WEEK #2 WEEK OF 1/20/13 PART I – FFP – PD's CH. #6 PART II – AUC #343 - 349 PART III – TB – ELEVATOR OPS Pgs 16 to the end, plus the Addendums 1-A, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, B, 5-D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-A, 10-B, 11-B PART IV – CFR-D, CH. #3 Pgs #1 - 20 1-A, C, 2-E, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A PART V – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH.

Question 1

PART I – FFP – PD’s CH. #6:
1) Please choose the correct lightweight construction description(s) from the list below?
(Section 1.4, 1.5, & 1.6)
A) The strength of a lightweight system is obtained through the interconnection of multiple
structural components providing support in compression only.
B) The decrease in size and mass of the individual structural components will impact the
stability of all other structural components; if one fails, the others may fail as well.
C) In any building construction, the critical area subject to failure as a result of fire is the point
of connection.
D) All of the above.

Answer 1

1. B, C

1.4 In the absence of increased mass, the strength of a lightweight system is obtained through
the interconnection of multiple structural components providing support in compression
and tension. Furthermore, the decrease in size and mass of the individual structural
components will impact the stability of all other structural components; if one fails, the
others may fail as well.
1.5 In any building construction, the critical area subject to failure as a result of fire is the
point of connection.

Question 2

2) In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the
building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within __________. Please
fill in the blank? (Section 1.7)
A) 20 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes

Answer 2

2. C

2) In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the
building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 5 to 10 minutes.
Collapse in lightweight structures can occur suddenly, and with little or no warning signs.
Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials.

Question 3

3) Please choose an incorrect item about fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of
ordinary/wood frame construction from the list below? (Section 1.6)
A) Early collapse is always a primary consideration.
B) Depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and
the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally
estimated to be an hour.
C) When there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components,
failure can occur within 20 minutes.

Answer 3

3. A

Question 4

4) The most important factor to a safe and successful operation at a fire in a building
constructed of lightweight construction is the identification of the presence of lightweight
materials. Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than ______ are generally an
indication that lightweight construction is present. Please fill in the blank? (Section 1.8)
A) 15 feet
B) 20 feet
C) 25 feet
D) None of the above

Answer 4

4. C

4) Older Cast-Iron Lofts, 1840s – 1870s: Maximum 7 to 8 stories in height having front and
rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron. Side exterior walls are of brick construction. Frontage
is usually 25 feet (indicating no interior columns) with depths reaching 90 feet and frontage on
only one street

Question 5

5) Please choose an incorrect general construction deficiency found in private dwellings
constructed of lightweight construction? (Section 2.1.2)
A) Inadequate fire stopping
B) Improperly installed metal gang nails
C) Inadequate bracing
D) Out of plumb structural components
E) Cracked or damaged truss components
F) Unauthorized alterations
G) Protected wood floor joists
6)

Answer 5

5. G

5) A combination of both lightweight and ordinary construction may be used in the same
structure (i.e. renovated private dwellings).

Question 6

6) The most common type of peaked roof found in private dwellings using lightweight
construction is the _______________________. Please fill in the blank? (Section 2.2.5)
A) open-web lightweight wood truss
B) closed-web lightweight wood truss
C) wood I-beams
D) metal c-joist

Answer 6

6. A

6) When a lightweight wood truss peaked roof is exposed to sufficient fire, the rafters (top
chord of the truss), the roof decking, and ceiling joists (bottom chord of the truss) can be
expected to collapse as one complete unit into the structure, exposing firefighters to falling and
burning debris.

Question 7

7) Please choose an incorrect item in regards to Lightweight Parallel Chord Wood Truss?
(Section 3.2)
A) When lightweight wood trusses are exposed to fire, high heat, or prolonged exposure to
water, the gang nails may loosen and fail, causing the entire span of that particular truss section
to fail.
B) The surface-to-mass ratio of the wood trusses provides an abundant fuel source, and the air
supply in the concealed truss void allows for rapid horizontal extension.
C) Due to the open-web characteristic of the truss system, fire which has entered a ceiling
(trussloft) or roof space (cockloft/attic) may likely affect all truss supports on that level, creating
the potential for a large-scale collapse of the area supported by the affected trusses.
D) This type of support system is made up of 2x3” or 2x4” wooden web and chord members,
these members are the weakest point of the support system.
8)

Answer 7

7. D

3.2 Lightweight Parallel Chord Wood Truss
This type of support system is made up of 2x3” or 2x4” wooden web and chord members
connected with sheet metal gusset plates (also referred to as gang nails). Since these
connections only penetrate 1/4” - 1/2” into the wooden truss member, the gang nails are
the weakest point of the support system. When exposed to fire and/or high heat, failure at
the point of connection should be expected before failure of the structural wood components.

Question 8

8) Please choose a correct item in regards to Laminated Wood I-Beams? (Section 3.3)
A) This type of support system is primarily comprised of 1/2” oriented strand board (OSB) or
3/8”- 1/2” plywood web members, and 2x3” or 2x4” wood flanges.
B) The web is fitted and nailed into a routed slot in the top and bottom flanges.
C) In some cases, they may span lengths of over 45 feet, never more than 60 feet.
D) The strength of the beam is a function of the depth of the flange and the mass of the web.
These beams are usually connected to load bearing walls with sheet metal joist hangers.

Answer 8

8. A

3.3 Laminated Wood I-Beams
3.3.1 This type of support system is primarily comprised of 1/2” oriented strand board
(OSB) or 3/8”- 1/2” plywood web members, and 2x3” or 2x4” wood flanges. The
web is fitted and glued into a routed slot in the top and bottom flanges. In some
cases, they may span lengths of over 60 feet. The strength of the beam is a
function of the mass of the flange and the depth of the web. These beams are
usually connected to load bearing walls with sheet metal joist hangers.

