WEEK #15 WEEK OF 5/12/14 PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 5 – REF. 1.4, 1.7 & 1.10 PART II – FFP – COLLAPSE PART III – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - DISENTANGLEMENT PART IV – TB – TOOLS #17, 19, 20, 21 & 24 PART V – TB – MANAGEMENT - SUPERVISION INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO

Question 1

PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 5 – REF. 1.4, 1.7 & 1.10:
1. You are the Lieutenant in ENG 49 just sitting down for lunch after morning BI. You get a
phone call reporting an out of service standpipe system in a high rise MD several blocks from
quarters. You would be correct to think? (2.3.1, 3.1)
a. You can investigate with members and apparatus after lunch
b. A standpipe system shutdown for any reason requires an on scene investigation
c. You should notify the administrative company if the building is not in ENG 49’s
administrative area
d. If the shutdown is only partial and will be restored within 24 hours, an investigation is not
required

Answer 1

1. C

2.3.1 If the premise is in another company’s administrative district, the Officer notified
shall make a journal entry and immediately telephone the Officer on duty in that
company

Question 2

2. You are performing BI in an unoccupied building formerly occupied as a supermarket (the
   stability of the building is not in doubt). While inspecting the cellar you discover the sprinkler in
   the cellar is OOS and the sprinkler siamese is defective. Which of the following actions is
   incorrect? (3.5.1 – 3.5.5)
   a. A summons was issued for the OOS sprinkler if the FDNY was not previously notified.
   b. A forthwith Violation Order was issued to restore the sprinkler system
   c. An A-8 was forwarded to Fire Prevention concerning the defective siamese
   d. An NOV issued to provide a fire watch

Answer 2

2. D

Question 3

3. You report to LAD 57 for your first day tour as a newly promoted Lieutenant. You see a
   note on the desk about an OOS standpipe system in LAD 57’s district. You take a moment to
   review the follow-up required. Which is an incorrect statement? (3.6.1 – 3.6.4, 5.1)
   a. Daily surveillance inspections are required for an OOS standpipe system
   b. In all cases form A-500 is forwarded to the Division Commander
   c. In all cases form FPCU – 1 is forwarded
   d. All 1st alarm units are notified by phone and in writing

Answer 3

3. C

3.6.4 For commercial occupancies, complete and forward Form# FPCU 1 to the Bureau
of Fire Prevention Field/Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU). This form is
required to permit the FPOSU to make the necessary notifications to the Board of
Fire Underwriters.

Question 4

4. While operating at a rubbish fire in a storage room which activated a sprinkler head, FDNY
   personnel shut down the sprinkler control valve. After notifying a responsible person to restore
   the system, the IC was notified that the system would not be restored until after fire units left the
   scene. In this case which of the following actions is not correct? (8.1, 3.4 - 3.5.2)
   a. A disc was placed on the appropriate siamese
   b. A summons was issued for an OOS system
   c. A Violation Order was issued to restore the system
   d. An A-8 was forwarded to the Suppression Unit

Answer 4

4. B

Question 5

5. While operating at a CFR-D run for an injured construction worker in a 4 story MD
   undergoing demolition you notice the sprinkler system is being removed. If the foreman does
   not have an approved variance which allows the system to be removed you would be correct to:
   (p. 11)
   a. Issue a Stop Work Order
   b. Request DOB response and notify Battalion by phone
   c. Request Battalion response and notify DOB by phone
   d. Request both Battalion and DOB response to the scene

Answer 5

5. D

Question 6

6. During surveillance of an OOS sprinkler, where a VO to restore the system and a summons
   have previously been served, you determine there is a lack of intent to restore the sprinkler
   system to service. You would be correct to? (5.1.2 – 5.1.3)
   a. Issue an A-8 to the foreman at the scene
   b. Forward an A-200 to the Enforcement Unit at DOB
   c. Issue another summons
   d. Issue another Violation Order

Answer 6

6. C

Question 7

REFERENCE 1.7 EXCESSIVE ALARMS
1. You are responding to an “E” alarm at a 45-story office building. In accordance with All
Borough Circular 5-94, you are the only company responding (a Battalion is assigned to
monitor). Which two statements are incorrect? (p. 2, p. 4, 1 c 7, 1 d)
a. You should transmit a 10-35 if a pull station was activated maliciously
b. A log book is required to be available at the main fire alarm control panel
c. The location of alarm, cause of alarm, FDNY unit and officer’s name should be recorded in
the alarm log book for each activated alarm
d. If this was the 2nd unnecessary or unwarranted alarm in the past 2 months, your unit should
issue an NOV

Answer 7

1. A, D

(2) It shall be unlawful to transmit two (2) or more unnecessary or unwarranted
alarms in any three-month period, and it shall be unlawful to transmit any
additional unnecessary or unwarranted alarms as set forth in R907-01(c)(4).

Question 8

2. Which two points are incorrect about enforcement actions concerning excessive alarms?
   (p. 5)
   a. If the alarm log book is not located at the main fire alarm panel at all times, an NOV should
   be issued
   b. A smoke detector maintenance log book without required entries requires a VO be issued
   c. If smoke detectors have not been tested for smoke entry at least once a year, an NOV
   should be issued
   d. After an NOV was issued for 2 unnecessary alarms in 2 months, an unwarranted alarm
   occurred within 6 months of the NOV; responding units issued a summons.

