that results from incomplete combustion of the waste material. It can be as small as
an enlarged area in the shaft or as large as a small room. It is always equipped with a
means of access cleaning (generally a steel door). Use caution in the larger collectors
because there may be an open hole in the floor large enough to fall into. Also, if the
area is small, hot ash may come down on member when opening door.
- Regarding the fire protection requirements for compactors, it would be incorrect to state
that? (7.1—7.4)
A. The compactor room should be supplied with an automatic sprinkler system. A water outlet
and hose are also required in the compactor room
B. Sprinkler heads are required in compactor units. They should be arranged to be readily
replaced, unless electrically operated.
C. The FDNY does not replace sprinkler heads. It is the responsibility of building
maintenance to put the sprinkler back in service
D. Electrically operated sprinkler heads are open heads that are designed not to be replaced.
They activate at approximately 145 degrees, and flow water until the temperature falls below 145
degrees.
E. An OS & Y valve, controlling both the automatic head in the compactor and heads in the
compactor room is usually found on the water line in or near the compactor room.
- D
- First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a compactor chute that is located on the 7th
floor of a 26 story high rise multiple dwelling. It would be incorrect for which action to be taken
in this situation? (8.2 A, B, C, D)
A. The first engine should stretch a 2 ½” line off the standpipe & extinguish the fire from the
8th floor. The 1st OV should proceed with the Engine to provide access to the chute
B. The officer and forcible entry team should first locate the electrical shutoff and shut power
to the unit before operations commence. They should not attempt to operate the compactor unit
without qualified building personnel under any circumstances.
C. The compactor unit access door shall not be opened until after the engine has extinguished
the fire and the sprinkler OS & Y has been closed
D. The Roof FF will generally proceed to the roof to vent, then search and vent stairways and
floors as needed
- B
- First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in the compactor unit. The fire is confined to
the unit and has not extended to the compactor room or the chute. In this situation, it would be
correct for the engine to stretch a line to the? (8.3 A)
A. First floor and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire
B. Compactor room and operate into the unit to extinguish the fire
- A
8.3 Fire in Compactor Unit (no extension to the chute).
A. If the fire has not extended into the room, the engine company stretches a line to first
floor, and operates into chute to extinguish the fire.
B. OV operates with engine to provide access to the chute and to check for extension.
C. The roof firefighter of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.
1) After venting roof, this member will search and vent stairways floors, etc., as
needed.
D. The chauffeur’s duties will vary and will generally be as directed by the officer to:
1) Provide special tools in the compactor room or assist in search and venting, etc.
E. The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor
room.
1) The officer and forcible entry team must first locate the electrical shut off and
shut power to the unit before operations commence.
NOTE: The shut off will generally be on the wall in the compactor room. The
compactor unit can be operated if there is a need, to help clear the unit;
however, extreme caution must be exercised. Refer to Reference #3.
2) After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may
begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door be sure the
hoseline is shut down and sprinkler OS&Y is closed. If the engine is still using
the line or the sprinkler is still operating, glass and other debris may be driven
out of the compactor unit.
3) Open door to unit and pull garbage to reach fire.
4) Most rooms have a hook up for a garden hose. Use it to wet down debris as it
is pulled from chute.
5) Check for extension.
- The response to incidents on express highways is guided by which one of the following
points? (TB Fires 8—5.1, 5.2)
A. One engine and one ladder from each direction, and a Battalion Chief, will be assigned to
all express highway incidents. This same response will also be assigned to EMS responses to
highways for accidents with injuries and / or pedestrians struck.
B. No fewer than three units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other
potentially dangerous roadway
C. At least one vehicle, other than the pumper being used to extinguish a fire, shall be used to
divert or block oncoming traffic. The FDNY vehicle blocking traffic must do so for the duration
of the operation even if the PD arrives on scene & assumes traffic control
D. If an engine and ladder are operating at an incident with a handline stretched and
extrication tools in use, only two units are required, and the ladder apparatus shall be used to
divert or block traffic.
- A
- If an on-scene EMS unit requests a fire unit backup, then one engine company will be
dispatched to the verified incident location to block or divert oncoming traffic, support EMS
operations as needed, and remain for the duration of both Fire and EMS operations: (5.2)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?
- D
When EMS units are on scene at any other type of highway incident and requests a fire
unit back-up, then a single ladder company will be dispatched to the verified incident
location to divert or block oncoming traffic. Members shall support EMS operations as
needed. A ladder company shall remain on the scene to divert or block oncoming traffic
for the duration of both fire and EMS operations. High Visibility Safety Vests shall be
donned as per Section 7.
- A lieutenant of an Engine Company responding to the scene of a vehicle fire would be
incorrect to think that? (4.4, 5.3, 6.1, 6.2)
A. All fires and emergencies involving motor vehicles on other than express highways shall
receive a minimum response of one engine and one ladder
B. Upon arrival at the scene of an incident on a highway, the dispatcher shall be notified to
request response of the police department, and if required, an authorized tow
C. The engine apparatus shall always be placed to the rear of the incident with the pump panel
placed in the protected area.
D. Apparatus shall be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety
E. The second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming
traffic and the operating forces
- C
6.2 Where placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper
may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall
always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces.
- A company officer arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle incident would be incorrect to
think that? (TB Fires 8—4.2 B, 4.2 C, 4.7)
A. Units may need to use their apparatus to completely stop traffic in all lanes of a highway on
the side where the incident occurred, at least until the arrival of the PD to control traffic
B. The IC shall coordinate with the ranking police officer which lane closures are necessary to
control the scene
C. The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of moderate to heavy
traffic volume
D. When weather conditions or smoke blowing across a highway limit visibility, the highway
must be closed
- C
Traffic flow: the volume and speed of the moving traffic on the highway or
street. The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of
light to moderate traffic volume with the usual accompanying high speed.
During this type of traffic flow we can expect speeds of 70 mph or more,
despite posted speeds of 50 mph on express highways.
- When operating at vehicle fires and emergencies on roadways, it would be inaccurate to
state that? (6.4, 6.5, 6.6, 7.1)
A. Even if the operation occurs off of the roadway, an apparatus must be placed to provide a
safe working environment
B. The blocking apparatus shall be at least 50 feet behind the vehicle involved in fire
C. Members shall avoid standing on a highway pavement to the rear of the second apparatus,
unless placing flares, cones or signs, and traffic is stopped
D. Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways
at all times, day or night. There are some exceptions to this policy.
- B
6.5 Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least fifty (50) feet behind the first operating unit to
create a safe working area.
- Which member(s) indicated below are required to wear a high visibility safety vest at a
highway incident? (More than one correct) (7.1.1, 7.1.2)
A. Nozzle & Backup FF’s in the process of extinguishing a fully involved car fire
B. Nozzle & Backup FF’s that completed extinguishing a car fire and have returned to the
engine apparatus to take a blow
C. Member in a Level A chemical protective suit operating to mitigate a tanker spill
D. Member operating in technical rescue PPE for a technical rescue incident
E. Members operating at a highway accident where they were special called to block traffic
and are assisting EMS with the carrying of an obese patient to the ambulance
- B, E
- When placing flares or cones at motor vehicle incidents, it would be incorrect to state that?
(8.1 B, D, E)
A. Flares shall be used at night or periods of reduced visibility. Cones shall be used during
both day and nighttime operations
B. Flares shall not be used at a gas leak, or a flammable or combustible liquid incident where
their use would create a danger of fire or explosion
C. If available, two members should be used to place flares and / or cones. Otherwise, after all
traffic is stopped, one member may be used.
D. Before leaving the apparatus, the member with the flares should light one flare and carry
the lit flare in a horizontal position while walking to place the flares
E. The furthest flare and / or cone should be placed about 2 feet from the edge of the road,
with each subsequent flare and / or cone placed equidistant, about 2 feet further into the road
- C
- Units arriving at the scene of a car fire are ordered to place flares to block one lane of
traffic. The fastest speed expected on this roadway is 60 mph. In regards to the placement of the
flares, it would be correct to state that the minimum distance to the furthest flare should be at
least ______ feet? (8.1 E3)
A. 310 B. 360 C. 420 D. 550
- C
- Units operating at fires on express highways would be correct to think that? (More than
one correct) (9.1 B, C, H, I)
A. If absolutely necessary to operate across a center divider on an express highway, traffic
shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up
B. When units are operating across a center divider on an express highway, the operation shall
be released as soon as possible to units operating from the incident side
C. If firefighters are operating on / from a service roadway for an incident on an express
highway, warning devices should be placed as soon as possible at both locations
D. Aerial or tower ladders setup to access an elevated roadway should be cantilevered parallel
to the elevated roadway—and not extended beyond the shoulder where they could be exposed to
moving traffic.
- A, B, C, D
- An engine and ladder arriving at the scene of a van fire on a main artery in the South Bronx
would be correct to take which action(s)? (More than one correct) (11.1)
A. They chocked both their apparatus and the van
B. They operated the line directly through the front grill to knock down a fire in the engine
compartment
C. They used a coarse spray stream - a partially opened nozzle with the tip removed - on
burning magnesium parts
D. They used a fog stream to drive fire away from victims in the van
E. The ladder company operated a second line to protect an extrication procedure
F. The ladder company used a 6’ hook to support the hood once it was opened
G. After the fire was knocked down, they removed the engine cover in the passenger
compartment by standing to the side of the engine cover
H. The battery was disconnected by first removing the positive terminal, then the negative
terminal
17-A, C, D, E, F, G,
17-A, C, D, E, F, G,
- An engine and ladder arriving at the scene of a fire in a hybrid vehicle on a divided
boulevard in Brooklyn would be correct to think? (11.6)
A. Hybrid vehicle shutdown is indicated by the fact the vehicle is silent. Avoid the front and
rear of such hybrid vehicles until they are disabled.
