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Apex Review > Professional issues > Flashcards

Professional issues Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse anesthetist in middle management submits written complaints to a state board about several other CRNAs that is false and defamatory. Which AANA document could be applied to this situation?
A. Code of ethics
B. Practice guidelines
C. Practice standards
D. Position statements.

A

A. Code of ethics

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2
Q

________ dictates the principles of conduct and professional integrity that guide the decision-making & behavior of nurse anesthetists.

A

AANA code of ethics

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3
Q

_______ are authoritative statements that describe minimum rules and responsibilities for which anesthetists are held accountable.

A

Practice standards

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4
Q

________ are systematically developed statements to assist providers in clinical decision making that are commonly accepted within the anesthesia community.

A

Practice guidelines

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5
Q

__________express the AANA’s official positions or beliefs on practice-related topics. They may also define the knowledge, skills and abilities considered necessary for a nurse anesthetist.

A

Position statements

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6
Q

The AANA code of ethics also

A

Speaks to the CRNA’s responsibility to society, endorsement of products or services, research integrity, and responsibility to patients and competence

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7
Q

The use of unnecessary invasive pre operative testing is most likely to put the provider in violation of the principle of:

A

Nonmaleficence

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8
Q

Commonly accepted principles of healthcare ethics include

A

justice
beneficence
respect for autonomy
nonmaleficence

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9
Q

Healthcare ethics comprise the set of ______________ that guide how decisions are made in healthcare.

A

moral principles, beliefs, and values

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10
Q

Define respect for autonomy.

A

means that providers must respect and abide by decisions made by competent patients

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11
Q

Define nonmaleficence.

A

A provider has an obligation not to inflict hurt or harm.

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12
Q

Define beneficence.

A

The provider should act for the benefit of others

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13
Q

Define justice.

A

People under similar circumstances and conditions should be treated alike

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14
Q

Informed consent for anesthesia should include:
a. description of the recommended type of anesthetic
b. agreement to undergo the scheduled surgery/procedure
c. risks and benefits of each type of appropriate anesthetic
d. patient preferences, questions, and fears

A

C & D

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15
Q

What are the six elements of informed consent?

A

competence
decision-making capacity
disclosure of information
understanding of disclosed information
voluntary consent
documentation

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16
Q

When can the anesthesia provider recognize “implied consent”

A

In an emergency, when immediate treatment is required, and the patient is unconscious or unable to consent

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17
Q

In an emergency, informed consent

A

should be sought from family members or legal decision makers as soon as possible even with implied consent recognized

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18
Q

Describe four examples of persons who require special assistance

A

hearing impaired
cognitive impairment
visual impairment
limited English proficiency

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19
Q

_________ may be allowed to translate only in an emergency

A

Family members

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20
Q

A patient has a right to refuse

A

medical treatment or therapy

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21
Q

In an elective case, a provider has no ethical obligation to provide

A

inappropriate care or care associated with unreasonably high risks

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22
Q

______ is when minor children are included in the informed consent discussion, and their agreement should be sought.

A

Assent

23
Q

What element of informed consent is “the patient must demonstrate understanding”?

A

understanding of disclosed information

24
Q

What element of informed consent is “the patient consents in the absence of coercion or distress”?

A

voluntary consent

25
Q

What element of informed consent is “the medical record must contain documentation of the informed consent”?

A

documentation

26
Q

What element of informed consent is “the patient has the legal authority to consent”?

A

competence

27
Q

What element of informed consent is “the patient has the ability to decide about specific anesthesia care”?

A

decision making capacity

28
Q

What must an anesthesia provider do to obtain informed consent for epidural placement in a parturient who recently received 50 mg of meperidine?
a. review the efficacy of current pain management
b. document the patient’s dilation, effacement, and station
c. Determine that the patient has sufficient capacity
d. perform detailed obstetrical history and physical exam

A

C. determine that the patient has sufficient capacity

29
Q

Obstetric patients receiving regional anesthesia should always be

A

consented for a general anesthetic

30
Q

State law and facility policies should be consulted when a __________ is receiving obstetrical services.

A

Minor

31
Q

In a case of maternal-fetal conflict, the provider’s respect for

A

maternal autonomy may oppose the principle of beneficence in promoting the well-being of the mother and the fetus

32
Q

Parturients and their families need to be informed that the timing of labor analgesia is variable and dependent upon

A

labor progress, fetal status, consultation with the obstetrician, and anesthesia service availability

33
Q

Parturients should be reassured that if regional analgesia is delayed due to an emergency, ______________________ will be available until the anesthesia provider can attend to the patient.

A

alternative pain management

34
Q

What should occur if there is a maternal-fetal conflict?

A

The anesthesia provider should keep communication with the mother open and non-coercive while procuring an ethics consultation, referencing hospital policy, and reviewing state law

34
Q

What should occur if there is a maternal-fetal conflict?

A

The anesthesia provider should keep communication with the mother open and non-coercive while procuring an ethics consultation, referencing hospital policy, and reviewing state law

35
Q

A terminal cancer patient with a “do not resuscitate” order presents for a port-a-cath placement. Which standard of nurse anesthesia practice has the most immediate relevance to the anesthetist’s preoperative activities?
a. standard 2 on thorough preoperative assessment and evaluation
b. standard 3 on plan for anesthetic care
c. standard 4 on informed consent and related anesthesia services
d. standard 13 on wellness

A

c. standard 4 on informed consent and related anesthesia services

36
Q

An advanced directive is a

A

legally binding document that delineates the patient’s wishes regarding healthcare interventions in the case of incapacity and/or delegates the authority to make healthcare decisions to another party

37
Q

____________- should be reconsidered before anesthesia is administered.

A

Advanced directives
this can lead to full suspension, partial suspension, or no suspension

38
Q

Just as informed consent must be documented, the __________________________ discussion must also be documented

A

the reconsideration of advance directives discussion

39
Q

Who does the AANA recommend to be present when discussing changes in advance directives during the informed consent process?

A

the patient, family, and health care team

40
Q

Identify the standards of care that have been published by the American Association of Nurse Anesthetists. (select 3).
a. wellness
b. infection control and prevention
c. chronic pain management
d. latex allergy management
e. transfer of care
f. mass casualty incident preparedness

A

a. wellness
b. infection control and prevention
e. transfer of care

41
Q

The term ____________ refers to any sort of professional misconduct.

A

malpractice

42
Q

The term ____________ refers to any sort of professional misconduct.

A

malpractice a

42
Q

The term ____________ refers to any sort of professional misconduct.

A

malpractice a

43
Q

The term ____________ refers to any sort of professional misconduct.

A

malpractice

43
Q

In a negligence or malpractice claim, the patient (plaintiff) must proof four things:

A

duty
breach of duty
causation
damages

43
Q

Duty means that

A

the anesthesia provider had a duty to the patient

43
Q

Breach of duty means that

A

the provider failed to fulfill their duty

44
Q

Causation means

A

a close causal relationship existed between the provider’s acts and the patient’s injury

45
Q

Damages means

A

that actual damage was the result of a breach in the standard of care

46
Q

___________ is defamation in the verbal form.

A

Slander

47
Q

__________ is defamation in the written form.

A

Libel

48
Q

If you publicly disclose private facts about a patient (even if those facts are true), then you may have

A

defamed the patient’s character and violated the HIPPA

49
Q

Res ipsa loquitur means that

A

“the thing speaks for itself” and can shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant

Apex Review (224 decks)

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