Answer 8

2. A, B, D

A computer record that is designed to
prevent or detect alteration of information and that is otherwise maintained
in a manner acceptable to the Department may be maintained in lieu of a
bound log book provided that such computerized record is available on the
premises for inspection by any Department representative during business
hour

Note: Failure to provide a smoke detector maintenance log book, or providing such
log book without all required entries, would require the issuance of an NOV; see
enforcement section below.

Question 9

REFERENCE 1.10
1. Legislation enacted in 2010 requires builders and owners to make some changes. Select
the incorrect statement about the color of piping in a building. (p. 1)
a. Exposed standpipe piping and dedicated standpipe valve handles must be painted red
b. Exposed sprinkler piping and dedicated sprinkler valve handles must be painted green
c. Combination standpipe valve handles must be painted yellow
d. These changes effect both new and existing buildings

Answer 9

1. B
2. COLOR CODING:
   1.1 Local Law 58/09, effective 3/2/2010 / existing buildings must comply by 6/2/2010. Local
   Law 58 of 2009 requires the uniform color-coding of standpipe and sprinkler systems and
   professional certification that these systems have been properly color-coded. Specifically,
   the law requires:
   • All exposed standpipes and sprinkler piping must be painted red. The law outlines
   specific exceptions, such as branch piping.
   • Dedicated standpipe valve handles must be painted red.
   • Combination standpipe valve handles must be painted yellow.
   • Dedicated sprinkler valve handles must be painted green.
   • All buildings – no matter the size or occupancy must comply with these new
   requirements.
   Action: NOV (12)

Question 10

2. Prior to your first BISP inspection as a newly promoted Lieutenant you review the RBIS
   list. Select the incorrect action or statement concerning pressure testing of standpipe and
   sprinkler systems. (p. 4)
   a. If pressure testing has not been performed as required a VO or NOV should be issued at the
   scene
   b. If a standpipe pressurization alarm system is activating a Battalion Chief and DOB should
   be requested to respond
   c. If the Site Safety Manager log book is not being maintained an NOV should be issued
   d. A summons should be issued if the installed standpipe pressure alarm was deactivated
   without FDNY notification

Answer 10

2. A

Question 11

PART II – FFP – COLLAPSE:
1. Which of the following is incorrect about structural collapse operations in New York City
according to the Citywide Incident Management System? (1.2, 2.1, 2.2)
a. Structural collapse is a Unified Command with FDNY and NYPD sharing command
b. Search and Rescue is a Core Competency of the FDNY
c. Life Safety operations in progress will not be disrupted because of transition of command
d. The first arriving FDNY Officer has responsibility for rescue activities

Answer 11

1. A

According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), structural collapse is a
single command event and the FDNY has been designated as the Incident Commander
for collapse operations

Question 12

2. The first arriving officer should transmit all but which of the following to the dispatcher?
   (4.2, 4.3)
   a. Location of initial staging area
   b. Location of incident command post
   c. Transmit a 10-60 for all collapses
   d. Ensure a tower ladder is assigned to every major collapse

Answer 12

2. C

4.2 Dispatch Information and Scene Size-Up will determine the following:
 Apparatus placement/street management
 First arriving units should position themselves as per the directions in Section 5.1
 Designate an initial staging area for other responders
 Identify a location for the ICP
4.3 Notify the Fire Department Dispatcher of:
 The address
 The nature of the incident
 The need for additional FDNY units or other agency resources
 Transmit a signal 10-60 (Major Emergency Response) and when conditions warrant
an additional alarm
 Location of the ICP for the response of Fire, EMS and PD supervisors
Note: At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every major collapse if none
was assigned on the initial alarm

Question 13

3. You are the officer of Engine 13 responding to a report of an explosion. Upon arrival you
   observe a smoking debris pile that is apparently a collapsed building. You would be correct to
   believe all of the following except: (4.4.1, 4.6)
   a. Assume possible “dirty bomb” until atmospheric monitoring proves area clear
   b. Initial actions should focus on immediate removal of the severely injured and trapped
   victims
   c. Below grade areas may not be searched prior to atmospheric monitoring
   d. Members should not enter danger zones except to save life

Answer 13

3. B

4.4.1 Safety at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration during
the operation.
 Identify and immediately report any sign of structural defect that could lead to a
secondary collapse. Isolate these areas with barrier tape and/or other suitable
means.
 Do not enter any danger zones except to save life.
 Place apparatus outside of the potential collapse danger zone.
 Access control points should be established to regulate entry and exit from the
control zone.
 Doors, stairways, ladders, ramps, ditches and excavations should be made as
secure as possible in the event a rapid escape from the site is required.
Note: At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the
immediate area is monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.

 Explosions shall be viewed as possible “dirty-bomb” sites until monitoring shows the
area to be clear of contamination

Question 14

4. Proper apparatus positioning is extremely important at the scene of major collapses. Which
   two are incorrect statements? (5.2, 7.2.1)
   a. Apparatus should be positioned outside the collapse zone
   b. The 1st and 2nd engines must be on a hydrant outside the block
   c. The 3rd engine should be positioned to the rear of the structure
   d. The 4th engine should be used to block off on end of the street

Answer 14

4. B, D

Note: At times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position
within the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or
exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water
supply for such purposes.

