6/18 UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

What is the presentation of secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

o Lack of cortisol due to decreased ACTH = weakness, fatigue, weight loss

o Aldosterone synthesis is preserved (controlled by RAAS) à no hypotension or hyperkalemia

o ACTH low = no hyperpigmentation

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2
Q

What is a neuroblastoma

A
  • Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in children
  • Can occur anywhere along the sympathetic chain
  • Most common presentation:
    • Abd distension with firm mass that may cross midline (vs. Wilms tumor which in unilateral)
    • Less likely to develop HTN than pheochromocytoma
    • Increased HVA and VMA (catecholamine metabolites) in urine
    • Homer Wright rosettes (also seen in medulloblastoma)
  • Bombesin and NSE +
  • Associated with overexpression of N-myc gene
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3
Q

Differentiate Cushing disease vs. Cushing syndrome

A

Cushing syndrome = increased cortisol

Cushing disease = increased cortisol secondary to ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma

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4
Q

What is Jod-Basedow phenomenon

A

Thyrotoxicosis if a patient with iodine deficiency and partially autonomous thyroid tissue is made iodine replete

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5
Q

What is Riedel thyroiditis and its presentation

A
  • Thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue
  • Fibrosis may extend to local structures, mimicking anaplastic carcinoma
  • Presentation:
    • Euthyroid or hypothyroid
    • Fixed, hard (rock-like), painless goiter
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6
Q

What are the 2 main types of chronic complications in diabetes

A
  • Nonenzymatic glycosylation (leads to leaky vessels)
    • Small vessel disease
      • Retinopathy
      • Nephropathy
    • Large vessel disease
      • Atherosclerosis, CAD, MI
      • Gangrene
  • Osmotic damage
    • Recall:
      • Glucose -> (aldose reductase) -> sorbitol -> (sorbitol dehydrogenase) -> fructose
    • Sorbitol accumulation in organs with aldose reductase and decreased or absent sorbitol dehydrogenase
    • Sorbitol is an osmol that increases osmotic pressure causing:
    • Neuropathy (glove and stocking)
    • Cataracts
    • Nephropathy
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7
Q

What is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A
  • Due to defective G-coupled Ca2+ sensing receptors (e.g. parathyroids, kidney)
  • Higher levels of Ca2+ are needed in order to suppress PTH
  • Causes excessive renal Ca2+ reuptake, leading to mild hypercalcemia and hypocalciuria with normal to increased PTH levels
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8
Q

What is Albright hereditary osteodystrophy

A
  • Pseudohypoparathyroidism type 1a (Albright hereditary osteodystrophy)
    • Unresponsiveness of kidney to PTH à hypocalcemia despite elevated PTH
    • Characterized by short stature, short metacarpal, and short metatarsals
    • Autosomal dominant disorder
    • Due to defective Cs protein a-subunit, causing end-organ resistance to PTH
    • Defect must be inherited by mother due to imprinting
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9
Q

Presentation of primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • THINK: Stones, thrones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones
    • Hypercalcemia, increased PTH
    • Renal stones
    • Polyuria (thrones)
    • Osteitis fibrosa cystica (cystic bone spaces filled with brown fibrous tissue)
    • Weakness and constipation (groans)
    • Depression (psychiatric overtones)
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10
Q

Mutation in neurophysin can lead to what disease

A
  • Neurophysin = carrier protein for oxytocin and vasopressin from hypothalamus to posterior pituitary
  • Mutation in neurophysin can lead to defective transport of vasopressin = Central diabetes insipidus
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11
Q

Treatment of pituitary apoplexy

A
  • Acute hemorrhage into the pituitary gland
  • Occurs most often in patients with preexisting pituitary adenoma
  • Cardiac collapse caused by ACTH deficiency and subsequent adrenocortical insufficiency
  • Treatment – Medical emergency
    • Glucocorticoid replacement (to prevent life-threatening hypotension)
    • Surgical decompression
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12
Q

What type of collagen makes up granulation tissue

A

Type III

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13
Q

Which vasculitides are associated with granulomas?

