6/8 UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

Where are immune complex depositions in Post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

Type 3 HSR
Immune complex deposition sub-epithelially

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2
Q

Where are immune complex depositions in IgA nephropathy

A

Aka Berger disease (Henoch Schonlein purpura)

IgA immune complex deposits in mesangium

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3
Q

What is the cause of Alport syndrome

A
  • Due to defect in Type IV collagen (basement membrane)
    • Leads to splitting of the basement membrane longitudinally
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4
Q

Presentation of Alport syndrome

A

Presents as isolated hematuria, sensory hearing loss, and ocular disturbances

“Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t hear high C”

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5
Q

Where are immune complex depositions seen in diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

DPGN seen in Lupus

Immune complexes seen subendothelially and within the mesangium

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6
Q

Describe light microscopy of lupus nephritis (DPGN)

A
  • Light microscopy – deposits make basement membrane look thick – “wire looping” of capillaries
    • THINK: wire lupus
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7
Q

Describe the mechanism behind the following in nephrotic syndrome:

  • Edema
  • Increased risk of infection
  • Increased risk of thrombosis
  • Hyperlipidemia
A
  • Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day
  • Hypoalbuminemia – protein lost in urine
  • Edema – decreased oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia
  • Increased risk of infection – loss of immunoglobulin in urine
  • Increased risk of thrombosis – loss of antithrombin III
  • Hyperlipidemia – liver tries to make more lipoproteins in order to make up for decreased oncotic pressure
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8
Q

What are the types of nephritic syndrome

A

Post-strep glomerulonephritis

Alport Syndrome

IgA Nephropathy

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

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9
Q

What are the types of nephrotic syndrome

A

Foot process effacement: Minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Immune deposition: Membranous nephropathy, Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Other: Diabetes, Amyloidosis

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10
Q

What is a trigger for minimal change disease

A
  • Triggered by infections or immunizations
  • Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
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11
Q

Where are the immune complex deposits in membranous nephropathy

A

subepithelial

  • H&E – thickening of basement membrane
  • EM – “spike and dome” appearance with subepithelial deposits (IgG and C3)
  • IF – granular
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12
Q
A
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13
Q

Describe biopsy of Diabetic nephropathy

A
  • Will show sclerosing of the mesangium with Kimmelstie-Wilson nodules (round acellular nodules)
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14
Q

Where in the glomerulus will you find amyloid depositis in Amyloid nephropathy

A

In the mesangium

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15
Q

What type of stone is a struvite stone?

A

Ammonium magnesium phosphate stone

  • Major risk factor = Urease + bacteria
  • Recall:
    • Urea is broken down by urease into NH3 and CO2
    • NH3 converted to NH4+ which can combine with magnesium and phosphate
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16
Q

What is the other symptom associated with Henoch Schonlein purpura other than palpable purpura and IgA nephropathy

A

Arthralgias

17
Q

What are the radioopaque (seen in XR) vs. radiolucent kidney stones

A

Radiopaque = calcium and struvite

Radiolucent = uric acid and cystine

18
Q

Describe histology of renal cell carcinoma

A
  • Will see polygonal clear cells filled with accumulated lipids and carbohydrates
19
Q

Horomones secreted by RCC

A
  • Hormones secreted by renal cell carcinoma:
    • Erythropoietin - polycythemia
    • ACTH - Cushing
    • PTH-related peptide - Hypercalcemia
    • Prolactin - hypogonadism, decreased libido, galactorrhea
20
Q

What is WAGR complex

A
  • Wilms tumor, Aniridia (absence of iris), Genitourinary malformation, mental/motor Retardation
21
Q

What disease is associated with thyroidization of the kidney

A
  • Chronic pyelonephritis
  • Eosinophilic casts dilate the tubules, causing the tubules to have a colloid/thyroid-like appearance
22
Q