Question 15

5. You are the Lieutenant working in Ladder 99 (an aerial ladder) responding on a 2nd alarm
   for a collapse of a 4-story MD. Since you have not received orders from the IC, you should
   know which one below is proper positioning for your apparatus? (5.4.3)
   a. In front of exposure 2 or 4, depending on location of other ladder apparatus
   b. The exposure 3 side and prepare for ladder pipe operations
   c. At the end of the street, sealing off the block
   d. Away from the front of the building, in a secondary staging area

Answer 15

5. D

Question 16

6. Consider the following tasks of the first arriving engines and select the correct priority
   order of where the initial hoselines should be operated. (7.1.1)
7. Protect exposures
8. Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse
9. Extinguish fire in the surrounding debris
10. 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder
11. Extinguish fire in the collapsed building
    a. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
    b. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
    c. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
    d. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer 16

6. B

Question 17

7. Select the incorrect statement about engine operations at the scene of a building collapse.
   (7.1.1, 7.2.1)
   a. The initial handline should be 2 ½”
   b. Handlines should be stretched and charged even if there is no fire
   c. A 3 ½” line should be stretched to supply the first tower ladder regardless if there is fire
   d. The deck pipe of the 1st engine should only be used to prevent fire extension to exposures

Answer 17

7. D

Question 18

8. Select the incorrect action performed by members of the 1st ladder at a building collapse
   (7.5)
   a. The officer split the company into separate teams
   b. After removing lightly buried victims, the firefighters delivered the victims to the Casualty
   Collection Point
   c. Voids should only be visually searched
   d. Load bearing members should not be cut or shifted but may be lifted to access a confirmed
   life hazard

Answer 18

8. D

 Perform Preliminary Void Search
As soon as conditions permit, begin searching areas where voids exist for
possible survivors.
o Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load
bearing members. Call and listen.
o As survivors are located and removed, members should note their
description and location for use in victim tracking.
 Victims should be directed/brought to a CCP.

Question 19

9. The following actions were performed by the 2nd arriving ladder company at a collapse of a
   3 story commercial building; which statement is incorrect? (7.6.1, 7.6.2)
   a. The officer notified the dispatcher to ensure utility emergency crews were notified
   b. Their major priority is controlling gas, electric and water services
   c. Members assisted with life safety operations
   d. The OV and Roof were the Safety Team until the arrival of the 2nd engine or FAST unit

Answer 19

9. D

7.6 Second Arriving Ladder Company
The second ladder company to arrive shall immediately begin the process of controlling
the gas, electric and water services.
7.6.1 Officer
 Obtain a briefing from the IC.
 Supervise apparatus placement.
 Ensure the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews
(gas, electric, water, steam).
7.6.2 Second Arriving Ladder Company Members: Utilities
 Assist with life safety if necessary. Augment search and rescue efforts.
 The major priority is controlling the gas, electric and water services.
 Shut down accessible services.
o Gas: Main building shut-off or curb valve.
o Electric: Main disconnect.
o Water: Main building shut-off or curb valve.

Question 20

10. You are the Lieutenant of the engine responding 2nd on the 2nd alarm for a 10-60 for a
    building collapse. You would be correct if you initially reported to: (8.1)
    a. The exposure 3 side and connected to a hydrant
    b. Either end of the street to seal it off; ECC must remain with apparatus
    c. The command post
    d. The staging area

Answer 20

10. D

Upon transmission of signal 10-60, all Engines and Ladders above the first alarm
assignment shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area
until ordered to the scene (under the supervision of a Staging Area Manager). This
Staging Area may be the same as a staging area established for any multiple alarm.
Also, the appropriate Battalion Chief shall be designated Air Recon Chief and shall
respond in accordance with Department policy and procedures.

Question 21

11. You’re a Lieutenant reporting to the command post at a building collapse. The IC
    designates you the “street coordination manager.” You would be incorrect to think?
    (8.8.2).
    a. You must be relieved at the point when a Battalion Chief is available
    b. You should discuss traffic flow with PD and EMS personnel
    c. You must coordinate the Casualty Collection Point with EMS personnel
    d. You should know the location of all vehicle staging areas

Answer 21

11. A

8.8.2 Street Coordination Manager
 A company officer will be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager, with
the following responsibilities:
o The early assignment of a street management coordinator will prevent
needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates.
o Establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow.
o Ensure access/egress of essential vehicles.
o Position apparatus for most efficient use.
o Coordinate apparatus staging areas.
o Coordinate CCP with an EMS Officer.