Question 9

9) Please choose an incorrect item in regards to Metal C-Joists? (Section 3.4)
A) This type of support system uses lightweight cold-formed steel joists to support the floors
and/or roof.
B) In order to stabilize the building, the joists must be braced with strapping and/or blocking
to prevent them from twisting.
C) Metal C-Joists may come with pre-drilled holes for plumbing and electrical lines.
D) A newer type of C-Joist, with design characteristics similar to laminated wood I-beams, has
larger openings that allows for the easier running of utilities, and the potential for fire and heat
spread is significantly greater.
E) When exposed to fire and/or high heat, these lightweight steel joists will lose strength and
fail rapidly.

Answer 9

9. D

3.4.2 Metal C-Joists may come with pre-drilled holes for plumbing and electrical lines.
(Figure 8) A newer type of C-Joist, with design characteristics similar to
lightweight parallel chord wood truss, has larger openings that allows for the
easier running of utilities, and the potential for fire and heat spread is significantly
greater. (Figure 9) When exposed to fire and/or high heat, these lightweight steel
joists will lose strength and fail rapidly.

9) I-beams are pre-engineered, and may come with openings in the web to accommodate
utilities. In other instances, builders will bore holes in the web for plumbing, electrical lines, and
HVAC ductwork, thus compromising its strength.

Question 10

10) A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor or in the cellar of a private dwelling
accompanied by little or no smoke on the floor or floors above may be an indication of a
concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by _______.
Please fill in the blank? (Section 3.4.3)
A) Lightweight parallel chord truss
B) Laminated wood I-beams
C) Metal C-joists
D) Composite truss

Answer 10

10. C

3.4.3 A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor or in the cellar accompanied by little
or no smoke condition on the floor or floors above may be an indication of a
concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by
C-Joists. The additional dead load may lead to early floor collapse; caution
should be used at fires in buildings with this type of construction.

Question 11

11) “Under fire conditions, the “Space Joist” will not react the same as other lightweight
(wood or metal) trusses.” Please indicate if you agree or disagree with above statement in
quotes? (Section 3.5)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 11

11. A

3.5 Composite Truss
This type of truss system is similar in design to a lightweight parallel chord wood truss,
but comprised of two types of materials: wood and steel. A formed sheet metal web is
attached to 2x3” or 2x4” wood chords with nails or sheet metal gang nails. It is
commercially known as a “Space Joist”.
3.5.1 Under fire conditions, the composite truss will react the same as other lightweight
(wood or metal) trusses, they will lose strength and fail rapidly (Figure 10)

Question 12

12) You are operating at a fire in a private dwelling where lightweight construction is
suspected, you would know that the examination of what voids shall be conducted as soon as
conditions permit? (Section 4.1.2)
A) Wall
B) Floor
C) Ceiling
D) All of the above

Answer 12

12. C

Question 13

13) Once the fire enters the concealed space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can
rapidly travel to remote locations. The Incident Commander (IC) shall immediately be notified.
All members shall be directed not to enter the fire area or areas directly above the fire until the
IC determines the risk of a planned coordinated interior attack. The above statements are
especially true with which of the following construction material(s) listed below?
(Section 4.1.4)
A) Open-web lightweight parallel chord wood trusses
B) Composite trusses
C) Laminated wood I-beams
D) Metal C-joists

Answer 13

13. A, B

Question 14

14) You are conducting a drill on general operations while fighting a fire in a private dwelling
constructed of lightweight materials. Please choose an incorrect statement that you made during
the drill? (Section 4.1.5 to 4.1.8)
A) A Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC) should be used to assist in detecting fire and heat in
concealed spaces. When inspection holes are made, the TIC should be used to determine if any
heat is present in and around metal gusset plates and C-Joists.
B) Units operating above the fire should use caution, since the TIC may not always detect the
intensity of the fire below. In addition, it may not detect heat or fire where double - 5/8”
plasterboard is used.
C) Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in a
lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack. Exterior streams should be
positioned and operated from safe areas outside the collapse zone.
D) When fire is found in a vertical void, the cellar space should be promptly checked for
extension within the limits of safety.

Answer 14

14. D

4.1.8 When fire is found in a vertical void, the cockloft/attic space should be promptly
checked for extension within the limits of safety.

Question 15

15) The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of a private dwelling may be
an indication of a fire in a __________. Please fill in the blank?
A) ceiling where the floor is constructed of wood I-beams
B) ceiling where the floor is constructed of metal C-joist
C) ceiling where the floor is constructed of lightweight parallel chord wood truss
D) None of the above

Answer 15

15. C

15) Brannigan Chapter 12 Trusses - During a fire the presence of truss floors may be disclosed
by smoke showing through the wall at the floor line. This is less likely in a brick veneered
building.

Question 16

16) You are operating as the first due engine officer at a fire in a Private Dwelling with the
following CIDS message:
PD 3 STY 25X60 CL4LW-L/W
WOOD JOIST TRUSS ON ROOF AND
ALL FLRS YEAR BUILT 2008
Please choose an incorrect engine company tactic at this type of fire? (Section 4.2)
A) The positioning of the 1st hose-line for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not
extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.
B) A 2nd hose-line must be positioned to back up the 1st line.
C) When the 2nd line is needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the Incident
Commander (IC) to a location remote from the 1st hose-line, a 3rd hose-line should be
considered as a back-up line.
D) When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with two hoselines,
then an outside operation must be considered.

Answer 16

16. C

4.2.2 A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line. When the 2nd line is
needed to address a potential life hazard or is directed by the IC to a location
remote from the 1st hoseline, a 3rd hoseline must be positioned as a back-up line.
The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a
building constructed of lightweight materials.

Question 17

17) Please choose the correct procedure from the list below? (Section 4.3.8)
A) Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of
lightweight construction.
B) Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked roof building of lightweight
construction, flat roofs using lightweight construction can be cut with extreme caution.
C) Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any flat roof building of lightweight
construction, peaked roofs using lightweight construction can be cut from a Tower Ladder
basket.
D) Under certain circumstances the roof can be cut in a peaked or flat roof building of
lightweight construction.