What disease is associated with eosinophils in urine

A
  • Acute interstitial nephritis
    • Acute interstitial renal inflammation that results in acute renal failure
    • Presentation:
      • Fever, rash, eosinophilia, azotemia
23
Q

Describe BUN/Cr and FENa in pre-renal, intrinsic, and post-renal azotemia

A
  • (1) Pre-renal azotemia:
    • BUN/Creatinine > 20
      • BUN is reabsorbed, creatinine is not
    • FENa (fractional excretion of sodium) < 1%
      • Tubular function intact so Na+ can still be reabsorbed
  • (2) Intrinsic renal failure:
    • BUN/Creatinine < 15
      • Tubular dysfunction = decreased reabsorption of BUN
    • FENa > 2%
      • Tubular dysfunction = decreased reabsorption of Na+
  • (3) Post-renal azotemia:
    • Early stage
      • BUN/Cr > 20
      • FENa < 1%
    • Late stage - tubular damage occurs
      • BUN/Cr < 15
      • FENa > 2%
24
Q

Consequences of chronic renal failure

A
  • Inability to produce urine = water retention:
    • Peripheral edema, heart failure, pulmonary edema, HTN
  • Hyperkalemia (due to decreased renal excretion)
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Uremia
  • Anemia (decreased erythropoietin production)
  • Hypocalcemia (due to decreased Vitamin D active form)
  • Renal osteodystrophy (due to decreased Vitamin D active form)
25
Describe the pathogenesis of renal osteodystrophy
* Recall: * Kidneys promote conversion of calcidiol to calcitriol (active form of Vitamin D) * Chronic renal disease = Vitamin D deficiency = hypocalcemia + hyperphosphatemia = secondary hyperparathyroidism = increased degradation of bone
26
Disorders associated with ADPKD
* Associated with cysts in the liver, berry aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse
27
Common causes of acute interstitial nephritis
* NSAIDs, Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Sulfonamides, Ciprofloxacin, Cimetidine, Allopurinol, PPIs, Indinavir, Mesalamine * REMEMBER the P’s: * Pee (diuretics), Pain-free (NSAIDs), Penicillin and Cephalosporins, PPIs, rifamPin
28
Describe medullary cystic disease
* Can lead to fibrosis and progressive renal insufficiency * Will present as cysts in the collecting ducts and shrunken kidney due to fibrosis * Vs. most other cystic diseases which will present with cystic dilation of kidney
29
Describe the organ systems associated with each of the muscarinic receptors (M1, M2, M3)
M1 - enteric and CNS M2 - heart M3 - bladder, smooth muscles of eye
30
Describe the sequence of events in the Gq pathway
Gq = activation of phospholipase C = cleavage of PIP2 into IP3 and DAG = IP3 increases intracellular calcium and DAG activates protein kinase C = leads to smooth muscle contraction
31
What hormones use the Gq pathway?
GOAT HAG GnRH, oxytocin, V1 (ADH), TRH, H1, Angiotensin II, Gastrin
32
Describe the sequence of events in Gs/Gi pathways
Activation of Gs = activation of adenylate cyclase = adenylate cyclase cleaves ATP to form cAMP = cAMP activates protein kinase A
33
What hormones use the Gs/Gi pathway
FLAT ChAMP FSH, LH, ADH (V2), TSH, CRH, hCG, ACTH, MSH, PTH
34
35
* Initial lesion (“herald patch”) followed by scaly erythematous plaques in a “Christmas tree” distribution on trunk * Self-resolving in 6-8 week
Pityriasis rosea
36
What disorder gives you "notching" of the ribs on X-ray
Adult form of aortic coarctation * Collateral arteries form and engorged intercostal erode ribs
37
Which is pre-central gyrus vs. post-central gyrus - motor or sensory cortex
Motor = pre-central Sensory = post-central
38
Name of non-selective beta-blocker
Propranolol Causes decrease CO and increased peripheral resistance (B2 blocking causes vasoconstriction)