Question 22

12. You are the officer of the 3rd engine on a 10-60. The IC orders your company to assist in
    stretching supply lines to tower ladders and to have two members posted as lookouts around the
    perimeter. You know the lookouts need to have handheld air horns, you should direct them to all
    but which of the following? (9.2.1)
    a. All Battalion vehicles
    b. All Division vehicles
    c. All SOC Support Ladder 2nd piece
    d. All Squad Companies
    e. All Rescue Companies

Answer 22

12. C

Question 23

13. While operating at a collapse you hear 3 short blasts of an air horn. You would be correct
    to: (9.2.2)
    a. Stop operations and stay silent
    b. Resume operations
    c. Evacuate the area
    d. Leave area due to end of “operational period”

Answer 23

13. C

1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations

Question 24

14. Arrange the stages of the Collapse Rescue Plan in the proper order: (11.1)
15. General debris removal
16. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims
17. Reconnaissance
18. Selected debris removal and tunneling
19. Search of the voids
    a. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
    b. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
    c. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
    d. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

Answer 24

14. B

Question 25

15. You have been assigned to keep track of all people (civilians) removed from the debris pile
    after a collapse. You should obtain their ____________ and ___________. (11.3)
    a. Name & date of birth
    b. Name & age
    c. Age & date of birth
    d. Name & location during collapse
    e. Name & address

Answer 25

15. D

Question 26

16. The proper name for the position in the previous question is: (11.3)
    a. Victim Accounting Manager
    b. Victim Tracking Coordinator
    c. Victim Resource Supervisor
    d. Survivor Locator Officer

Answer 26

16. A

Question 27

17. Which is not a common type void found in a collapse?
    a. Lean-to
    b. V-shaped
    c. Honeycomb
    d. Individual
    e. Pancake

Answer 27

17. C

Question 28

18. Surviving a collapse in which type of void depends on the presence of strong objects
    nearby?
    a. Lean-to
    b. V-shaped
    c. Honeycomb
    d. Individual
    e. Pancake

Answer 28

18. D

Question 29

19. During a MUD with a SOC Support Truck that had a Collapse Rescue apparatus the topic
    of shoring was discussed. Which is a correct statement? (11.5.1, 11.5.2)
    a. Only specially trained members of SOC can place emergency shoring
    b. A vacant building will not be shored unless installing the shoring poses no more than a
    substantial risk to members
    c. An unoccupied building undergoing demolition will not be shored unless human life is in
    danger
    d. Once installed, shoring should be removed within 24 hours

Answer 29

19. C

Question 30

20. Select the incorrect timeframe for these collapse related topics: (11.6.4, 11.6.8,
    11.7.1, 11.8.1)
    a. 30 minutes is the recommended maximum work time for firefighters before being rotated
    out at a major building collapse
    b. If the victim has been pinned for more than one hour they must be treated for crush
    syndrome
    c. Victims extricated in the first hour (golden hour) have a 99.3% chance of survival
    d. One criteria of Crush Syndrome is prolonged compression (usually 4-6 hours but possibly
    less than an hour)

Answer 30

20. C

Time of Extrication vs. Survival Rate
Time of Extrication Survival Rate
30 minutes 99.3%
1 day 81
2 days 36.7
3 days 33.7
4 days 19
5 days 7.4

Question 31

PART III – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - DISENTANGLEMENT:
1. Operations at vehicle collisions pose some serious hazards to FDNY members. One way to
protect members from airbag deployment is the “5-10-20” rule. Which is the correct meaning of
that rule? (2.6)
a. Safe distances of 10” from front and 20” from side airbags are possible after battery shutoff
for 5 minutes
b. Safe distances are 5” from front, 10” from side & 20” from passenger airbags
c. After 5 minutes of any airbag deployment safe distances are 10” from side and 20” from
front airbags
d. Safe distances are 5” from side, 10” from driver & 20” from passenger airbags

Answer 31

1. D

Question 32

2. Patient treatment is important and preventing additional injuries imperative at the scene of
   car accidents. Select the incorrect statement (2.4, 2.7, 2.12, 2.13)
   a. The seatbelt should be removed as soon as practical
   b. Seatbelt pre-tensioners may activate even after battery is disconnected
   c. Convertibles may have automatic roll-over protection that could accidentally deploy during
   rescue operations
   d. Dashboard lifts and seat displacements are less difficult in newer vehicles compared to
   older models
   e. Batteries may be located in places other than under the hood and some vehicles have more
   than one battery

Answer 32

2. D

Question 33

3. The glass used in newer vehicles differs from traditional glass. Select the correct statement
   (2.9)
   a. Laminated glass is being replaced by tempered glass on side and rear windows
   b. Rigid plastics are also being used in newer vehicles as a replacement for glass
   c. Conventional methods to access patients will be quicker and more efficient with newer type
   materials
   d. The new type of glass makes it easier to access occupants

Answer 33

3. B

Question 34

4. During drill on extrication operations some statements were made, which is incorrect?
   (4 p. 5)
   a. The engine company should be divided into two teams: one for patient care duties and one
   to stretch and charge a handline
   b. The ladder company inside team should conduct a perimeter survey
   c. Prior to seatbelt removal, the ignition should be shut off
   d. The ladder officer ensures the battery is disconnected; the negative terminal is removed

Answer 34

4. C

4.2.1 Officer and inside team proceed to scene of accident to initiate a perimeter survey,
chock the vehicle and gain access to victim. Inside team will ensure car is in
park, windows are opened, seats are moved back and seatbelts removed before
shutting down ignition. If an engine or EMS is not on scene, members shall
stabilize the patient. Once an engine or EMS arrives, the inside team can pass off
patient stabilization and assist the outside team with disentanglement.

