The Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the Central Nervous System?

A
  • Brain
  • Spinal Cord
    (within the skull and vertebral column)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the components of the Peripheral Nervous System?

A
  • Nerves
    (connects the CNS to the other tissues in the body)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the brain?

A
  • Occipital
  • Temporal
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How heavy is the brain?

A

1.5kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves?

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do cranial nerves control?

A

control functions of face and special senses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where do cranial nerves arise from?

A

arise from the brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do spinal nerves control?

A

control functions of head, neck, arms, legs, thorax and internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where do spinal nerves arise from?

A

arise from the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long is the spinal cord (approx.)?

A

approximately 45cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a bundle of neurones together in the PNS make?

A

a nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the brain communicate with the body?

A

The brain sends and receives information to and from the body via the nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are examples of neurotransmitters?

A
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Acetylcholine
  • Substance P
  • Glutamate
  • GABA
  • Histamine
  • Endorphins
  • Adrenaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give (5) examples of uses of the nervous system

A
  • movement
  • sensation
  • memory
  • balance
  • language
  • behaviour
  • aging
  • sleep
  • sweating
  • hormone control
  • healing and immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are signs of neurological injury or illness?

A
  • Weakness
  • Sensory loss/changes
  • Reduced co-ordination
  • Reduced proprioception
  • Altered balance
  • Visual field loss
  • Hearing impairment
  • Altered speech
  • Unable to swallow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are symptoms of neurological injury or illness?

A
  • Double vision
  • Hearing loss
  • Pins and needles
  • Numbness
  • Pain (but not always!)
  • Weakness
  • Memory problems
  • Odd behaviour
  • Mood changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of Peripheral nerve disorders?

A
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Sciatica
  • Trauma
  • Erb’s palsy
  • Neuropathy
  • Guillian Barre Syndrome
  • MND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some examples of Central nervous disorders?

A
  • Stroke
  • Head injury
  • Meningitis
  • Cerebral palsy
  • MND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some examples of neurodegenerative disease?

A
  • Parkinson’s
  • Huntington’s
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Prion disease
  • Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)
  • Spino-Cerebellar Ataxia (SCA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some examples of neuropsychiatry disorders?

A
  • Seizures
  • Anxiety
  • Neurocognitive impairment
  • Neuropathic Pain (migrane)
  • Mania
  • Physical Disability
  • Addiction
  • Epilepsy
  • Mood disorder (aggression and violence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the purpose of the somatic nervous system?

A

guides your voluntary movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of the autonomic nervous system?

A

regulates the activities you do without thinking about them (involuntary movements).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the name of the specialist receptor that connects the nervous system to the muscles?

A

motor end plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Spinal nerves connect the nervous system to what?

A

the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a nerve plexus?

A

a network of intersecting nerves that supply the same part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the different Plexi?

A
  • Cervical
  • Brachial
  • Lumbar
  • Sacral
  • Coccygeal
  • Autonomic (serving internal organs and GI tract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What area does the Cervical Plexus supply?

A

Head, Neck + Shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are (4) nerves in the sensory branch of the Cervical Plexus?

A
  • Greater Auricular Nerve
  • Transverse Cervical Nerve
  • Lesser Occipital Nerve
  • Supraclavicular Nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What area does the Brachial Plexus supply?

A

Chest, Shoulders, Arms and Hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the branches of the Brachial Plexus?

A
  • Musculocutaneous nerve supplies
  • Axillary nerve supplies
  • Median nerve supplies
  • Ulnar nerve supplies
  • Radial nerve supplies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Neuropraxia?

A

Local myelin damage with the nerve still intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Axonotmesis?

A
  • Continuity of axons is lost.
  • Endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium can remain intact.
  • Loss of continuity of axons with Wallerian degeneration due to disruption of axoplasmic flow.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Neurotmesis?

A

Complete physiological disruption of entire nerve trunk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What areas do the lumbar plexus supply?