Answer 17

17. A

4.3.8 Cutting the roof and pushing down the ceiling could expose the cockloft area to
additional heat and fire from the top floor. In addition, a saw cut could sever a
structural member causing the failure of one or more trusses/joists. Therefore,
under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of
lightweight construction.

Question 18

18) When the fire is on the top floor of a building where the roof is constructed using
lightweight materials and there is a clear indication that the fire has not entered the cockloft, roof
operations shall be limited to: (Section 4.3.10)
A) Checking the rear and sides of the building.
B) Venting the top floor windows after coordinating with the IC only, and skylights if present.
C) Inspecting HVAC duct vents for unusual heat.
D) All of the above.
Please choose the most correct answer(s) from the list above?

Answer 18

18. A, C

18) When fire is on the top floor and there are indications that it has extended to the
attic/cockloft, the IC shall be immediately notified, and members shall not be permitted to
operate on the roof. Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or
complete collapse of the roof.

Question 19

19) You are operating as the second ladder company officer at a fire in a private dwelling
constructed of lightweight materials on all the floors and the roof. The fire is on the first floor
and you about to proceed to the second floor, you would know to consider which of the
following prior to proceeding above the fire? (Section 4.4)
A) Location of the fire.
B) Extent of the fire.
C) Presence of a life hazard (known only).
D) Position and progress of the 1st and 2nd hose-lines.

Answer 19

19. A, C, D

4.4 Floor Above Considerations
4.4.1 Before proceeding above the fire floor, members should determine:
 Location, and extent of the fire.
 Presence of a life hazard (known or suspected).
 Position and progress of the 1st and 2nd hoselines.

19) A known life hazard is defined as follows:
A victim can be seen by the rescuer.
A victim can be heard by the rescuer.
A member has information from a credible source or a person at the scene indicating the location
of the life hazard.

Question 20

20) In lightweight constructed buildings, an adjustment in strategy and tactics will be required
when a fire has progressed from a contents fire to a fire involving structural components. Due to
the potential failure and early collapse of these lightweight structural components, a proper riskreward
analysis may determine that a planned coordinated interior attack is not justified. Key
size-up indicators for the Incident Commander include: Please choose the correct size-up
indicator(s) from the list below? (Section 4.6.3)
A) Extent of the fire. (light, medium, heavy)
B) Location of the fire (top floor, cellar, void spaces, etc.)
C) Volume of smoke and fire (light, medium, or heavy)
D) Smoke action (pushing, twisting, or rolling under pressure)
21)

Answer 20

20. All

20) When size-up determines that the fire involves only the contents and has not extended into
the structural components, standard tactics for private dwelling fires are generally appropriate.

Question 21

21) You are performing building inspection when you arrive at a construction site where they
are using normal wood joists (2x8s) to support the floors and the ceiling will be detached from
the floors. Would the construction workers be required to fire stop this type of floor every 500
square feet or this requirement only for laminated wood I-beams? (BISP Manual
chapter 5, reference 14.6)
A) Construction workers are only required to fire stop laminated wood I-beam floors.
B) Construction workers would be required to fire stop laminated wood I-beam floors and
normal wood joists with a detached or attached ceiling.
C) Construction workers would be required to fire stop laminated wood I-beam floors and
normal wood joists with a detached ceiling.
D) None of the above.

Answer 21

21. C

Question 22

PART II – AUC #343 - 349:
1) The Department has implemented a link with Language Line Services to provide
immediate over-the-phone interpretive services for more than 150 languages, 24 hours a day, 7
days a week. This service can be accessed in the following manner: (AUC 343, section 3.1)
A) Department telephones within firehouses or EMS stations.
B) Telephones located within a civilian residence or business.
C) Battalion or Division cell phones.
D) These services may be accessed to provide language interpretation services during routine
services to the public only.
Please choose the incorrect item from the list above?

Answer 22

1. D

Question 23

2) Language Identification Cards have been issued to all units to be carried on the apparatus.
When interacting with a civilian, if a member encounters a language barrier, the member shall:
(AUC 343, section 4.1 & 4.4)
A) Use the Language Identification Card to help identify the language. The Language
Identification Card lists the languages most frequently encountered in New York City.
B) Show your members the language list.
C) A Language Line representative will be able assist in pinpointing the language if it is not
possible to identify the specific language spoken by the civilian.
D) Contact the Language Line Service via telephone.
E) Language Line interpretation services shall be documented on the official Fire Report or
PCR.
Please choose the incorrect procedure from the list above?

Answer 23

2. B

Question 24

Question #3 & 4 are part of the same scenario:
3) You have just arrived as the first due ladder officer at the scene of a box truck that has
crashed into the superstructure of the 59th street bridge, it should be noted that there is a heavy
fire condition coming from the truck. There are no other units on scene, however you quickly
realize that you should utilize the First Responder’s Bridge Manual- Field Guide (green book) in
order to identify any affected structural members. You would also know that you should transmit
an incident assessment report to the Dispatcher using the “Size-up” section of the Field Guide.
The report should include: (AUC 344, section 1.4)
A) What has occurred.
B) The life hazard.
C) The magnitude and location of damage to the truck.
D) Firefighters actions.
E) If the bridge is secured.
Please choose the correct item or items from the list above?

Answer 24

3. A, B, D, E

Question 25

4) Based on the description of damage to the bridge in question 3, the _____________ will
determine whether to implement rescue, evacuation or defensive tactics. Please fill in the blank?
(AUC 344, section 1.5)
A) first due Battalion Chief
B) Deputy Chief
C) Command Chief
D) None of the above

Answer 25

4. C

Question 26

5) Please choose an incorrect Pre-Incident Guideline procedure from the list below?
(AUC 345, section 2 & 3.1)
A) Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be prepared by the administrative company and emailed to
the administrative Battalion for verification and approval as a candidate for a Pre-Incident
Guideline.
B) A regularly assigned Battalion Chief shall accompany the administrative company to the
site in question for review prior to approval.
C) The on-site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time
that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits cannot take place
during daily drill periods or Multi-Unit Drill (MUD).
D) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program.
The FD designation PG must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section.

Answer 26

5. C

Question 27

6) The Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) is a web-based software application accessible via the FDNY
Intranet, requiring FDNY personnel (e.g., Officers, Battalion Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs) to prepare,
print, and submit an electronic version of the BF-4 riding list form. Please choose an incorrect
procedure from the list below in regards to the EBF-4? (AUC 346, section 1 & 2)
A) The EBF-4 shall be completed and printed for each 9x6 and 6x9 tour.
B) Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each
tour.
C) Members awaiting relief shall be included on the Preliminary EBF-4 pending arrival of
details.
D) The Officer only has to update the EBF-4 after all of the details arrive. Upon arrival of all
details, a Final EBF-4 shall be submitted.
E) Only members actually riding on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit
EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for that tour.

Answer 27

6. D

Question 28

7) You are a Company Commander of a ladder company and you want to schedule your unit
for additional training. You have some local infrastructure in your district that is very unique and
you want to perform some additional drills at this location while you remain in service, you
would know that you need to follow which procedure(s) below? (AUC 347, section 1 & 2)
A) The unit or individual initiating the drill request shall complete and forward a Request for
Training Form (TR-1), available on the Intranet, through the chain of command.
B) Once approved through the chain of command, the Borough Command shall email the
Scheduling Unit at the Bureau of Training to ensure there are no scheduling conflicts with units
involved in the drill.
C) Upon confirmation that no scheduling conflicts exist, the Borough Command shall review
and forward the request to the Planning Unit. Final approval shall be granted by the Bureau of
Operations.
D) The Scheduling Unit shall be contacted for any scheduling conflicts or variations to drill
schedules.
E) To ensure a timely response, drill requests shall be received by the Planning Unit at least
fourteen days in advance of the date of the proposed drill.
F) None of the above.

Answer 28

7. F

Question 29

8) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one school trained chauffeur and one
company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit’s second piece, they shall be
guided by the following: Please choose the most correct item from the list below?
(AUC 348, section 3.4)
A) The company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the
officer.
B) The school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another
firefighter.
C) The assigned apparatus and the second piece shall travel as a convoy.
D) All of the above.

Answer 29

8. D

Question 30

9) If a chauffeur is granted leave after the start of a tour, the officer on duty shall:
1. Notify the administrative Battalion Chief.
2. The unit shall remain in service only with a school trained chauffeur from the quarters the
member was working in when the leave was granted.
3. If a school trained chauffeur is required, the Battalion Chief shall detail a school trained
chauffeur from any unit within the battalion to cover the vacancy.
4. If no school trained chauffeur is available from within the battalion, DSCO shall be notified
to detail a school trained chauffeur into the unit to cover the vacancy.
5. If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit will placed out of service.
Please choose the most correct answer? (AUC 348, section 4)
A) 1, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 3, 4

Answer 30

9. D

Question 31

10) Please choose an incorrect safety item from the list below in regards to positive pressure
fans (PPFs)? (AUC 349, section 11)
A) The PPF shall never be transported while in operation.
B) PPFs should be lifted by two members whenever the fans need to come off the ground, e.g.,
on and off apparatus, up stairs.
C) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure, unless absolutely necessary.
D) Fans should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour. Weekly at
MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes.
E) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating
fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.

Answer 31

10. C

Question 32

11) Negative pressurization is the process of creating a lower pressure within a structure
utilizing a ladder company’s electric box fan. Please choose the correct procedure from the list
below when conducting this type of operation? (AUC 349, section 10)
A) The fan shall be operated in the supply mode.
B) A fresh air exhaust shall be established opposite the operating fan.
C) To maximize the efficiency of this operation, the box fan should be low in a window or
doorway.
D) Salvage tarps should be used to create a seal around the operating fan, allowing the exhaust
fan to create an area of positive pressure.
E) An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to
position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and
tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.

Answer 32

11. E

Question 33

12) You are working as an officer in a ventilation support unit when you are special called to a
large commercial fire. Upon your arrival the Incident Commander orders you to use your
positive pressure fans (PPFs) to mechanically ventilate the one story commercial building using
positive pressure. You would know to follow which procedure(s) below? (AUC 349,
section 9)
A) The higher the exhaust opening the better. Having the exhaust opening close to and as high
up as possible to the seat of the fire minimizes the smoke damage to the structure.
B) The fans have to make a seal at the inlet. The fan will be set 4 to 6 feet back, as if they were
being used to pressurize a stairwell.
C) The angle of the fan shroud will remain at 80 degrees.
D) A rule of thumb is that the exhaust opening should be double the size of the opening where
the PPF is placed.
E) Contrary to stairwell pressurization (creating pressure), the objective of mechanical
ventilation is to move as much fresh air as possible into the structure or area.
F) All of the above

Answer 33

12. A, C, D, E

Question 34

13) The sequential ventilation process utilizing positive pressure fans can be implemented
when a building has high levels of CO or other contaminates. The process will begin on the
ground floor or cellar and continue on each floor until the CO is reduced to acceptable levels. If
CO levels are in the ________ ppm range, gasoline powered PPFs will not significantly reduce
those levels due to the CO emissions produced by the fans. Please fill in the blank?
(AUC 349, section 8.2)
A) 0 to 60
B) 9 to 99
C) 100 or greater
D) None of the above, the fans will always reduce CO levels.

Answer 34

13. A

Question 35

14) The unit assigned to respond with the positive pressure fans (PPFs) to an incident location
shall be designated the Ventilation Support Group. Please choose the correct terminology for the
officer and members of this unit? (AUC 349, section 6.1)
A) The officer shall be designated as the “Vent Group Leader”.
B) The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group Lobby Unit”
and the “Vent Group Fire Unit.”
C) The member assigned the roof shall be “Vent Group Roof”.
D) All of the above.

Answer 35

14. B, C

14) If you are an officer working in a Lobby Control Unit or Systems Control Unit you are a
Leader. In ICS - Leaders usually answer to supervisors - who answer to directors - who answer
to section chiefs - who answer to the IC.

Question 36

15) You are working in Ladder 500 and have been assigned as the Vent Support Unit on a 10-
77, upon your arrival you see the following High Rise Fire Proof Multiple Dwelling below and
see visible fire on floor number 7. You report into the Incident Commander who orders you
pressurize the attack stairwell and confirms that the fire floor is floor number 7. You decide that
two fans will be needed for this building and the second fan must be placed on floor number 4,
even though no additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke up to
floor number 10.
Floor # 10
Floor # 9
Floor # 8
Floor # 7
Floor # 6
Floor # 5
Floor # 4
Floor # 3
Floor # 2
Floor # 1
Do you agree or disagree with your decision on the number of fans and where the second fan
needs to be placed at this operation? (AUC 349, section 7.3)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 36

15. D

Question 37

PART III – TB – ELEVATOR OPS Pgs 16 to the end, plus the Addendums:
1) Please choose an incorrect description of a lobby key switch for an elevator bank?
(Section 5.2.1)
A) The key switch is required to be within 2 feet of the lobby call button.
B) The key switch is operated by use of the Fire Department 1620 key, or by city wide
standard elevator 2642 key.
C) Three position key switch - Normal, Firemen Service and door open.
D) Two position key switch - Normal and Firemen Service with a door open button. Door
open button is only operable when the key switch is in the Firemen Service position.
E) The Normal and Firemen Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the
key. The key is not removable in the door open position.

Answer 37

1. A

B. The key switch is required to be within 4 feet of the lobby call button.

Question 38

2) If an elevator car is equipped with a “Hold” position within its keyed switch the “Hold”
position will function in the following ways? (Section 5.2.2)
A) Permits the firefighter to remove the 1620 key from the switch.
B) Allows the firefighter to leave the car without the danger of an individual, without a key,
moving the car to another location.
C) A firefighter with a 1620 key can move the car by changing the switch position from
“Hold” to “Fireman Service”.
D) Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are required to be retro-fitted with a
three position switch, this should be identified on building inspection and DOB should be
notified.

Answer 38

2. D This question should read “which one is incorrect”

2) “C” is correct, however THIS ACTION SHALL NOT BE TAKEN WITHOUT FIRST
INFORMING THE FIREFIGHTERS OPERATING ON THAT FLOOR.

5.2.2 Elevator Car Keyed Switch.
A. Firemen Service keyed switch is provided inside each Firemen Service
elevator car.
B. This switch is identified by red lettering “FOR FIRE DEPARTMENT
USE ONLY” and has two positions. Normal and Firemen Service.
Note: Elevators approved for installation after March 1991 are required to be
equipped with a three position switch:
NORMAL HOLD FIREMAN SERVICE
The Hold Position has the following features:
1. Permits the firefighter to remove the 1620 key from the switch.
2. Allows the firefighter to leave the car without the danger of an individual,
without a key, moving the car to another location.

3. A firefighter with a 1620 key can move the car by changing the switch
   position from HOLD to FIREMAN SERVICE.
   THIS ACTION SHALL NOT BE TAKEN WITHOUT FIRST
   INFORMING THE FIREFIGHTERS OPERATING ON THAT FLOOR.
4. Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are not required to be
   retro-fitted with a three position switch.
   C. To operate the car, the switch must be placed in the Firemen Service
   position while the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is
   located.
   D. The lobby keyed switch must be in the Firemen Service position prior to
   placing the car keyed switch to Firemen Service.
   E. Once the car switch is in the Firemen Service position it can not be
   overridden by the lobby keyed switch.
   F. The 1620 key is not removable from the elevator car keyed switch when it
   is in the Firemen Service position.

Question 39

3) If Phase I (elevator recall) has been initiated before a unit’s arrival and all elevator doors
are closed, units should determine if Phase I was initiated manually or automatically and then be
guided by the following: (Section 5.3.1 (C)(2) & High Rise Office Buildings section 7.2.5)
A) If Phase I was initiated manually the Firemen Service lobby keyed switch will be found in
the Firemen Service position. Place the Firemen Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the
“Normal” (OFF) position. Then return it to the Firemen Service position. This will cause all
elevator car doors in this bank to open.
B) When Phase I is initiated automatically (by lobby smoke detectors, HVAC detectors or
sprinkler water flow), place the lobby keyed switch in the “Door Open” position. The doors of
the Firemen Service cars will then open. In some older installations the doors of the non-Firemen
Service cars will not open and must be opened by use of the emergency hoist-way door key.
Please choose the correct item(s) from the list above?

Answer 39

3. A

Question 40

4) During Phase I (elevator recall) an elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its
lowest landing floor will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors, and
return non-stop to the street lobby or terminal floor. When the elevator car reaches its terminal
floor, one of the following will occur: (Section 5.3.1 (D)(6)
A) All car and hoist-way doors open. The doors remain open for at least 8 seconds and no
more than one minute and then close.
B) All car and hoist-way doors open. The Firemen Service elevator car and hoist-way doors
remain open with the car lights remaining on. Non Firemen Service elevator car and hoist-way
doors close between 8 seconds and one minute after opening.
C) All elevator car and hoist-way doors open and remain open in the Firemen Service cars.
The car lights in the Firemen Service elevator cars remain on and the doors to the Non Firemen
Service cars do not open.
D) All of the above.
Please choose the most correct answer(s)?

Answer 40

4. A

4) Answer “C” as corrected is required for all installations for which plans were filed after
1980.

Question 41

5) You have just arrived as the first due truck officer at a fire in a High Rise Office building.
The Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director provides the following information; “the
location of the fire is on floor number 14 and there is a new access stair serving floors 13 and
14.” The Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director further confirms that these access stairs
are in the fire area and were recently installed, he is in the process of updating the building
information card to reflect there location. You would know that you would be most correct to
take which bank of elevators to which floor location based on the building information card
(BIC) and the information from the Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director?
(Section 6.1.3 & 6.1.4)
A) Elevator bank B to floor number 13.
B) Elevator bank B to floor number 12.
C) Elevator bank B to floor number 11.
D) Elevator bank A to floor number 10.