Question 35

5. Vehicle stabilization must be achieved to reduce the danger to FDNY personnel. Which is
   not in accord with FDNY policy? (5.1-5.3)
   a. Place step chocks (flat side down) behind front wheels and in front of rear wheels
   b. Vehicles are stabilized as they are found
   c. Never upright a vehicle with a victim inside
   d. Only after a vehicle is stabilized can you check under it for victims

Answer 35

5. A

5.4 Vehicles on all four wheels are best-stabilized using step chocks and wedges. Place
chocks just behind front wheels and in front of rear wheels, step side down.

Question 36

6. After step chocks were placed, the IC decides that further stabilization is required. You
   would be correct to: (5.5)
   a. Box crib front and rear of vehicle
   b. Utilize airbags
   c. Deflate tires
   d. Use bottle jack (if available)

Answer 36

6. C

Question 37

7. Various methods are available to access and remove victims depending on conditions.
   Which is an incorrect statement? (3.3.3, 5.6, 6.1)
   a. Vehicles on their side or roof shall be secured with utility rope prior to entry
   b. When removing a door, either the hinge side or Nader pin side may be attacked first
   c. If attacking the hinges (an improved approach with new car construction) cut top hinge
   before bottom hinge
   d. Usually only the spreaders and cutters (not both) need to be set up; the power unit should
   be placed at the front or rear of the vehicle.

Answer 37

7. D

Question 38

PART IV – TB – TOOLS #17, 19, 20, 21 & 24:
TB TOOLS 17
1. Select the correct point about the Akron New Yorker multiversal nozzle (2.1 B,
3.3.5 E, 3.1.1, 3.2.1, 7.1, Engines 11.1)
a. The multiversal must be secured in the portable ground position with either the safety chain
or utility rope
b. The stream shaper must be in place when flowing water
c. The largest diameter hose available must be used for supply
d. Two members must be used to remove from apparatus and also to carry it to the point of
operation

Answer 38

1. B

Question 39

2. Select the incorrect statement made during drill on the positioning of the Akron New
   Yorker
   a. The portable ground base is placed with the front leg pointing toward the fire or point of
   operations
   b. The Akron nozzle, in proper position, will have the two siamese inlets facing to the rear (in
   line with front leg)
   c. The utility rope is secured directly in front of the multiversal nozzle
   d. Hose is not connected to the multiversal until after the utility rope knots are tied

Answer 39

2. C

Question 40

3. Which is an incorrect pressure for an ECC to supply for a multiversal? (3.4.5)
   a. 90 psi with the 1 ¼” tip
   b. 80 psi with the 1 ½” tip
   c. 50 psi with the 1 ½” tip
   d. 45 psi with the 2” tip

Answer 40

3. B

3.4.5 When used in the portable ground base, the unit should not be operated at more than
800 gallons per minute with any type of straight stream or Fog Tip.
A. In order to avoid operating at more than 800 gallons per minute with straight
stream tips, the following pressures shall not be exceeded:
1¼” tip - not more than 100 psi
1½” tip - not more than 70 psi
2” tip - not more than 50 psi
Note: In regulating pressure, the gauge provided on the Multiversal Nozzle may be
used as a guide.

Question 41

4. Which three statements about the Akron New Yorker multiversal nozzle are incorrect?
   (3.4.2, 3.4.5, 7.4, 7.5)
   a. The multiversal should not be used to flow more than 800 gpm
   b. Only solid stream tips shall be used, no fog nozzles
   c. Two supply lines may be used if necessary but only 1 is recommended due to possible
   pressure variations
   d. The pressure gauge mounted on the multiversal should not be relied on
   e. When operating in the ground based position do not move the multiversal unless the water
   supply is shutdown
   f. Upon completing operations, fully drain the appliance by turning it upside down
   g. The maximum pressure any part of the appliance should be subject to is 200 psi

Answer 41

4. B, C, D

3.4.5 When used in the portable ground base, the unit should not be operated at more than
800 gallons per minute with any type of straight stream or Fog Tip.

Question 42

5. During drill with the multiversal you realize it is unable to be secured in its portable ground
   base. You would be correct to notify: (7.3)
   a. Tool Room
   b. R & D
   c. Tech Services
   d. Repairs and Transportation

Answer 42

5. D

Question 43

TOOLS 19
1. You are a Lieutenant working in a ladder company operating at a fire in a large commercial
occupancy. You are assigned to the floor above sector to assist in searches. Which is correct
when encountering a door that has a “sure search door marker” on the outside door knob?
(3.2, 3.4, 3.5)
a. A primary search has not been initiated in this area
b. FDNY personnel have not entered that room yet
c. Your company should conduct a search of this room
d. When all operations have been completed the markers shall be removed and returned to
their assigned units.