A

Giant cell (large-vessel)

Takayasu (large-vessel)

Granulomatosis with polyangiits (small-vessel)

Churg-Strauss (small-vessel)

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14
Q

What is Werdnig-Hoffman disease

A
  • Damage to anterior motor horn secondary to inherited autosomal recessive disease
  • LMN lesion – flaccid paralysis with SYMMETRIC weakness
  • Floppy baby
    • THINK: Hoff = hop, so you know it is associated with polio (hopping on one leg)
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15
Q

What is the V/Q ratio at the apex and the base of the lung

A
  • Zone 1 = apex
    • High V/Q (> 1)
      • Low perfusion (gravity pulls down)
      • Wasted ventilation (physiologic dead space)
  • Zone 3 = base
    • Low V/Q (< 1)
      • High perfusion (gravity pulls down)
      • Wasted perfusion (shunting)
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16
Q

In which V/Q mismatch will giving 100% O2 improve paO2

A

In blood flow obstruction (V/Q = infinity)

100% O2 will not improve paO2 in airway obstruction

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17
Q

What are the ways in which CO2 can be transported from tissues to lungs

A
  • (1) HCO3- (via carbonic anhydrase)
    • 90% of CO2 travels in this form
  • (2) Carbaminohemoglobin – CO2 bound to Hb and N terminus of globin (not heme)
    • CO2 binding favors taut form (O2 unloaded)
  • (3) Dissolved in blood
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18
Q
  • Presentation of acute mountain sickness:
A
  • Headache, fatigue, cerebral edema, pulmonary edema
    • Cerebral edema due to hypoxia-induced vasodilation
    • Pulmonary edema due to hypoxia-induced local vasoconstriction
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19
Q
  • Physiological changes in chronic mountain sickness:
A
  • Increased RBC mass and hematocrit
  • Increased blood viscosity and decreased tissue blood flow
  • Elevated pulmonary artery pressure – due to hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
  • Right-sided heart enlargement
  • Peripheral artery pressure falls
  • Congestive heart failure
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20
Q

Treatment of altitude sickness

A

Acetazolamide

  • High elevation leads to hyperventilation = blowing off CO2 = respiratory alkalosis = can treat with acetazolamide to decrease bicarb
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21
Q

Presentation of Decompression sickness / “The bends” / Caisson disease

A
  • Presentation:
    • Pain in joints and muscles of arms and legs
    • Neurologic problems (dizziness, paralysis, syncope)
    • “Chokes” (SOB, pulmonary edema, death)
  • Cause:
    • At deep pressures, nitrogen dissolves in blood
    • As you ascend, nitrogen escapes dissolved state and forms bubbles that can occlude blood vessels
  • Tx:
    • Hyperbaric therapy = High pressure room that will re-dissolve the nitrogen in blood
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22
Q

In what thyroiditis will you see painless vs. painful goiter

A
  • Hashimoto = painless
    • Autoimmune destruction due to lymphocyte infiltration
  • Subacute (granulomatous/de Quervain) = painful
    • Self-limited disease following flu-like viral illness due to granulomatous infiltration
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23
Q

How do you correlate confidence interval and p-value

A

If confidence interval does not include the null, then the p-value is < 0.05

E.g. if the confidence interval is 1.02-1.8 for relative risk, this does not include the null (RR = 1), so you can assume that p-value is < 0.05

24
Q

Man with bone pain (not CVA) and difficulty urinating - what is the diagnosis?

A

Prostatic cancer with metastasis to bone

25
Q

What is the MOA behind dyspnea in left heart failure

A

Increased end-diastolic pressure impair diastolic return of blood from pulmonary capillaries, causing increased hydrostatic pressure and transudation of fluid from pulmonary capillaries into lung interstium

Fluid in interstitium causes decreased lung compliance, leading to poor gas exchange and SOB

26
Q

Which histones are part of the nucleosome core, and which are located outside of core

A

Histone core of nucleosome composed of 2 of each: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4

H1 is located outsdie histone core - binds the linker segments of DNA that lie between nucleosomes

27
Q

3 functions of thyroid peroxidase

A
  • Oxidizes Iodide (I-) to Iodine (I2)
  • Organification = coupling of iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
  • Coupling of iodinated thyroglobulins together
    • DIT + MIT = T3
    • DIT + DIT = T4
28
Q

Enzyme that converts peripheral T4 to T3

A

Iodothyronin deiodinase

29
Q

What is the most common emergy treatment for an unconscious hypoglycemic person who is not in a hospital setting?

Usually found in emergency kits

A

Emergency glucagon kit

Glucagon will increase glyogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

30
Q

What personality disorder is this:

Disregard for and violation of rights of others; criminal; impulsive (<18 y/o = conduct disorder)

A

Antisocial personality disorder

31
Q

What is the name and cause of transmural rupture of distal esophagus due to violent retching (surgical emergency)

A

Boerhaave syndrome

32
Q

Name and cause of rupture of gastroesophageal junction caused by excessive forceful vomiting (increased intraabdominal pressure)

A

Mallory Weiss

33
Q

Describe when are the two phases of meiosis that the oocyte becomes halted in

A

Halted in prophase I until ovulation

Procedes to metaphase II, where it is halted until fertilization occurs

34
Q

Common enzyme deficiency that causes collagen dysfunction in Ehlers Danlos

A

Procollagen peptidase

Inability to cleave N- and C- terminal ends of procollagen within the extra-cellular matrix