Answer 41

5. D It’s missing a integral diagram

Question 42

6) Please choose an incorrect operational procedure when using elevators? (Section 6.1)
A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th floor or below units should avoid the use of
elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
B) A service elevator shall not be used until it is declared safe for use by the officer in
command of the fire.
C) There must be a member equipped with a handie-talkie in each car whenever the elevator is
in use.
D) Not more than four members are to be permitted in any elevator car.

Answer 42

6. D

Question 43

7) Please choose the correct operational procedure when using elevators from the list below?
(Section 6.1 & 6.4.3)
A) Elevators should be stopped every seven floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the
elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made.
B) Before leaving the lobby and only at the first and last precautionary stop direct a flashlight
up between the elevator car and the hoist-way shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of
smoke in the elevator shaft.
C) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This should be done at
every precautionary stop. Floor configurations may change.
D) First arriving units should, if possible, initially avoid a Firemen Service elevator which is
capable of stopping at all floors.

Answer 43

7. D

6.1.10 Elevator should be stopped every five floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that
the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must
be made.

6.1.11 Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up
between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any
accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft.

6.1.12 The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be
accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be
posted at each floor near the call button. This should be done at the first and last
precautionary stop. Floor configurations may change.

Question 44

8) The NYC Housing Authority is in the process of installing car door zone locks on all NYC
Housing Authority elevator cars. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards
to these car door zone locks? (Add # 8)
A) The zone lock is a mechanical device which prevents the elevator car door from opening if
the car does not stop level with the floor at the elevator landing.
B) Zone locks are being installed on the outside of the elevator car doors on hinged type and
sliding type doors.
C) In order to disengage Sliding Type Doors; depress the lever to release the zone lock device.
Hinged Type Doors; lift the rod straight up to release the zone lock device.
D) After opening the hoist-way door, the zone lock will be visible on the front side of the
elevator car towards the top of the door.

Answer 44

8. C
9. DISENGAGE ZONE LOCK DEVICE
   • Sliding Type Doors: Lift rod straight up to release the zone lock device.
   • Hinged Type Doors: Depress lever to release the zone lock device.

Question 45

9) A Gal Drop Key is a hand tool used to open ________________ elevator hoist-way doors
to gain access to the elevator shaft or an inoperative elevator car. Please fill in the blank?
(Add # 6)
A) Sliding Type
B) Hinged Type
10)

Answer 45

9. A

Question 46

10) A Gal Vandal Resistant Key is a hand tool used to open “SLIDING TYPE” elevator hoistway
doors to gain access to the elevator shaft or an inoperative elevator car. Please choose an
incorrect procedure from the list below when using this key? (Add # 7)
A) Insert the key into the keyhole until an obstruction is encountered.
B) Turn the key a 1/2 turn to disengage the hoist-way.
C) Open the hoist-way door by pushing away from its leading edge.
D) On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Vandal Resistant Key, attempt to open the hoistway
door by use of the key before restoring to forcible entry.

Answer 46

10. B
11. Use
    2.1 Insert the key into the keyhole until an obstruction is encountered.
    2.2 Turn 1/4 turn to disengage the hoistway.
    2.3 Open hoistway door by pushing away from its leading edge.
    2.4 On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Vandal Resistant Key, attempt to open the
    hoistway door by use of the key before restoring to forcible entry.

Question 47

11) How many emergency elevator keys in the FDNY arsenal are used for swing type doors?
(Elevator Adds)
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

Answer 47

11. B

11) STALEY SWING DOOR KEY, GAL SWING DOOR KEY, GAL ELEVATOR PICK
TOOL, OTIS SWING DOOR KEY. Sliding Type - “Z” TOOL, GAL DROP KEY, GAL
VANDAL RESISTANT KEY. 97 Lt’s test they asked a question to see if you knew that the Gal
Drop key was used on Sliding Type doors.

Question 48

PART IV – CFR-D, CH. #3 Pgs #1 - 20:
1) When a member suspects that they have had a biological exposure (incident) while on duty
or during an off-duty fire or emergency that they have responded to within the City of New
York, the member shall notify their Company Officer as soon as possible. Upon receiving
notification of the exposure incident, the Company Officer shall: (Section 4.2)
A) Review the MD-X3 for accuracy and completeness.
B) Fax only the completed MD-X3 to the Medical Officer on emergency duty through the
Medical Leave Desk and to the OSHA office.
C) If unable to complete transmission of the MD-X3 via fax, call the Bureau of Health
Services.
Please choose the correct procedure(s) from the list above?

Answer 48

1. A, C

1) This bulletin states that the member should complete the MD-X3, however the CIRS
bulletin (S.B. # 7) states the officer does this, potential conflict.

4.2 Upon receiving notification of the exposure incident, the Company Officer/Station
Officer shall:
4.2.1 Direct the member to complete the MD-X3 form.
4.2.2 Review the MD-X3 for accuracy and completeness.
4.2.3 Fax the completed MD-X3 and the respective Prehospital Care Report (PCR) to
the Medical Officer on emergency duty through the Medical Leave Desk at
(718) 999-0035 and to the OSHA office at (718) 784-6546.
4.2.4 If unable to complete transmission of the MD-X3 via fax, call the Bureau of
Health Services at (718) 999-1918.
NOTE: Be prepared to supply all information required by the MD-X3.

Question 49

2) Body Substance Isolation is an approach to infection control whereby all human blood and
all human body fluids are considered potentially infectious; therefore precautions must be taken
to avoid any contact with blood, body fluids, and all other potentially infectious materials. Please
choose the most correct procedure from the list below in regards to body substance isolation?
(Section 12)
A) Members shall wash their hands as soon as possible after the removal of gloves or other
personal protective equipment.
B) Members shall avoid contact with contaminated sharps (contaminated objects that can
penetrate the skin).
C) Eating, drinking, smoking, applying cosmetics or lip balm, and handling contact lenses are
prohibited in work areas where there is a reasonable likelihood of occupational exposure.
D) Members are not permitted to wear sneakers or sneaker type shoes while on duty.
E) All of the above.

