4/24 - UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action and major side effects of each drug in RIPE therapy

A

Rifampin - inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA; causes red-orange body fluids

Isoniazid - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis; causes hepatotoxicity and neurotoxicity (give vitamin B6)

Pyrazinamide - unknown MOA; causes hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia

Ethambutol - inhibits arabinosyl transferase (carbohydrate synthesis in cell wall); causes optic neuropathy (color blindness, central scotoma, decreased visual acuity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe how PAH relates to GFR

A

PAH is freely filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed

Will slightly overestimate GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe how inulin relates to GFR

A

Inulin is filtered but not secreted or reabsorbed

Can be used to estimate GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe how creatinine relates to GFR

A

Creatinine is filtered and slightly secreted (but not secreted as much as PAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe how urea is handled in the kidney

A

It is freely filtered and poorly reaborbed

But not as much net excretion as PAH and inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe how bicarbonate is handled in the kidney

A

It is actively reaborbed in the proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What substances have almost 100% reabsorption in the proximal tubule?

A

Glucose and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Barr body

A

Inactivated X chromosome

One of two X chromosomes in females is inactivated by being condensed into heterochromatin with heavily methylated DNA and deacetylated histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What test is often used instead of bacitracin?

A

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) test

Strep Pyogenes is PYR-positive aka Bacitracin sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the effects of a VIPoma?

A

WDHA

Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Wilson disease?

A

Autosomal recessive defect in ATP-mediated hepatocyte copper transport

Results in lack of copper transport into bila and lack of copper incorporation into ceruloplasmisn (copper transport protein)

Copper accumulates especially in liver, brain, cornea, and kidneys

Presentation: liver disease, neurologic disease, Kayser-Fleisher rings (deposits in cornea)

Treatment: Penicillamine (chelates copper)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the process of atrial sepation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Hartnup disease (defect, presentation, treatment)

A

Autosomal recessive deficiency of neutral amino acid transporters

Leads to decreased absorption of tryptophan, which is the source of niacin (B3)

Can lead to pellagra-like symptoms

Treat with high-protein diet and nicotinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of HSR is atopic dermatitis?

A

Type I HSR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of HSR is contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV HSR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the common presentation of L-sided vs. R-sided colon cancer

A

R-sided are more likely to bleed, leading to iron deficiency anemia

L-sided often infiltrate the colon wall, narrowing the lumen and leading to obstruction (altered bowel habits, constipation, abd distension, nausea, vomiting)

17
Q

What terms from the 2x2 table can be used to help calculate ARR

A

ARR = NPV - PPV

18
Q

Common presentation of Giant cell arteritis

A

Unilateral headache, jaw claudication, polymyalgia rheumatic (joint and muscle pain), blindness

19
Q

Presentation of Takayasy arteritis

A

Usually Asian females < 40 y/o

Involves aortic arch at branch points

“Pulseless disease”, visual and neuro symptoms

20
Q

What is depersonalization/derealization disorder?

A

Peristent of recurrent experiences of 1 or both:

  • Feelings of detachment of being an outside observer of one’s self
  • Experiencing surroundings as unreal
21
Q

What is dissociative amnesia

A

Inability to recall personal information

Usually subsequent to severe trauma or stress

22
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder

A

Aka multiple personality disorder

23
Q

Sequence of events under light microscopy in acute MI

A

Time after myocardial infarction - Predominant light microscopic changes

0-4 hrs - minimal change

4-12 hrs - early coagulation necrosis, edema, hemorrhage, wavy fibers

12-24 hrs - coagulation necrosis and marginal contraction band necrosis

1 to 5 days - coagulation necrosis and neutrophilic infiltrate

5 to 10 days - macrophage phagocytosis of dead cells

10 to 14 days - granulation tissue and neovascularization

2 weeks to 2 months - collagen deposition / scar formation

24
Q

Describe Wernicke vs. Korsakoff syndrome

A

Both cause by Thiamine (B1) deficiency

Wernicke encephalopathy is the acute effects - ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia; atrophy of mamillary bodies

Korsakoff syndrome is the chronic effects - memory loss, confabulation, personality change

25
Q

What is Mallory Weiss syndrome

A

Tear of the gastroesophageal junction caused by excessive/forceful vomiting

26
Q

Hypagogic vs. Hypopompic hallucination

A

Hypnagogic - occur while going to sleep

Hypnopompic - occur while waking from sleep

27
Q

What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A

Rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia

28
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene (muscle relaxant)

Bromocriptine (D2 agonist)