Leads to soluble collagen that does not properly cross-link

35
Q

Treatment of Serotonin syndrome

A
  • Cyproheptadine
    • MOA:
      • 5-HT2 receptor antagonist
36
Q

What are the 2 uses of Dantrolen

A

Malignant hyperthermia

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (toxicity of antipsychotics)

37
Q

Describe replication of Hepadnavirus

A
  • Partially dsDNA circular DNA enters the nucleus
  • Host polymerase makes RNA intermediate from DNA
    • Viral reverse transcriptase makes ssDNA from RNA intermediate
    • RNA intermediate also serves as a template for translation of viral proteins
38
Q

MOA, uses, and side effects of Buproprion

A
  • Sketchy = Pro ball player
  • MOA:
    • Inhibits the NE transporter (NET) and the DA transporter (DAT)
    • Unlike precious antidepressants mentioned, has NO effect on serotonin
    • Exerts CNS activating effects
  • Uses:
    • Depression associated with hyper somnolence and low energy
    • Tobacco dependence
  • Side effects:
    • Seizures
      • Bupropion is contraindicated in eating disorders
  • Benefits:
    • Does not affect serotonin so does NOT cause sexual dysfunction
    • Causes less weight gain than other antidepressants
39
Q

MOA, uses, and adverse effects of Mirtazapine in depression

A
  • Mirtazapine = mirth and misery cam (recall from phantom of the opera)
  • MOA:
    • Alpha-2 inhibition increases presynaptic release of serotonin and norepinephrine
    • Blocks 5HT-2 and 5HT-3 receptors
    • Inhibits H1 histamine receptors
      • Can cause sedation
  • Uses:
    • Major Depression with insomnia
      • Antihistamine effects cause sedation
  • Adverse effects:
    • Weight gain
    • Can be useful in elderly and depression + anorexia
  • Benefits:
    • Does not cause sexual dysfunction
40
Q

MOA, uses, and adverse effects of Trazodone in depression

A
  • Trazodone = trombone player
    • Is a serotonin modulator
      • Antagonizes post-synaptic serotonin receptors and weakly inhibits serotonin reuptake
      • Specifically antagonizing 5HT-2 receptors
    • Minimal affect on NE or DA
    • Antagonizes alpha-1 receptors
    • Causes vasodilation which can lead to priapism (persistent erection > 4 hours)
    • Can lead to postural hypotension
  • Antagonizes H1 receptor
  • Can lead to sedation
  • Uses:
    • Insomnia and major depression
    • Not a first line treatment for depression
  • Because of sedative effects:
    • Do not use in elderly
    • Do not used with other CNS depressants
  • Adverse effects:
    • Priapism (alpha-1 antagonism)
    • Orthostatic hypotension (alpha-1 antagonism)
    • Sexual dysfunction
      • à rejected advances
    • Serotonin syndrome (also caused by SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs)
      • à pile of smiley faces
41
Q

What artery courses with the radial nerve?

What type of fracture puts these at risk?

A

Deep brachial

Midshaft fracture of the humerus

42
Q

What artery and nerve may be affected in supracondylar fracture with anteromedial displacement of proximal fragment?

A

Brachial artery and Median nerve

(lie in the elbow fossa)

43
Q

What is the cause of esophageal dysmotility in CREST syndrome

A

o Due to atrophy and fibrous replacement of muscularis in the lower esophagus

44
Q

What nerve will be affected in supracondylar fracture with anterolateral displacement

A

Radial nerve

45
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

One gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects in the individual

46
Q

Presentation of Angelman syndrome

A

“Happy puppet”

Inappropriate laughter, seizures, ataxia, intellectual disability

47
Q

What is locus heterogeneity

A
  • Mutations at different locus / genes can produce similar phenotypes
48
Q

What is allelic heterogeneity

A
  • Different mutation in the same locus produce the same phenotype
49
Q

What is the inheritance of Li Fraumeni (p53 mutation)

A

Autosomal dominant

50
Q

what is the inheritance of glycogen storage diseases?

A

Autosomal recessive

51
Q

Inheritance of Marfan?

A

Autosomal dominant

52
Q

Inheritance of Fragile X?

A

X-linked dominant

53
Q

Inheritance of PKU

A

AUtosomal recessive

54
Q

Inheritance of NF1 and NF2

A

AUtosomal dominant

55
Q

Differentiate between direct and indirect ELISA

A

Direct = use a known antibody to identify presence of an antigen

Indirect = use a known antigen to identify presence of an antibody

56
Q

What does FISH test identify

A

FISH identifies specific genes

Using fluorescent DNA or RNA proble that binds to the gene of interest

57
Q
A