Answer 49

2. E

Question 50

3) The hazardous waste (Red Bag) disposal policy for CFR-D Companies is as follows:
(Section 12.16)
A) CFR-D Companies shall drop off Red Bag waste at their CFR-D Depot.
B) Citywide pickups for Red Bag waste shall be at CFR-D Depots.
C) CFR-D Depot Officers shall contact Solid Waste Technologies, Inc. to have the Depot’s
Red Bags picked up for proper disposal.
D) In the event of a missed pick-up of Red Bags, the CFR-D Depot Officer shall contact the
Resource Center. A work order will be generated and automatically sent to the OSHA Unit who
will contact the vendor to expedite pick-up.
E) The CFR-D Depot Officer should retain the work order number until the Red Bags have
been picked up. The Red Bags should be placed outside company quarters until pickup.
Please choose the incorrect procedure from the list above?

Answer 50

3. E

3) No tools, masks, or equipment shall be transported in red bags. Red bags are for disposable
infectious waste items only.

Question 51

4) Infection control personal protective equipment (PPE) shall be worn by members during
those incidents where members could be potentially exposed to blood and other potentially
infectious materials. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below in regards to infection
control PPE? (Section 13)
A) Company Commanders shall insure that all members are aware of the location of the
infection control equipment on the apparatus.
B) Company Officers, at roll call, shall have members check the location of infection control
equipment on the apparatus and the quantity of supplies on hand. A record of this inspection
shall be incorporated in the roll call entry.
C) If the location or status of this equipment changes during the tour, the Officer shall make a
Company Journal entry to this effect.
D) Home laundering of Department issued infection control PPE is permitted.

Answer 51

4. D

Question 52

5) Please choose an incorrect procedure for disposable body bags used by fire suppression
units? (Section 13.10.1)
A) Body bags may be obtained from the Battalion Chief on the scene. If a Battalion Chief is
not on the scene, the Incident Commander shall call a Battalion Chief to the scene.
B) The victim shall be placed in a disposable body bag and as an additional precaution that
bag shall be placed inside another disposable bag.
C) The disposable bags have no handles; they must be placed inside a heavy duty, nondisposable
body bag for transport.
D) When the body is inside the transport vehicle, the outer bag shall be removed.

Answer 52

5. A

13.10 Disposable Body Bags
13.10.1 Fire Suppression Operations Units
A. Disposable body bags shall be available for the transportation of deceased
persons. They may be obtained from the Deputy Chief on the scene. If a
Deputy Chief is not on the scene, the Incident Commander shall call a
Deputy Chief to the scene.

Question 53

PART V – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #4 & 6:
1) When a single building 100 x 200 has a single address, for example; 123 Main Street, and it
fronts on two streets the company officer should prepare how many CIDS entries?
(Comm 4, section 4.4.2)
A) One entry
B) Two entries
C) One entry for the posted address and then determine which additional listed addresses are
applicable and submit the additional CIDS entries if required.
D) None of the above.

Answer 53

1. A
2. Single Building - One Address - When a single building regardless
   of size has a single address, for example, 123 Main St., prepare one
   entry and identify the building as 123 Main St. This provision
   applies even if the building fronts on more than one street.

Question 54

2) When a single building has a multi-number address range listed in the FDNY Building
Information Search or FDNY Map Application, but only has a single address number from
within that range posted on the building, the unit officer should prepare how many CIDS entries?
(Comm 4, section 4.4.2)
A) One entry
B) Two entries
C) One entry for the posted address and then determine which additional listed addresses are
applicable and submit the additional CIDS entries if required.
D) Three

Answer 54

2. C

2) Buildings with more than one Legal Address or AKA are also processed in the same
fashion.

2. Single Building – Multi-Number Address Range Posted - When a
   single building has its address posted as 100-110 Main St., for
   example, a CIDS entry must be made for each applicable address
   number listed within the multi-number address range. The
   combined number 100-110 should also be included in the
   “Transmitted Data” portion of each CIDS entry. To verify all
   possible addresses, the preparing officer shall utilize the FDNY
   BIS. For example, for the address 100-110 Main St. enter 100
   Main St. into the FDNY BIS. This search will provide all
   addresses associated with the same BIN number as 100 Main St.

Question 55

3) After inspecting a building complex in your area you return to the firehouse. You decide to
enter CIDS information on the three buildings found within the complex that have separate
posted addresses of 81, 83, and 85 Main Street. It should be noted that after checking the FDNY
Building Information Search 85 Main Street has an AKA associated with that building
identification number. How many of the following CIDS entries should be prepared by you for
this complex? (Comm 4, section 4.4.2)
A) One
B) Three
C) Four
D) None of the above.

Answer 55

3. C
4. Interconnected, Attached Buildings & Complexes - Separate
   Addresses - When interconnected buildings, attached buildings or
   building complexes have a separate house number for each
   building, a separate CIDS entry must be submitted or revised for
   each address.
   EXAMPLE: If a complex is identified as 81-85 Main St., but is a
   series of 3 separate buildings with separate house numbers (81, 83,
   85 Main St), a CIDS entry would be submitted or revised for 81,
   83, and 85 Main St., with the “Transmitted Data” portion of each
   CIDS entry indicating the number of buildings in the complex.
   Note: The submitting officer shall utilize the FDNY BIS to verify each
   address number in that range by entering it separately into the
   application. Any applicable address number or AKA associated
   with each individual BIN number will require a separate CIDS
   entry.

Question 56

4) Many newly constructed or renovated buildings do not conform to the construction
classifications of the 1938 building code and are constructed using Light-Weight Construction
Materials. To assist in identifying these structures, 3 additional construction classifications have
been added for use as follows: (Comm 4, section 4.4.2)
A) A building constructed of metal “C” joist or steel bar joist would be classified as a CL2LW.
B) A Class 3 building renovated or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight
materials would be classified as CL3LW.
C) A wood frame building using wood truss construction or laminated I beams would be
classified as CL4LW.
D) All of the above.
Please choose the most correct classifications from the list above?