Answer 43

1. D

Question 44

2. Select the incorrect statement about the distribution of the “sure search door markers.”
   (4.1 – 4.5)
   a. All Ladder, Rescue and Squad companies are issued a supply of door markers
   b. Each member shall be issued 4 markers.
   c. A reserve supply of markers shall be carried on the apparatus and by the Field
   Communications Unit
   d. Replacements can be obtained from the Technical Services Division

Answer 44

2. A

4.1 The door markers will be issued to selected ladder companies and rescues.

Question 45

TOOLS 20
1. Select the incorrect statement about maxi-force air bags. (1.1, 1.2, 2.1.1, 2.4, 2.5)
a. They require only an inch of space for insertion
b. Each bag’s rated tonnage is based on its capacity to lift that tonnage one inch
c. The bags can be used to lift collapsed floors
d. The air bags work well with the Hurst Tool and other extrication tools.
e. Either steel or composite SCBA cylinders may be used to operate the air bags
f. Two red hoses and one yellow hose, all 16 feet in length are used to supply air to the bags.

Answer 45

1. E

2.5.1 Steel SCBA cylinders are used to operate the air bags.
Note: Figures 6-10 depict the Pressure Regulator attached to an aluminum
SCBA cylinder. In actual practice, only the steel SCBA cylinder may be used.

Question 46

2. When assembling the air bags and regulator, correct pressures must be maintained for a
   safe operation. Which is incorrect? (3.1.1,3.1.4, 4.2)
   a. The low pressure gauge should be set to 135 psi
   b. The air cylinder must be changed when the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi
   c. The member operating the regulator shall always open the high pressure air source slowly
   d. When the internal air pressure in an air bag reaches 118 psi (minimal internal pressure for
   lifting) no additional air will be expelled

Answer 46

2. D

Question 47

3. The dual combination control valve and safety relief (CVSR) must be connected into the
   system for the air bags to operate properly. All of the following are correct except?
   (3.2.2, 3.2.6, 3.2.7, figure 4)
   a. A yellow hose is used to connect the regulator to the CVSR
   b. The dual combination control valve and safety relief is equipped with two air outlets.
   c. The bag shall be placed in position after it is connected to the air supply.
   d. The bag was placed with the air nipple facing out

Answer 47

3. A

3.2.2 Check both control levers to make sure they are in the closed position
(perpendicular to air supply line.) Connect one of the red air supply hoses to the
pressure regulator and to the control valve and safety relief inlet. The other red air
supply hose is connected to one of the air outlets. (See Fig. 10

Question 48

4. Select the incorrect point about operations with airbags: (4.2, 4.3, 4.5, 6.5)
   a. If the safety relief valve opens and begins venting air, close the control lever to conserve air
   supply
   b. Inflate the bags just enough to lift the load as far as needed
   c. The air bags should not normally be inflated to their maximum rated height
   d. When the bag has been inflated to the required height, the air hose can be disconnected and
   attached to another bag after the flow of air has been closed off.

Answer 48

4-ALL CORRECT

Question 49

5. All but which of the following specific procedures should be followed when air bags are
   inflated? (6.5, 6.7, 6.9)
   a. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first
   b. Members shall never work under a load unless it is blocked or shored
   c. If two bags are used, always place the smaller bag on top of the larger bag
   d. Air bags should only be inflated half to three quarters of their rated height capacity
   e. Air bags and blocks for shoring both need a smooth surface to be effective

Answer 49

5. E

6.5 The bags should only be inflated half to three quarters of their rated height capacity. The
“pillowing effect” should be avoided. This can cause the load to shift with possible
dangerous results

6.7 Never work under a load unless it is blocked or shored. As the load is being moved or
lifted, always block or shore the load. Remember that although a bag does not need a
smooth surface, blocks and shoring do.

6.9 Two bags may be used safely from one control valve safety relief device

Question 50

6. The front of each bag should be marked with the maximum tonnage and lifting height.
   Which is correct about these numbers? (6.9)
   a. An air bag can lift its maximum tonnage only 1 inch
   b. When two bags are stacked, the tonnage of the smaller bag is the maximum that can be
   lifted
   c. To increase the maximum height, wood cribbing may be placed between air bags.
   d. More than two air bags may never be stacked together
   e. The lifting capability is reduced by 50% to get maximum height

Answer 50

6. C

6.9.5 Remember that when stacking you cannot add together the tonnage of the two
bags to get the total lifting weight. The tonnage of the smaller bag is the
maximum that can be lifted.

6.9.6 The lifting capability is reduced by 50% to obtain maximum lifting height.
Example: a 30 ton bag with a maximum lifting height of 10 inches will lift 30 tons
1 inch, but will lift 15 tons to a height of 10 inches.

Question 51

7. How are airbags identified during a lifting operation? (6.9.10)
   a. Positioning: (top bag or bottom bag)
   b. Rated tonnage
   c. Color of air hose
   d. Size

Answer 51

7. C

Question 52

TOOLS 21 RABBIT TOOL
1. Which is a correct statement about the rabbit tool? (3.1 - 3.6)
a. It is also known as the hydra ram
b. When used the door should open in 3 to 4 pumps of the handle
c. The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, it will not work vertically
d. Whenever a door is encountered with multiple locks on the knob side, insert jaws on the
knob

Answer 52

1. B

Question 53

2. During drill on the rabbit tool the officer made the following statements, which two are
   incorrect? (2, 3.6, 4)
   a. Members shall not stand in front of a lock protected by a shield when being forced with a
   rabbit tool
   b. Rabbit tools should only be used on inward opening doors, never on any type of elevator
   doors
   c. It is not to be used as an auto extrication tool
   d. To retract jaws, push them against the palm of one hand, being sure to keep your fingers
   clear

Answer 53

2. B, D
3. USES
   It is designed for use on doors that open inward. It has also been used successfully on sliding
   elevator doors. It is not to be used as an auto extrication tool. This is a misuse of the tool and
   may result in injury.