A
  • Back
  • Abdomen
  • Groin
  • Thighs
  • Knees
  • Calves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the (6) branches of the lumbar plexus?

A
  • Iliohypogastric
  • Ilioinguinal
  • Genitofemoral
  • Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
  • Obturator nerve
  • Femoral nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What areas do the sacral plexus supply?

A
  • Pelvis
  • Buttocks
  • Genitals
  • Thighs
  • Calves
  • Feet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the (5) branches of the sacral plexus?

A
  • Superior gluteal nerve supplies
  • Inferior gluteal nerve supplies
  • Sciatic nerve (L4-S3) supplies
  • Posterior femoral cutaneous
  • Pudendal nerve supplies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ganglion.

A

Collection of cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fasciculus.

A

Cluster of axons forming a recognisable bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Funiculus.

A

Bundle of axons forming a raised bump on the surface of the CNS (especially in the spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tract.

A

Cluster of axons with similar functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Nucleus.

A

Cluster of cell bodies with similar functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the large divisions of the brain?

A
  • Brainstem
  • Diencephalon
  • Cerebellum
  • Cerebral Hemispheres/Cerebrum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the brainstem comprised of?

A
  • Medulla
  • Midbrain
  • Pons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the source of the cranial nerves?

A

the brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the role of the brainstem?

A

Control autonomic functions:
- Breathing
- Heart rate
- Level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Many descending pathways of the brainstem decussate (cross over) in what?

A

the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the diencephalon composed of?

A
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Epithalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the roles of the diencephalon?

A
  • Integration of sensory info
  • Interpretation of pain
  • Some role with hormone release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is the cerebellum attached to the brainstem?

A

via 3 peduncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the cerebellum involved in?

A

maintaining balance + control

53
Q

What are the (4) lobes of the cerebrum?

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Occipital
  • Temporal
54
Q

What are sulci (cerebrum)?

55
Q

What are gyri (cerebrum)?

A

wrinkled with hillocks

56
Q

Which fissure separates the 2 hemispheres?

A

central or longitudinal fissure

57
Q

What white matter structure connects the 2 hemispheres?

A

the corpus callosum

58
Q

What is the name of the groove between the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

central sulcus or fissure of Rolando

59
Q

What are deep sulci?

59
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Some aspects of movement
  • Behaviour
  • Emotion
  • Higher executive function
  • Expressive speech
59
Q

What is the supplementary motor area involved in?

A

preparation of self-initiated movement

60
Q

What is the name of the fissure between the temporal and frontal lobes?

A

Sylvian fissure

60
Q

What is the role of the premotor cortex?

A

role in the preparation of sensory triggered movement and guiding complete behavioural acts

60
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

61
Q

What is the primary motor cortex responsible for?

A

actual execution of movement

61
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Language
  • Sensation
  • Perception of space
61
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A
  • Hearing
  • Expressive speech
  • Memory
62
Q

What is the somatosensory cortex involved in?

A

complex processing of sensory info

63
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

approx. T12

64
Q

What is the spinal cord comprised of?

A
  • Ascending sensory tracts
  • Descending motor tracts
65
Q

What is the meninges made up of?

A
  • Dura mater (dural sheath)
  • Arachnoid mater
  • Pia mater
66
Q

Hemianopia

A

loss of half the visual field

67
Q

What lobe is the somatosensory cortex in?

A

the parietal lobe

68
Q

How many lobes are there in a brain?

69
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

interpretation of vision

70
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A
  • Balance
  • Co-ordination
  • Proprioception
71
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

quality of movement

72
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A
  • Movement
  • Higher executive function
73
Q

How many neurons are there in the brain?

A

approx. 86 billion

74
Q

Cell body.

A

Contains nucleus and all the things needed to sustain the metabolic activity of the neuron

75
Q

Dendrites.

A
  • Processes of cell membrane radiating from cell body in various directions
  • Predominantly receive information and send it to the cell body
76
Q

Axons

A
  • Long tubular extension of the cell membrane and cytoplasm
  • Extends towards atarget
  • Sends information away from the cell body
77
Q

Plasmalemma.

