DIT review - Renal 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the general characteristics of nephritic syndrome

A
  • Proteinuria < 3.5 g/day
  • Hematuria and RBC casts
  • Azotemia – increased serum BUN and Creatine
  • Hypertension – salt retention with periorbital edema
  • Oliguria
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2
Q

What are the different types of nephritis syndrome

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

Alport Syndrome

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

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3
Q

What type of strep infection precedes PSGN

A

Skin or pharynx

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4
Q

Where will you see immune complex deposits in PSGN + what other things will be seen on biopsy

A
  • Hypercellular glomeruli
  • Neutrophils
  • EM: Immune deposits – subepithelial humps
  • IF: “starry sky” granular appearance (“lumpy bumpy”)
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5
Q

What labs will you find in PSGN?

A
  • Decreased C3 levels (complement is activated and used up)
  • Anti-streptolysin O titer to prove that there was a previous Strep infection
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6
Q

What disease is associated with IgA nephropathy

A
  • Associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura
    • Palpable purpura on butt and legs
    • Arthralgias
    • Abdominal pain
    • Renal disease
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7
Q

Where will you see deposits in IgA nephropathy + what else will you see on biopsy?

A
  • IgA immune complex deposited in mesangium
  • Proliferation of mesangial cells
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8
Q

Describe the presentation of IgA nephropathy

A
  • Presents as hematuria with RBC casts following a mucosal infection
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9
Q

What is the cause of Alport syndrome

A
  • Due to defect in Type IV collagen (basement membrane)
    • Leads to splitting of the basement membrane longitudinally
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10
Q

Presentation of Alport syndrome

A
  • Presents as isolated hematuria, sensory hearing loss, and ocular disturbances
    • “Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t hear high C”
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11
Q

What is the characteristic finding in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A
  • Characterized by crescents in Bowman space
    • Crescents comprised of fibrin and macrophages
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12
Q

What are the subtypes of RPGN?

A

Goodpasture

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

Microscopic polyangiitis

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

Finding in Goodpasture (presentation, IF)

A
  • Type II HSR – antibodies against glomerular basement membrane
  • Linear IF pattern
  • Affects kidneys and the lungs (alveolar basement membrane)
  • Presents as hematuria + hemoptysis
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14
Q

How do you differentiate Wegener’s from Microscopic polyangiitis

A

Wegener’s - cANCA

Microscopic polyangiitis - pANCA

Both have negative IF

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15
Q

What disease is associated with Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Lupus - most common type of renal disease in SLE

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16
Q

Describe the biopsy of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

A
  • Anti-dsDNA seen subendothelially and within mesangium
  • Granular IF
  • Light microscopy – deposits make basement membrane look thick – “wire looping” of capillaries
    • THINK: wire lupus
  • Often presents as nephrotic + nephritic syndrome
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17
Q

What are the general characteristics of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day
  • Hypoalbuminemia – protein lost in urine
  • Edema – decreased oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia
  • Increased risk of infection – loss of immunoglobulin in urine
  • Increased risk of thrombosis – loss of antithrombin III
  • Hyperlipidemia – liver tries to make more lipoproteins in order to make up for decreased oncotic pressure
18
Q

What are the types of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Foot process effacement: Minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Immune deposition: Membranous nephropathy, Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Other: Diabetes, Amyloidosis

19
Q

Describe biopsy of Minimal change disease (H&E, EM, IF)

A
  • H&E – normal
  • EM – foot process effacement
  • IF – negative
20
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and adults

A

Children - minimal change disease

Adults - Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

21
Q

What is a trigger for minimal change disease

A

Infections or immunizations

22
Q

What populations are associated with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A
  • Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in African Americans and Latinos
  • More prevalent in HIV patients
23
Q

Describe the biopsy of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A
  • H&E – focal (affects some glomeruli), segmental (affects part of glomerulus)
  • EM – foot process effacement
  • IF – negative
24
Q

What kidney diseases are associated with Lupus

A

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (nephritic)

Membranous nephropathy (nephrotic)

25
Describe biopsy of membranous nephropathy
* H&E – thickening of basement membrane * EM – “spike and dome” appearance with subepithelial deposits * IF – granular
26
Describe biopsy of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
* Type I: * Biopsy: * H&E – thick basement membrane with “tram track” appearance * Due to mesangium proliferating between the basement membrane * THINK: membranoproliferative = membrane proliferating = 2 membranes * EM – subendothelial deposits * IF – granular * Associated with HBV and HCV * Type II: * Aka Dense deposit disease * Associated with C3 nephritic factor (autoantibody that stabilizes C3 convertase, leading to over-activation of complement, inflammation, and low levels of circulating C3)
27
Describe biopsy of Diabetic nephropathy
* Will show sclerosing of the mesangium with Kimmelstie-Wilson nodules (round acellular nodules)
28
Where in the glomerulus are deposits in amyloidosis
Within the mesangium
29
Describe the disorder associated with each renal cast: * RBC cast * WBC cast * Bacterial cast * Epithelial cell cast * Waxy cast * Hyaline cast * Fatty cast * Granular cast
* RBC casts à glomerular damage (e.g. glomerulonephritis) * WBC casts - acute pyelonephritis (kidney infection) * Bacterial casts - pyelonephritis * Epithelial cell casts - acute tubular necrosis, toxic ingestions * Waxy casts - end stage renal disease/chronic renal failure * Hyaline casts (solidified mucoproteins secreted by tubular epithelial cells) - normal, dehydration * Fatty casts - nephrotic syndrome * Granular (“muddy brown”) casts - chronic renal disease, acute tubular necrosis
30
What is the most common kidney stone
Calcium stones
31
Are calcium stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
Radiopaque (can be seen on X-ray)
32
Risk factors for calcium stones
* Hypercalcemia/hypercalciuria * Cancer, increased PTH, ethylene glycol (calcium oxalate), increased vitamin C (calcium oxalate)
33
What type of stone is a struvite stone?
Ammonium magnesium phosphate stone
34
What is a major contributor to the formation of ammonium magnesium phosphate stones?
Urease (+) bacteria - Proteus, Klebsiella, Staph * Recall: * Urea is broken down by urease into NH3 and CO2 * NH3 converted to NH4+ which can combine with magnesium and phosphate
35
What type of stones can form staghorn calculi?
Struvite stones (ammonium magnesium phosphate) Cystine stones
36
Are struvite stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
Radiopaque
37
What are risk factors for uric acid stones?
* Associated with hyperuricemia and gout, acidic pH
38
Are uric acid stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
* Radiolucent * Not seen on X-ray * Seen on US and CT
39
Treatment of uric acid stones?
Treat with alkalinization of the urine
40
Disorder associated with cystine stones
* Associated with cystinuria (defective COLA transporter in proximal convoluted tubule)
41
Treatment of cystine stones?
Alkalinizing urine
42