B. Some hybrid vehicles have a safety switch or disconnect mechanism to disconnect the
battery from the vehicle’s electrical system
C. Never cut any high voltage cables on hybrid vehicles. High voltage cables are usually
color-coded to warn of their danger. Most high voltage cables are color-coded BLUE
D. Inside the hybrid vehicle, make sure the READY light is not on. Also insure the ignition is
OFF and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle
E. Always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition
at hybrid vehicle fires
- E
C. Hybrid Vehicle Safety Considerations:
• To avoid being in the path of a moving vehicle do not approach from the front
or rear until the vehicle has been disabled. Hybrids may appear as if they are
shut down but may actually be in “Ready Mode”. Never assume the vehicle is
off simply because it is silent. The vehicle makes virtually no noise when the
drive system is powered.
• NEVER cut any high voltage cables. High voltage cables in hybrid vehicles are
usually color-coded to warn you of their potential danger. On most, the high
voltage cables are color-coded ORANGE. Although some cables are colorcoded
BLUE. Avoid contact with these cables unless the high voltage battery in
the back of the vehicle has first been disconnected.
• All hybrid batteries have a safety switch or disconnect mechanism to
disconnect the battery from the vehicle’s electrical system. The location of the
battery disconnect safety switch and the disconnect procedure will vary from
one application to another.
• Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is
OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.
• Make sure the READY light is not on. If the power is on, the high voltage
system is live and poses a shock hazard should you come into direct contact
with any of its uninsulated electrical components (such as the inverter under
the hood).
• At a hybrid vehicle fire, ALWAYS make sure that the high voltage battery
case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.
• Always chock the vehicle, put transmission in park, shut off ignition, remove
key, and engage parking brake.
Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.
1. When calling the Queens dispatcher on the Department radio, it would be correct for you to
state? (5.2)
A. “Reserve 522 acting E268 to Queens, K”
B. “RE-522 acting E268 to Queens, K”
C. “Engine 522 to Queens. K”
D. “Engine 522 acting E268 to Queens, K”
- D
5.2 Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were a relocator in the quarters where needed.
It will, therefore, take a standard relocator’s identity for the period in service at the
particular quarters.
Example: Eng. 506 (a reserve apparatus) is established in the quarters of Eng. 219. It
would be identified as “E 506 acting E 219”. NOTE: The terminology 2nd or 3rd, etc.,
section is. not acceptable.
Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.
- You would be incorrect to think that during your tour of duty with Engine 522?
(6.4, 9.2, 9.6, 9.7)
A. A third copy of Engine 522’s riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk
B. You must have a complement of at least 2 CFR-D trained FF’s
C. Your initial stock of CFR-D equipment to start the tour will be picked up at the Battalion
Depot
D. During the tour, you should exchange out of service medical equipment and procure
additional medical supplies from the Battalion Depot
- C
Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.
- At the end of the 9 x 6 tour, you return the apparatus to the quarters of E329. The Officer of
E329 then determines that there is a missing nozzle. In this situation, as the officer in charge of
the Reserve Apparatus for that tour, you are responsible to? (7.5.3)
A. Immediately notify the Administrative Battalion about the loss
B. Record the loss in the journal of E329
C. Forward a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining
the circumstances of the loss
D. Forward a Lost Property Report
- D
- Which point concerning transformers is incorrect? (3.2.1, 5.2.1A)
A. Combustible materials must not be stored within a “PCB Transformer” enclosure or within
5 meters of a “PCB Transformer” or an unenclosed “PCB Transformer”
B. The trade name “Askarel” indicates a dielectric fluid which contain PCB’s in the hundreds
of thousands of PPM
C. A transformer cooled by “Air” will have no PCB’s
D. The FDNY considers a transformer with at least 50 PPM or more of PCBs as a PCB
Transformer
- D
“PCB TRANSFORMER” (500 or more ppm of PCB)
“PCB-CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS” (50-499 ppm of PCB)
- Units arrive at the scene of a transformer incident in a Hi-Rise Office Building, where an
energized electrical transformer needs to be deactivated. The dispatcher advises units that Con
Ed is reporting a one hour ETA. Regarding the deactivation of the transformer, it would be
correct to state that? (6.4.2)
A. A knowledgeable firefighter familiar with the procedure, with proper PPE, may perform
deactivation. Otherwise, wait for Con Ed to deactivate
B. An engineer of the premises familiar with the procedure may perform deactivation.
Otherwise, wait for Con Ed to deactivate
C. An on-site electrician familiar with the procedure may perform deactivation. Otherwise,
wait for Con Ed to deactivate
D. Only Con Ed personnel may perform deactivation
- B
- While operating at an incident where there is burning transformer, members shall assume
that the oil is PCB until proven otherwise. In that regard, it would be correct to state that?
(6.4.7, 6.4.8, 6.4.12, 7.1, 8.1)
A. Use of SCBA is mandatory, even in areas of light smoke. SCBA shall be used at all times,
until the IC confirms the area is free of toxic gases
B. Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed (even with a light haze of smoke) shall be
given prime consideration
C. A Staging Area shall be established by the IC
D. Decontamination procedures shall be implemented when members or equipment are
exposed to any levels of PCB’s
- A, B, C
8.1 Decontamination procedures outlined in the Emergency Response Plan: Hazardous
Materials shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels
of PCB’s of 50 PPM or higher. Federal regulations consider transformers containing a
PCB level of less than 50 PPM to be non-PCB transformers.