Opioid & non-opioid analgesics 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug is associated with anticholinergic side effects?
a. meperidine
b. naloxone
c. methadone
d. remifentanil

A

a. meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Meperidine stimulates

A

mu & kappa receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Co-administration of meperidine with a ____________ can cause serotonin syndrome

A

MAO inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meperidine is structurally related to

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Because meperidine is structurally related to atropine, the following can be seen

A

tachycardia, mydriasis, and dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Side effects of meperidine include

A

histamine release
antishivering effect (kappa receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Meperidine is not recommended for

A

patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S/sx of serotonin syndrome include

A

hyperthermia, mental status changes, hyperreflexia, seizures, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MAO inhibitors include

A

phenelzine, isocarboxazid, tranylcypromine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 2 opioid receptors are stimulated by meperidine?

A

Kappa
Mu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which pharmacological characteristic accounts for the rapid onset of action of alfentanil?
a. low protein binding
b. low degree of ionization
c. high potency
d. high lipid solubility

A

b. low degree of ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Alfentanil is 90% (non-ionized or ionized)?

A

non-ionized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The _____________- portion of alfentanil can diffuse across the blood brain barrier

A

non-ionized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alfentanil use useful for

A

blunting the hemodynamic response to short, intense periods of stimulation such as tracheal intubation or retrobulbar block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Alfentanil is a weak

A

base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The pKa of alfentanil is

A

6.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alfentanil has the fastest

A

onset of action compared to other opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Due it is lower hepatic extraction ratio, alfentanil metabolism is more susceptible to

A

alterations in CYP3A4 function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

________________ inhibits alfentanil’s metabolism, and co-administration can result in prolonged respiratory depression

A

Erythromycin

20
Q

Renal failure ____________ alter alfentanil clearance

A

does not

21
Q

What opioid has the lowest non-ionized fraction at physiologic pH?

A

meperidine at 7%

22
Q

Which agents can be used to attenuate opioid-induced hyperalgesia? (select 2.)
a. ketamine
b. clonidine
c. morphine
d. magnesium sulfate

A

a. ketamine
d. magnesium sulfate

23
Q

Remifentanil is a rapid

A

on and rapid-off mu agonist

24
Q

The context sensitive half time of remifentanil is

A

about four minutes, regardless of infusion duration

25
Q

Remifentanil can cause

A

acute opioid-induced hyperalgesia following discontinuation

26
Q

Remifentanil should not be used for

A

neuraxial anesthesia- the vial contains glycine that can cause skeletal muscle weakness

27
Q

Remifentanil is highly (liphophilic or hydrophilic)?

A

liphophilic

28
Q

What is the maintenance infusion of remifentanil?

A

0.1-1.0 mcg/kg/min.

29
Q

In obese patients, the rate of remifentanil infusion is calculated with

A

lean body weight

30
Q

Remifentanil is metabolized by

A

plasma esterases

31
Q

Opioid induced hyperalgesia can be prevented with

A

ketamine or magnesium sulfate

32
Q

Which opioid has the same potency as remifentanil?

A

fentanyl

33
Q

How is remifentanil metabolized?

A

hydrolysis by erthyrocyte and tissue esterases (not pseudocholinesterase)

34
Q

Methadone provides analgesia by all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a. mu receptor agonism
b. NMDA receptor antagonism
c. Monamine reuptake inhibition
d. cholinergic receptor antagonism

A

d. cholinergic receptor antagonism

35
Q

Methadone is useful in the following circumstances:

A

chronic treatment of opioid abuse
chronic pain syndromes
cancer pain

36
Q

Methadone decreases pain by three mechanisms:

A

Mu receptor agonist
NMDA receptor antagonist
inhibits reuptake of monoamines in the synaptic cleft

37
Q

Methadone can prolong

A

the QT interval

38
Q

Olicerdine is an

A

IV opioid analgesic that primarily selects for the mu-receptor

39
Q

Oliceridine is indicated for

A

adults with acute pain when other opioid analgesics and alternative treatments fail to provide adequate pain relief

40
Q

Oliceridine is contraindicated in patients with

A

GI obstruction or paralytic ileus
significant respiratory depression
acute or severe asthma in an unmonitored setting

41
Q

Key considerations for oliceridine include

A

mild QT interval prolongation
increased risk of seizures in the patient with a seizure disorder
risk of hypotension when co-administered with a general anesthetic

42
Q

The duration of action of methadone is

A

3-6 hours

43
Q

The dosing of oliceridine is

A

loading dose IV: 1-2 mg IV
supplemental IV doses: 1-3 mg every 1-3 hours PRN

44
Q

The cumulative daily dose of oliceridine should not exceed

A

27 mg

45
Q

Is there dose adjustment needed for patients with renal impairment or mild to moderate hepatic impairment for patients taking oliceridine?

A

Nope