ANS pharmacology & pathophysiology 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is NOT a competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine?
a. atropine
b. nicotine
c. scopolamine
d. glycopyrrolate

A

b. nicotine

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2
Q

Cholinergic agonists mimic the actions of

A

ACh but differ in their nicotinic and muscarinic activities

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3
Q

Muscarinic antagonists like atropine are

A

competitive inhibitors of ACh at parasympathetic muscarinic receptors

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4
Q

Side effects of muscarinic antagonists include

A

tachycardia
dry mouth
decreased GI motility
bronchodilation

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5
Q

A common self-administered cholinergic agonist is

A

nicotine

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6
Q

Ganglia of __________ are activated by nicotine

A

the SNS and PNS

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7
Q

In the CV system, nicotine’s effects lead to

A

unopposed sympathomimetic activity causing the vascular tone to increase

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8
Q

Other examples of cholinergic agonists include

A

methacholine
bethanachol
carbamychloline
pilocarpine

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9
Q

Methacholine is used as a provocative agent to identify

A

reactive airway disease in those who do not have clinically apparent signs of asthma

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10
Q

Methacholine evokes

A

bronchoconstriction
increases airway secretions
impairs peak expiratory flow rates via M3

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11
Q

Bethanachol is relatively selective for

A

M3 receptors in the GI and urinary tracts and is used to treat nonobstructive urinary retention in the perioperative period

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12
Q

Carbamylcholine and pilocarpine produce

A

miosis and have applications in treating glaucoma

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13
Q

What is the specificity of atropine, glycopyrrolate, and scopolamine?

A

little to no muscarinic subtype specificity

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14
Q

Low does atropine (<0.1 mg) may cause or worsen

A

bradycardia by blocking presynaptic M1 receptors

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15
Q

Muscarinic antagonist effects of atropine dose 0.5-1.0 mg:

A

increased HR
dry mouth
lack of sweating
feeling thirsty
pupillary dilation

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16
Q

Muscarinic antagonist effects of atropine dose 2-5 mg:

A

tachycardia
palpitations
mydriasis
cycloplegia
restlessness
confusion

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17
Q

Muscarinic antagonist effects of atropine dose >5 mg:

A

profound tachycardia
mydriasis
cycloplegia
hot flushed skin
fever hallucinations
coma
death

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18
Q

What should be given in the setting of atropine overdose?

A

physostigmine 1-2 mg IV b/c it will cross the BBB

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19
Q

What effect does diltiazem have on the AV node?
a. sympathomimetic
b. negative inotropic
c. positive inotropic
d. negative dromotropic

A

d. negative dromotropic

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20
Q

A dromotropic agents affects the

A

conduction speed in the AV node of the heart

21
Q

What are the cardiac and vascular effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

vasodilation
negative chronotropic
negative inotropic
negative dromotropic effects
impact on baroreceptors

22
Q

What are the three major classes of Ca2+ channel blockers?

A

dihydropyridines
benzothiazepines
phenylalkylamines

23
Q

What are examples of dihydropyridines?

A

nifedipine
nimodipine
nicardipine
clevidipine

24
Q

What are examples of benzothiazepines?

25
What are examples of phenylalkylamines?
verapamil
26
CCBs drugs produce __________ relaxation of arterial than venous smooth muscle
greater
27
Many of the CCBs induce
coronary artery vasodilation and inhibit coronary artery vasospasm
28
The CCBs reduce
myocardial oxygen consumption
29
Antiarrhythmics that depress electrical impulses in the SA and AV nodes include
verapamil and diltiazem
30
Calcium channel blockers are widely used to treat
hypertension arrhythmias PVD cerebral vasospasm angina
31
What CCBs should be used to control HR?
verapamil and diltiazem- good choices with tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, or aflutter
32
What CCBs should be used to control contractility?
highest to lowest that impair contractility: verapamil> nifedipine> diltiazem> nicardipine
33
What CCBs should be used to control vascular tone?
nifedipine and nicardipine are best used in the treatment of HTN from elevated SVR
34
____________ is the only CCB proven to reduce M & M from cerebral vasospasm.
Nimodipine
35
CCBs preserve _______ while reducing _________
preload; LV afterload
36
Describe Verapamil's effect on vasodilation, chronotropy, dromotropy, and inotropy.
not a potent vasodilator strong depressor of chronotropy, dromotropy, and inotropy
37
Use of verapamil in the presence of a B1 antagonists may cause
complete heart block or profound myocardial depression
38
What is the dosing of verapamil?
2.5-10 mg over 2 minutes
39
What is diltiazem's effect on vasodilation, chronotropy, and dromotropy?
produces arteriolar vasodilation potent negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects
40
Clevidipine is highly selective for
arterial smooth muscle without negative chronotropic or inotropic effects
41
________ may be seen with clevidipine
Reflex baroreceptor-mediated increases in HR
42
Nimodipine is useful in treating
cerebral vasospasm because it crosses the BBB producing cerebral arterial vasodilation
43
What is the effect on nifedipine on venous and arterial tone?
selective arterial vasodilator without effect on venous tone
44
Nifedipine is often combined with a
b1 antagonist to prevent reflex tachycardia
45
Nicardipine is similar to
nifedipine but has longer duration will see baroreceptor reflex tachycardia
46
Which calcium channel blocker is devoid of chronotropic effects and is ideally suited for IV infusion?
clevidipine
47
Which type of calcium channel do CCBs target?
L-type
48
Which calcium channel blocker is often prescribed for Raynaud's disease?
Nifedipine