A

Semipermeable membrane of the neuron

78
Q

Neurons.

A

Convey information by conducting electrical signals (action potentials)
– but use chemical information to pass messages from one neuron to the next (synapse)

79
Q

Nerve fibre.

A

the axon + surrounding Schwann cell

80
Q

Nodes of Ranvier.

A

junctions between Schwann cells

81
Q

Oligodendrocytes.

A

specialist cells that perform myelination in the CNS

82
Q

Schwann cells.

A

specialist cells that perform myelination in the PNS

83
Q

Myelin.

A

lipid (fatty) sheath that wraps around axons

84
Q

Unipolar

A

Autonomic nervous system:
- one single process
- axon emerges from cell body and branches into dendrites.

85
Q

Bipolar.

A

Functionally specialised sensory cells.
- Two processes form from the cell body, one an axon that carries information to CNS, dendrites that convey information from periphery.

86
Q

Psuedounipolar.

A

Certain sensory cells (i.e. touch or stretch).
- Bi-polar which fuses to form one axon from cell body
- One branch goes to periphery (to sensory receptors)
- Other to spinal cord

87
Q

Multipolar.

A

Predominate form in our nervous system.
- Single axon, and typically many dendrites around cell body.
- Number dendrites correlates with number of synaptic connections

88
Q

What does the distribution of Na+ and K+ lead to (in a neuron)?

A

an electrical gradient across the plasmalemma (greater +ve charge outside)

89
Q

Depolarisation (at the post synaptic plasmalemma).

A

more +ve ions cross into the neuron (making the inside more +ve)

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

90
Q

Hyperpolarisation (at the post synaptic plasmalemma).

A

less +ve ions to cross into the neuron (inside more -ve)

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

91
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).

A

More +ve ions tocross into the neuron (making the inside more +ve)
– Depolarisation

92
Q

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

A

Less +ve ions to cross into the neuron (making theinside more-ve)
– Hyperpolarisation

93
Q

Temporal Summation.

A

if lots ofExcitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arriveone after the other in quick successionthis increases the neteffect

94
Q

Spatial Summation.

A

multipleExcitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arriveat different locations on the dendriteincreases the net effect

95
Q

When are action potentials able to occur?

A

If there’s enough Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)
- and outweighs the Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) to give a net depolarisation

96
Q

How do Na+ channels closing & K+ channels opening affect membrane potential?

A

Becomes more -ve

(no further Na+ enters the axon hillock and K+ exits the hillock)

97
Q

What happens when a cell is hyperpolarised?

A

K+ channels to close and the cell then reverts to its resting potential

98
Q

How does hyperpolarisation occur?

A

moreK+ leaves the hillock than Na+ has entered so thepotential overshoots

99
Q

Absolute refactory period

A

immediately after peakNa+ conductance theNa+ channels areinactive
- so noNa+ ions can move in or out and the hillock cannot fire another action potential

100
Q

Relative refactory period

A

Immediately after peak K+ conductance as the Na+channelsbecome active and theplasmalemma repolarises.
- to set up an action potential requires more stimulus than when in the resting state

101
Q

What is the speed of propagation dependent on?

A
  • Diameter of axon (larger = faster conduction)
  • Presence of myelin (concentrates K+ and Na+ channels in nodes so increased conduction velocity)
102
Q

When an action potential arrives at an axon terminal/presynaptic process what happens?

A

Ca++ channels open
so calcium floods into the bouton

103
Q

What does an increase in Ca++ lead to?

A
  • Synaptic vesicles dock and fuse with axon terminal membrane
  • The vesicles remain fused to the membrane until the Ca++ concentration has increased to a critical point
  • At this point the vesicle fuses into the membrane and releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
  • Retrieves new vesicles from a storage area so that the process can be repeated.
104
Q

What are (3) possible causes of injury to the nervous system?