Officers supervising forcible entry operations with the Rabbit Tool on doors that have locks
protected by shields are directed to ensure that no member stands in front of the lock while the
operation is in progress.

4. SAFETY
   Use full firefighting gear with eye shields down. To retract jaws, place them on the floor and
   turn the control lever. Keep fingers clear of jaws when retracting! Never attempt to grasp a
   leaking hose under pressure. The force of escaping hydraulic fluid could cause serious injury.

Question 54

3. The rabbit tool developed a leak, you correctly notified ________________ for repair. (5)
   a. Tool Room
   b. R & D
   c. Tech Services
   d. Repairs and Transportation

Answer 54

3. D

Question 55

TB TOOLS 24 - CHAIN SAW OPERATIONS
1. Chain saws are extremely effective yet dangerous tools. Select the incorrect statement
(2.1, 3.2, 3.5.1, 3.6, AUC 301 5.8)
a. The chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or overhauling of any structural fires
b. Both feet must be on solid ground (or Tower Ladder basket) when using chainsaw
c. Always hold with both hands when engine is running
d. Throttle to full speed just before chain touches wood

Answer 55

1. A

Question 56

2. Members operating the chain saw may wear all but which the following: (2.4, 7.3.1)
   a. Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat
   b. Helmet
   c. Eye and ear protection
   d. Fire gloves
   e. Bunker pants and boots
   f. Saw protected chaps

Answer 56

2. D

Question 57

3. Similar to the partner saw, a circle of danger is required for chain saw operations. Which is
   an incorrect statement? (4.4, 4.6)
   a. Radius of 10 feet
   b. Saw operator and control person are the only personnel in the circle of danger when cutting
   c. Control member must maintain sufficient distance from cutting member
   d. Saw refueling takes place in the circle of danger

Answer 57

3. D

Question 58

4. Consider the following situations: (5.2, 5.3, AUC 301 3.4, 5.6)
5. A small tree branch that fell against and its support by a 1 story PD
6. A medium sized tree branch that is hanging
7. A tree that has fallen on an unoccupied car
8. A fallen tree blocking a sidewalk and street that is entangled with wires
9. A cutting operation that must be performed from a ladder
   FDNY members are permitted to use the chain saw in which situation?
   a. All of the above situations
   b. None of the above situations
   c. 1 of the above situations
   d. 2 of the above situations

Answer 58

4. B

5.2 Do not attempt cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now
supported by it.
5.3 If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members
are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object
should be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.

3.4 Members are not to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such
action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane.

5.6 If a fallen tree or section is resting on an electrical wire, members are to check electrical
service of affected buildings.
The general theory is that wood is a poor conductor of electricity. However, when trees
fall into power lines and the lines have been stripped of their insulation, the possibility of
the tree being charged is increased. The sap of the tree is an excellent conductor and
when using a power saw, the operator becomes a ground for the charge.
REMEMBER: TREES CAN CONDUCT ELECTRICITY. NO CUTTING OR
MOVING IS TO BE ATTEMPTED UNTIL THE UTILITY COMPANY
CERTIFIES THAT POWER HAS BEEN REMOVED AND WIRES HAVE BEEN
DISENGAGED FROM THE TREES.

Question 59

5. Which two are incorrect safety points about chainsaw operations? (7.17, 7.21, 7.22,
   7.27)
   a. Put the saw out of service if the chain spins at idle
   b. When opening up the fuel tank, always loosen the cap slowly and wait for the tank pressure
   to be equalized before removing cap
   c. Rev the saw continuously to ensure proper operation while waiting make a cut
   d. When operating a chain saw you must remove your handie-talkie to avoid becoming
   tangled in debris

Answer 59

5. C, D

7.22 Do not rev the saw until you are ready to make the cut.

7.27 When operating a chain saw, secure or remove your handie-talkie as to avoid the
potential for the radio to swing into the cutting space or become tangled on debris.

Question 60

6. When repairs to the saw are required, unit is to forward it to _________________ with an
   RT-2.
   a. Tool Room
   b. R & D
   c. Tech Services
   d. Repairs and Transportation

Answer 60

6. C

Question 61

PART V – TB – MANAGEMENT - SUPERVISION:
1. Which is not a correct statement about supervision? (p. 3)
a. The most common error is for supervisors to concern themselves almost exclusively with
the work that their subordinates are supposed to do rather than focus on the work which must be
done by a supervisor
b. Delegation is giving part of the supervisor’s job to a subordinate
c. A supervisor should delegate only if the supervisor is confident that the subordinate will be
able to handle the task successfully
d. Delegation of duties is an appropriate punitive action