Answer 56

4. D

To assist in identifying these structures, 3 additional construction
classifications have been added for use as follows:
 A building constructed of metal “C” joist or steel bar joist
would be classified as a CL2LW.
 A Class 3 building renovated or repaired using any type
of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified
as CL3LW
 A wood frame building using wood truss construction or
laminated I beams would be classified as CL4LW.
 A detailed description of the construction material or
construction techniques used would be included in the
transmitted data portion of the CIDS card.
 LW after the construction classification should prompt
the reader to consult the “transmitted data” for specific
information on the type of Light-Weight Construction
Materials used.
 If submitting or approving officers deem necessary, and
space allows, the date the building was constructed or
altered can also be included within the “transmitted data”
to provide insight into the construction techniques used.
EXAMPLE: PD 3 STY 25X60 CL4LW-L/W WOOD
JOIST TRUSS ON ROOF AND FLOORING
ALL FLRS YEAR BUILT 2008

Question 57

5) Please choose an incorrect procedure when submitting an immediate CIDS entry for an
imminently hazardous condition? (Comm 4, section 4.3.3)
A) The administrative unit shall complete a CIDS entry using the “Blank CD-201” form link
located within the eCIDS application.
B) The completed paper form (CD-201) shall be faxed via the chain of command with all
endorsements to the Borough Commander or Command Chief.
C) Once approved, the Borough Commander or Command Chief will fax the form to the Fire
Department Operations Center (FDOC) for immediate entry into both Star-fire and the eCIDS
application.
D) The unit officer is still required to complete a CIDS entry within the eCIDS application for
an “immediate CIDS” after the hard copy is faxed.

Answer 57

5. D

4.3.3 Immediate Entry (Imminently Hazardous Condition)
Immediate entry of an imminently hazardous condition can be accomplished by
the Borough Commander or Command Chief on duty. The administrative unit
shall complete a CIDS entry using the “Blank CD-201” form link located within
the eCIDS application. This completed paper form shall be faxed via the chain of
command with all endorsements to the Borough Commander or Command Chief.
Once approved, the Borough Commander or Command Chief will fax the form to
the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) for immediate entry into both
Starfire and the eCIDS application. No action is necessary by the unit officer
within the eCIDS application for an “immediate CIDS”. The immediate CIDS
message entered into eCIDS by FDOC will appear on the administrative units
pending list awaiting the next scheduled permanent export into Starfire.

Question 58

6) You are responding as the 4th ladder company on a 10-75 where the two initial ladder
companies reported having only four firefighters, you would know that you would be assigned to
which duty listed below? (Comm 6, section 6.9)
A) Additional truck for fire duty.
B) Fast Truck

Answer 58

6. B

6.9 RESPONSE POLICY
The following guidelines for response policy are indicated below:
6.9.1 Ladder Companies with 4 Firefighter Staffing
 An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a
10-75 when both of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report
responding with 4 firefighters.
 The additional Ladder Company shall be the 3rd Ladder Company, and the 4th
Ladder Company shall be designated as the Fast Truck.

Question 59

7) You are responding on a structural phone alarm as the first due engine officer when you
hear the first two ladder companies state they are responding understaffed, you would now
expect to be operating with how many ladder companies on the initial alarm? (Comm
6, section 6.9)
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) One

Answer 59

7. C

6.9.2 Understaffed Units
 When notified that a company is responding understaffed (less than four
firefighters), the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine,
Ladder for Ladder, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit.
Note: Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not
exceed a total response of:
(4) Engine Companies and (4) Ladder Companies

Question 60

8) The VERBAL button on the PC/ATS should be used only if the alarm is within ________
of a unit’s quarters in any direction. Please fill in the blank? (Comm 6, section 6.5.1)
A) two blocks
B) one block
C) four blocks
D) three blocks

Answer 60

8. A

Note: The VERBAL button on the PC/ATS should be used only if the alarm is
within two blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction. If the alarm is more
than two blocks away, the unit should respond and give information and
location via radio.

Question 61

9) During periods of inordinately heavy fire traffic, or when an emergency exists which
impacts on one or more borough communications offices, the normal response to alarms must be
adjusted and a FALLBACK Response Mode established. FALLBACK consists of three Steps:
(Comm 6, section 6.4.2)
A) Step 1: Discontinues single Engine response to Contact ERS boxes between 2300 and 0800
hours.
B) Step 2: Requires the dispatch of one Engine Company to all electromechanical boxes.
C) Step 3: Requires the dispatch of two Engines, one Ladder, and a Battalion Chief to all
reported incidents requiring a structural response (telephone/ERS).
Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list above?

Answer 61

9. A

9) All boroughs are in FALLBACK Step 1, on a daily basis from 0800 to 2300 hours.

6.4.2 “FALLBACK” Definitions
FALLBACK consists of three Steps:
A. Step 1: Discontinues single Engine response to NO-Contact ERS boxes
between 2300 and 0800 hours.
B. Step 2: Requires the dispatch of one Engine Company to all
electromechanical boxes.
C. Step 3: Requires the dispatch of two Engines, one Ladder, and a Battalion
Chief to all reported incidents requiring a structural response
(telephone/ERS). If information received indicates the need for a greater
response, the dispatcher may send a full first alarm assignment.
NOTE: FALLBACK procedure may be instituted step-by-step, with time
allowed for observation between steps; or, Step 2 or 3 could be opted for at
the outset with Step 2 including Step 1; and Step 3 including Steps 1 and 2.

Question 62

10) If there is no contact with the caller on an ERS box between 0800 and 2300 hours, there is
no response. If there is no contact between 2300 and 0800 hours, one Engine is required to
respond. You would know that the Engine responding on a ERS no contact between 2300 and
0800 hours should respond in which mode listed below? (Comm 6, section 6.2.4 &
ABC 2-2011, section 2.1)
A) Emergency Mode
B) 10-20 Mode

Answer 62

10. B