A
  • Direct injury to neuron(s)
  • Disruption to neural function due to indirect effects of injury (decreased blood flow, oedema, cerebral metabolism, CSF)
  • Synaptic loss from damaged neuron cascades that cause degeneration of neighbouring neurons (leading to further damage)
105
Q

Describe Wallerian Degeneration (PNS).

A
  • Trophic degenerationof the neuron at site of lesion and travels distally from cell body
  • Swelling andgranulation
  • Lasts for3-4 days
  • Myelindegenerates too
  • Growth factorspromote thegrowth of axonal buds
  • Regenerationbegins to occur at7 days
  • Growth occurs at1-4mm a day
  • Processoccurs alongsiderestoration of the Schwanncells
106
Q

Describe the affect of Diaschisis & Oedema on the nervous system.

A
  • Temporary disruption of neural function (due to shock of injury or disease)
  • This can occur locally to the injury or at some distance (due to altered metabolism and reduction of blood flow)
  • Oedema is common around the brain following injury
  • Can be local or remote
  • Can be significant enough to block neural conduction
  • Some function is restored when diaschisis and oedema settle
107
Q

What are the (6) mechanisms of plasticity?

A
  • Denervation
    Supersensitivity
  • Unmasking of silent synapses
  • Synaptogenesis
  • Collateral sprouting
  • Short- and long- term potentiation
  • Cortical remapping
108
Q

When does Denervation Supersensitivity occur?

A

when there’s a loss of input from another area of the brain

109
Q

Describe Denervation Supersensitivity?

A

The post synaptic membrane becomes more sensitive to the release of neurotransmitter

110
Q

Describe the unmasking of silent synapses.

A
  • During recovery previously unused synapses are recruited
  • Suggests the existence of structural synapses in the brain that are not normally functional due to competition
111
Q

How long does Synaptogensis (Regenerative) take following injury?

A

Occurs within 3-7 days of injury

112
Q

What happens during Collateral Sprouting (reactive synaptogenesis)?

A

Neighbouring, uninjured axons sprout to innervate synaptic sites previously activated by the injured neuron

113
Q

What is short-term potentiation?

A
  • A change in the performance or output of a synapse in the short term
  • An increase in synaptic strength due to increase in neurotransmitter production and/or altered post synaptic receptors
114
Q

What is long-term potential (LTP)?

A
  • Change in the performance or output of a synapse in the long term
  • Related to increase in pre-synaptic neurotransmitter release + structural change of the post-synaptic structure
  • Related to spatial + temporal summation (LTP occurs with high frequency stimulation or pairing of stimulation)
    This is how we learn!
115
Q

What is Cortical Remapping?

A

Areas of brain cortex are modifiable by sensory input, experience and learning (as well as response to injury)

116
Q

When may cortical remapping/reorganisation not be possible?

A

when large areas are damaged

117
Q

What can cortical remapping be influenced by?

118
Q

What may aid recovery of function (Cortical Remapping)?

A

Ipsilateral motor pathways (uncrossed)

119
Q

What enhances/effects neuroplasticity?

A
  • Use dependent and specific
  • Repetition or practice at intensity
  • Early intervention is better (first 12 weeks)
  • Salience, motivation, feedback and attention
  • Environment (sensory, cognitive, social and motor)
  • Age, genetics, pharmacology, size of lesion and stress
  • Adjunct therapies can prime the motor system to enhance neuroplasticity
120
Q

What are the clinical implications of neuroplasticity?

A
  • Multiple pathways innervating our motor + sensory cortices
  • Dominant pathways show functional activity
  • If these are lost, the less dominant pathways can become functional
  • Experience + use are important in ensuring these less dominant pathways become functional in the short- and long-term
121
Q

Describe Transneuronal degeneration.

A
  1. Axotomy: axon of a neuron is cut.
  2. Anterograde Degeneration: distal portion of damaged neuron degenerates.
  3. Retrograde Degeneration: proximal portion of damaged neuron may degenerate.
  4. Transneuronal Degeneration: neurons that synapsed on the damaged neuron may degenerate.