DIT review - Reproduction 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main categories of ovarian tumors?

A

Epithelial, germ cell, stromal-sex cord, metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the different types of ovarian epithelial tumors?

A

Serous, Mucinous, Brenner, Endometriod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Type of epithelium in serous cystadenoma of the ovary

A
  • Lined with fallopian tube-like epithelium (ciliated)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian neoplasm?

A

Serous cystadenoma

Serous cystadenocarcinoma is most common malignant type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HIstological feature of serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary

A

Psammoma bodies

Papillary thyroid carcinoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, meningioma, mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complication of mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

A
  • Can cause pseudomyxoma peritonei
    • Accumulation of mucinous material within the peritoneum
    • Due to ovarian or appendiceal tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risk factor for endometroid tumor

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Epithelium of Brenner tumor

A
  • Composed of bladder-like (transitional) epithelium
  • Solid tumor that is pale yellow-tan and appears encapsulated
  • “Coffee bean” nuclei on H&E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 germ cell tumors of the ovary?

A

Cystic teratoma

Dysgerminoma

Endodermal sinus tumor

Choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is struma ovarii

A

A type of teratoma containing thyroid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cell type that makes up dysgerminoma

A

Oocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Histology of dysgerminoma

A
  • “Fried egg” cells – large cells with clear cytoplasm and central nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Male equivalent of dysgerminoma

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tumor marker of dysgerminoma

A

LDH (lactic dehydrogenase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tumor marker and histology of endodermal sinus tumor

A
  • Aka Yolk sac tumor
  • Most common germ cell tumor in children
  • Elevated serum AFP
  • Schiller-Duval bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tumor marker of choriocarcinoma

A

Elevated bHCG

  • Tumor of placenta – mimics placental tissue but villi are absent
  • Comprised of cytotrophoblasts and syncitiotrophoblassts
  • Elevated bHCG (produced by syncytiotrophoblasts)
17
Q

Presentation of granulosa-theca cell tumor

A
  • Malignant
  • Produces estrogen/progesterone
  • Presentation:
    • Precocious puberty
    • Menorrhagia/metrorrhagia
    • Postmenopausal bleeding
18
Q

Histology of granulosa-theca cell tumor

A

Call-Exner bodies

  • Granulosa cells arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles
19
Q

Histology and presentation of Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

A
  • Characteristic Reinke crystals
  • May produce androgens à hirsutism, virilization
20
Q

What is Meigs syndrome

A
  • Meigs syndrome:
    • Triad of: ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion
21
Q

What is Krukenberg tumor

A
  • GI carcinoma metastasis to the ovaries
  • Usually bilateral ovaries affected
  • Contains mucin-secreting signet cells
22
Q

Describe the timeframe of twinning

A
  • 0-4 days – dichorionic/diamniotic
  • 4-8 days – monochorionic/diamniotic
  • 8-12 days – monochorionic/monoamniotic
  • >13 days – conjoined twins
23
Q

With what type of twins can twin-twin transfusion syndrome occur?

A
  • Occurs in monochorionic/diamniotic twins
  • Arterio-venous anastamosis leads to shunting of blood
  • Donor – anemic, pale, growth restricted
  • Recipient – polycythemic, plethoric, overloaded, heart failure
24
Q

Presentation of hydatidiform mole

A
  • Abnormal fertilization with swelling of chorionic villi and proliferation of trophoblasts
  • Presentation:
    • Vaginal bleeding
    • Uterus enlargement
    • “Snowstorm” appearance on US
    • b-hCG higher than would be in normal pregnancy
    • Passage of grape-like masses through vaginal canal
25
Complete vs. Partial mole (chr #, fetal tissue presence, risk for choriocarcinoma)
* Partial mole: * Normal ovum fertilized by 2 sperm – 69 chromosomes * Fetal tissue present * Minimal risk for choriocarcinoma * Complete mole: * Empty ovum fertilized by 2 sperm – 46 chromosomes * Fetal tissue absent (only DNA is from dad) * Incrreased risk of choriocarcinoma
26
Presentation of placenta abruption
* Placenta abruption: * Premature separation of placenta from uterine wall before delivery * Presentation: * Abrupt, painful bleeding in the 3rd trimester (vs. placenta previa which is painless) * Possible DIC, maternal shock, fetal distress * Life threatening for mother and fetus
27
Risk factors for placenta abruption
* Smoking, trauma, HTN, cocaine abuse
28
Differentiate between placenta accreta/increta/percreta and describe the general presentation
* Presentation: * No separation of placenta after delivery * Postpartum bleeding * Types: * Placenta accreta – placenta attaches to myometrium without penetration * Placenta increta – placenta penetrates into myometrium * Placenta percreta – placent penetrates and perforates through the myometrium * Can attach to rectum or bladder
29
Presentation of placenta previa
* Attachment of placenta to lower uterus over internal cervical os * Presentation: * Painless third trimester bleeding (vs. placenta abrupta which is painful)
30
What is vasa previa?
* Fetal vessel run over, or in close proximity to, cervical os * May result in vessel rupture, exsanguination, fetal death
31
Diagnostic criteria of preeclampsia
* HTN: BP \> 140/90 after 20th week of gestation * Proteinuria * Edema
32
Treatment of eclampsia
* Preeclampsia + seizures * Treatment: IV magnesium sulfate, anti-hypertensives, immediate delivery
33
What does HELLP syndrome stand for and what is the reasoning behind the symptoms
* Stands for: * H - Hemolysis (anemia) * EL - Elevated Liver enzymes (RUQ pain, jaundice) * LP - Low Platelets (bruising bleeding) * Preeclampsia + thrombotic microangiopathy * Hemolysis = thrombi causing schistocytes * Liver enzymes = lack of RBCs leads to infarction of liver tissue * Platelets = all used up in thrombi
34
Cause of gestational diabetes
* Human placental lactogen (HPL) leads to increased insulin resistance * This allows shunting of glucose to baby * Seen at 24-28 weeks * Risk for baby: * Macrosomia * Stillbirth
35
Pathogenesis of Potter sequence
* Urinary tract anomaly -\> anuria/oliguria in utero -\> oligohydramnios -\> * Pulmonary hypoplasia * Flat facies * Limb deformities * Can be caused by maternal use of ACEI during pregnancy leading to renal dysgenesis