Answer 61

1. D

Question 62

2. Which two of the following tasks would it be appropriate for a supervisor to delegate?
   (p. 3)
   a. Check and sign reports
   b. Getting data for reports
   c. Make out assignments
   d. Make a schedule for inspections

Answer 62

2. B, D

Question 63

3. Supervisors frequently have to deal with people other then their subordinates. Select the
   proper priority order of consideration assuming there is no threat to safety
4. Outsiders: from another agency or unit, civilians
5. Routine contacts with insiders
6. Superiors
7. People who are upset, whether outsiders or insiders
   a. 4, 1, 3, 2
   b. 3, 1, 4, 2
   c. 3, 4, 1, 2
   d. 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer 63

3. C

Question 64

4. Which of the following is not an accurately stated component of the “red hot stove rule”?
   (4.2)
   a. There must be forewarning
   b. Discipline must be immediate
   c. Discipline must be the same for all
   d. Only serious infractions are punished

Answer 64

4. D

Question 65

5. Which is not a decision making process discussed in the bulletin? (p.7)
   a. Traditional
   b. Progressive
   c. Incremental
   d. Procedural

Answer 65

5. B

Question 66

6. Supervisors must deal with logjams using four basic strategies. Which one is incorrectly
   stated? (2.4)
   a. Defer — Put off resolving a problem, no specific action is required. Once issues are
   deferred, the supervisor turns to matters which can be delegated
   b. Delegate — Having a subordinate perform a task
   c. Do — Tasks which the supervisor must do personally
   d. Delay — Involves no action at all for now

Answer 66

6. A

A. Defer: Defer means to deliberately take some action to put off resolving a problem. For
example, a firefighter who wishes to discuss some non-urgent matter may be asked to
agree to put off the matter until later in the day because there is something else the
supervisor needs to do right away. Matters which can be deferred should be deferred
before the supervisor turns to matters which can be delegated or must be done by the
supervisor now.

Question 67

7. Select the incorrect statement about “soft” assignments (2.10)
   a. They should be made on basis of seniority
   b. They should be rotated
   c. They should be used for members recovering from an injury
   d. The should be made available to members with difficult personal problems

Answer 67

7-A

2.10 SOFT ASSIGNMENTS
Most units, at least on occasion, have some “soft” assignments. If at all possible, these
assignments should be rotated. An exception is the situation in which a particular subordinate
needs a soft assignment at the present time because that subordinate is recovering from an
injury, is having difficult personal problems at the moment, or some other special situation. One
should resist making soft assignments on the basis of seniority, since this creates a division
between older and younger members of the work team.
If a task is too much for one person but really too little for two persons:
A. In hazardous assignments, assign two persons.
B. In nonhazardous assignments, assign one person. A major cause of inefficiency is
overstaffing. When overstaffing occurs, personnel know that they do not have to
perform at their individual best level and, in addition, excess individuals impede the
efficiency of those who are doing the work at the moment.

Question 68

8. During a disciplinary interview with FF Smith, Lt. Jones used the following techniques.
   Which is the only correct technique according to TB Management? (p. 22-23)
   a. Lay out all the facts of the issue at the start of the interview
   b. If a question is not answered, don’t probe, simply move on
   c. Quote back exact words to get further detail
   d. Allow the subordinate to speak freely even if they interrupt the supervisor

Answer 68

8. C

The main techniques for holding control over the disciplinary interview are:
1. Do not give away all your information at once.
2. Ask questions. Start with a broad question.
3. Use follow-up questions to probe further. Get very precise details.
4. Keep returning to a question until you get a satisfactory answer.
5. Take notes conspicuously. In your notes quote the other person’s exact words on key
points.
6. Quote back exact words to elicit further detail or reaffirmation.
7. Do not allow yourself to be interrupted.
8. Wait in silence for an answer even if it means a long pause. Repeat the exact question. If
no answer, write down and say aloud as you write it, “Refuses to answer question.”
SITUATIONS FOR ROLE PLAYING: (1) Subordinate drinks or uses drugs. (2)
Subordinate is missing from the assigned job spot. (3) No one else wants to work with
this subordinate. (4) Subordinate is out sick very often (5) Subordinate is careless with
equipment.

Question 69

9. During your first tour as a Lieutenant you are alerted to a heated conflict between two
   subordinates. Both firefighters are senior members and are arguing about a range of topics from
   who gets the “awaiting reliefs” to who decides what the meal will be. Select the incorrect action
   for you to perform (p. 26-27, PA/ID 1-2011, Regs 30.8.6)
   a. If the dispute becomes violent, a WPV-1 must be filed
   b. Separate the members involved in the dispute and have them sit down
   c. Have them quiet down, they should not be “venting” once separated
   d. Don’t be in a rush to warn members and make promises only if you can keep them

Answer 69

9. C

Question 70

10. After operating at a 10-26 you are preparing to leave the scene when the occupant of the
    apartment says she wants to make a complaint. The woman is loud and complaining that she is
    going to “report you to the Mayor”. You would be incorrect to perform which action? (4.9)
    a. Get her name
    b. Give her your name
    c. Use her name repeatedly when speaking with her
    d. Take notes of her comments
    e. Get on the rig and leave since the operation has concluded

Answer 70

10. E