Pathoma - Autoimmune disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of the AIRE gene

A

It allow medullary epithelial cells of the thymus to display self-antigens during negative selection

Mutation will prevent developing lymphocytes from being tested against self-antigens, and allowed to be released, leading to autoimmunity

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2
Q

What are the 2 methods of peripheral tolerance of lymphocytes?

A

(1) Anergy: T-cells bind to MHC/antigen complex, and if there is no second activation signal (CD28 binding B7) the cell will shut down
(2) Apoptosis: if the T-cell keeps binding the MHC/antigen without a 2nd signal, the T-cell will begin to express FasL which will bind to death receptors

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3
Q

What cytokines to regulatory T-cells produce?

A

IL-10 and TGF-B

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4
Q

What molecules to Treg cells express/are positive for?

A

CD4+
CD25+
FOXP3+

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5
Q

What is Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS) caused by?

A

Mutation in the Fas apoptosis pathway, allowing self-reactive lymphocytes to continue proliferating and produce antibodies against normal cells

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6
Q

Describe bystander activation in the setting of autoimmunity

A

Patient makes a few self-reactive lymphocytes, but then gets an infection which ramps up the immune system causing self-reactive lymphs to multiply

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7
Q

Describe molecular mimicry in the setting of autoimmunity

A

Patient is infected with something similar to self-antigen, so self-reactive lymphocytes are increased because they are similar

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8
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE?

A

Type III

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9
Q

Describe the mechanism behind the development of SLE

A

Poorly cleared apoptotic debris (e.g. from UV damage) activates self-reactive lymphocytes, which then produce antibodies to host nuclear antigens

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10
Q

How is complement deficiency a cause of SLE

A

If complement cannot clear the apoptotic debris, it will remain around for cells to make antibodies against them

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11
Q

What are the 11 criteria of SLE:

A

RASH OR PAIN

Rash (malar or discoid)
Arthritis
Serositis
Hematologic disorders (e.g. anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia)
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers
Renal disease
Photosensitivity
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
Immunologic disorder (anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, anti-phospholipid)
Neurologic disorders (psychosis or seizures)

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12
Q

What are the 2 types of renal damage associated with SLE?

A

Nephrotic: membranous nephropathy

Nephritis: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is there against blood cells in lupus

A

Type II (antibody directly against cells)

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14
Q

What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis (associated with SLE)

A

Small vegetations on BOTH SIDES (top and bottom) of mitral valve

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15
Q

What are anti-Smith antibodies directed against?

A

snRNPs

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16
Q

What complements will be decreased in SLE?

A

CH50, C4, and C3

17
Q

What type of antibody is anticardiolipin and what can it cause false positives in?

A

It is an antiphospholipid in SLE

Can cause false-positive for syphilis

18
Q

What type of antibody is lupus anticoagulant and what can it falsely elevate?

A

It is an anti-phospholipid

Can falsely elevate PTT

19
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APA)

A

Hypercoagulable state with + antiphospholipids( e.g. lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, anti-B2-glycoprotein)

20
Q

What is paradoxical about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

A

Lupus anticoagulant can lead to increased PTT, but the syndrome actually causes HYPERcoagulability

21
Q

What is the characteristic antibody in drug-induced lupus

A

Antihistone antibody

ANA is also positive by definition

22
Q

What drugs are common causes of drug-induced lupus

A
SHIPP-E:
♣	S – sulfa drugs
♣	H – Hydralazine
♣	I – Isoniazid
♣	P – Procainamide
♣	P – Phenytoin
♣	E – Etanercept
23
Q

What clinical findings are usually absent in Drug-induced lupus that are present in SLE

A

Renal and CNS involvment

24
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE?

A

Renal failure, infection, and accelerated coronary atherosclerosis

25
What type of hypersensitivity is Sjogren syndrome?
Type IV (lymphocyte-mediated)
26
What are the 3 major diagnostic criteria in Sjogrens?
(1) Dry eyes/mouth (2) ANA + anti-SSA/anti-SSB/anti-RF (3) Lymphocytic sialadenitis
27
What type of antibodies are anti-SSA and anti-SSB
anti-ribonucleoprotein antibodies
28
What is the risk for pregnant women with anti-SSA?
Neonatal lupus and congenital heart block
29
What disease does Sjogren's increase the risk of?
B-cell (marginal zone) lymphoma Will present as unilateral enlargement of parotid gland late in the disease course of Sjogren's
30
What is the cause of Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)
Fibroblast activation leading to deposition of collagen Autoimmune disorder characterized by sclerosis of skin and visceral organs
31
Describe the disease process leading to fibroblast activation in Scleroderma
Autoimmune damage to endothelial cells Damaged endothelium causes vasoconstriction (increased endothelin and decreased NO) and secretion of growth factors (TGF-B and PDGF), which activate fibroblasts
32
What are the antibodies in limited-type and diffuse-type Scleroderma?
Limited-type: anti-centromere Diffuse-type: anti-DNA topoisomerase
33
What are the characteristics of limited-type scleroderma and describe the protype
Limited skin involvement (hands and face) with late visceral involvement CREST syndrome: C - Calcinosis (deposition of calcium in subcutaneous tissue / anti-Centromere R - Raynoud E - Esophogeal dysmotility S - Sclerodactyly (fibrosis of skin of hands/tightening of skin/loss of wrinkles) T - Telangiectasias
34
What are the characteristics of diffuse-type scleroderma
Diffuse skin involvement with early visceral involvement
35
What are the 3 diseases that have mixed features in Mixed Connective Tissue disease
SLE, systemic sclerosis, polymyositis
36
What antibody is associated with mixed connective tissue disease
anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein