Intravenous anesthetics 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Choose the statements that demonstrate an accurate understanding of thiopental. Select 2
a. it causes a reflex tachycardia
b. prompt awakening is the result of hepatic metabolism
c. it provides neuroprotection against global ischemia
d. there is a sulfur molecule in the second position

A

a. it causes a reflex tachycardia
d. there is a sulfur molecule in the second position

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2
Q

Barbiturates should be avoided in patients with

A

acute intermittent prophyria

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3
Q

The mechanism of action of sodium thiopental is

A

GABA-A agonist

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4
Q

The onset of action of sodium thiopental is

A

30-60 seconds

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5
Q

The duration of action of sodium thiopental is

A

5-10 minutes

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6
Q

The clearance of sodium thiopental is

A

liver

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7
Q

The active metabolite of sodium thiopental is

A

none

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8
Q

The induction dose of sodium thiopental is

A

2.5-5 mg/kg IV

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9
Q

The respiratory effects of sodium thiopental include

A

decreased respiratory drive
histamine release can cause bronchoconstriction

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10
Q

The CV effects of sodium thiopental include

A

hypotension
myocardial depression
preserves the baroreceptor reflex so can lead to reflex tachycardia

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11
Q

The CNS effects of sodium thiopental include

A

decreased ICP
can cause hyperalgesia
decreased CMRO2
decreased cerebral blood flow
decreased EEG activity

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12
Q

Intra-arterial injection of sodium thiopental can cause

A

intense vasoconstriction and crystal formation leading to tissue necrosis

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13
Q

Treatment of intra-arterial injection of sodium thiopental includes

A

treatment with a vasodilator (phentolamine or phenoxybenazamine) or stellate ganglion nerve block (sympathectomy of upper extremity)

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14
Q

_______ is the gold-standard for ECT. It decreases the seizure threshold and produces a better-quality seizure.

A

Methohexital

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15
Q

Repeated doses of sodium thiopental can lead to

A

tissue accumulation–> prolonged wake up time + hangover effect

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16
Q

Compared to propofol, what effect does thiopental have on hypotension?

A

it produces less hypotension than propfol

17
Q

Describe the neuroprotective effects of sodium thiopental?

A

focal ischemia: yes (examples include carotid endarterectomy, temporary occlusion of cerebral arteries)
global ischemia: no (example: cardiac arrest)

18
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria is made worse by stimulation of

A

ALA synthase
emotional stress
prolonged NPO status
CYP450 induction

19
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute intermittent prophyria include

A

GI: severe abdominal pain (most common & typically first), N/V
CNS: anxiety, confusion, seizures, psychosis, coma
PNS: skeletal muscle weakness (risk of respiratory muscle failure), bulbar weakness (risk of aspiration)

20
Q

What drugs should be avoided with acute intermittent porphyria?

A

barbiturates, etomidate, ketamine, ketorolac, amiodarone, calcium channel blockers, birth control pills

21
Q

Anesthetic management of acute intermittent porphyria includes

A

liberal hydration
glucose supplementation
heme arginate
prevention of hypothermia

22
Q

With acute intermittent porphyrias, regional anesthesia is not

A

contraindicated, but many clinicians avoid it since it might be difficult to distinguish block-related complications from an acute porphyria attack

23
Q

The methohexital induction dose is

A

1-1.5 mg/kg

24
Q

Phenobarbital is excreted

A

unchanged in the urine (the hepatic P450 enzymes metabolize all of the other barbiturates)

25
Q

Which anesthetic agent produces sedation that MOST closely resembles natural sleep?
a. dexmedetomidine
b. midazolam
c. propofol
d. ketamine

A

a. dexmedetomidine

26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dexmedetomidine?

A

alpha 2 agonist–> decreased cAMP–> inhibits the locus coeruleus in the pons (sedation)

27
Q

What is the onset of action of dexmedetomidine?

A

10-20 minutes

28
Q

What is the duration of action of dexmedetomidine?

A

10-30 minutes

29
Q

What is the clearance of dexmedetomidine?

A

liver

30
Q

What is the active metabolite of dexmedetomidine?

A

None

31
Q

What is the loading dose of dexmedetomidine?

A

1 mcg/kg over 10 minutes

32
Q

What is the maintenance dose of dexmedetomidine?

A

0.4-0.7 mcg/kg/hr

33
Q

What are the respiratory effects of dexmedetomidine?

A

preserves respiratory drive

34
Q

What are the CV effects of dexmedetomidine?

A

bradycardia & hypotension
transient HTN can occur with rapid administration

35
Q

What are the CNS effects of dexmedetomidine?

A

sedation & analgesia
no change in ICP or CMRO2
decreased CBF

36
Q

What are other properties of dexmedetomidine?

A

anti-shivering properties
lowers risk of emergence delirium
limited effects on evoked potentials
can be used for preoperative sedation in children

37
Q

What is the pKa of dexmedetomidine?

A

7.1

38
Q

Describe why rapid administration of dexmedetomidine can cause hypertension.

A

this direct effect occurs before the centrally mediated reduction in SNS tone. Once the CNS effect kicks in, the central alpha-2 effect will overpower the peripheral alpha-2 effect

39
Q

Does dexmedetomidine provide reliable amnesia?

A

No