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-x-A320 notes-x- > OMA Chapter 0 > Flashcards

OMA Chapter 0 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the competent authority exercising oversight for easyJet UK ltd?

A

UK CAA

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2
Q

What is contained in OMA?

A

General/basic, which contains general information, requirements and operational instructions

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3
Q

What is contained in OMB?

A

Type specific operating procedures and requirements. It is supplemental to the following manufacturers manuals and documents:

MEL and CDL
FCOM
QRH
Normal checklist

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4
Q

What is ops manual part C and where do you find it?

A

LIDO route manual, which consists of the following:

Gen part
Aero drone and e route charts
Company and crew information (CCI)
Special airline information (SAI)

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5
Q

What is ops manual part D?

A

Part D ‘C’ is cabin crew training manual
Part D ‘F’ is flight crew training manual

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6
Q

What is contained within the CSPM?

A

CSPM is Cabin Safety Procedures Manual. It contains:

Cabin crew SOPs
Cabin crew emergency procedures
Easyjet aircraft safety equipment layout
Aviation first aid

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7
Q

Abbreviations - ACARS

A

ARINC Communication Addressing and Reporting System

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8
Q

Abbreviations - ACAS

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

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9
Q

Abbreviations - ADD

A

Acceptable Deferred Defect

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10
Q

Abbreviations - ADF

A

Automatic Direction Finder

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11
Q

Abbreviations - ADI

A

Attitude Director Indicator

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12
Q

Abbreviations - ADIRS

A

Air Data Inertial Reference System

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13
Q

Abbreviations - AIP

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

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14
Q

Abbreviations - ARINC

A

Aeronautical Radio Inc

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15
Q

Abbreviations - ATSU

A

Air Traffic Services Unit

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16
Q

Abbreviations - CAVOK

A

Ceiling and Visibility OK

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17
Q

Abbreviations - CFDS

A

Centralised Fault Display System

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18
Q

Abbreviations - CIDS

A

Cabin Intercommunication Data System

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19
Q

Abbreviations - DCDU

A

Data Communication Display Unit

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20
Q

Abbreviations - DDRMI

A

Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator

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21
Q

Abbreviations - EASA

A

European Aviation Safety Agency

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22
Q

Abbreviations - ECAM

A

Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring

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23
Q

Abbreviations - EFIS

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

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24
Q

Abbreviations - EFOB

A

Estimated Fuel on Board

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25
Q

Abbreviations - EGPWS

A

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System

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26
Q

Abbreviations - ETOPS

A

Extended Twin Engine Operations

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27
Q

Abbreviations - FADEC

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

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28
Q

Abbreviations - FANS

A

Future Air Navigation System

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29
Q

Abbreviations - FIR

A

Flight Information Region

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30
Q

Abbreviations - FMA

A

Flight Mode Aunnunciator

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31
Q

Abbreviations - FMGS

A

Flight Management and Guidance System

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32
Q

Abbreviations - FMS

A

Flight Management System

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33
Q

Abbreviations - GNSS

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

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34
Q

Abbreviations - MCDU

A

Multipurpose Control and Display Unit

35
Q

Abbreviations - METAR

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report

36
Q

Abbreviations - NOTOC

A

Notification to Captain

37
Q

Abbreviations - OEB

A

Operations Engineering Bulletin

38
Q

Abbreviations - PPR

A

Prior Permission Required

39
Q

Abbreviations - QDM

A

Magnetic bearing to facility

40
Q

Abbreviations - QDR

A

Magnetic Bearing from facility

41
Q

Abbreviations - RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

42
Q

Abbreviations - RNP

A

Required Navigation Performance

43
Q

Abbreviations - SELCAL

A

Selective Calling

44
Q

Abbreviations - TCAS

A

Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System

45
Q

Abbreviations - THS

A

Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer

46
Q

Abbreviations - TMA

A

Terminal Manoeuvring Area

47
Q

Abbreviations - VAPP

A

Final Approach Speed

48
Q

Abbreviations - VFE

A

Maximum velocity flaps/slats extended

49
Q

Abbreviations - VMCA

A

Minimum Control Speed in the Air

50
Q

Abbreviations - VMCG

A

Minimum Control Speed on the Ground

51
Q

Abbreviations - VREF

A

Landing Reference Speed

52
Q

What is the definition of Alert Height

A

A specified radio height, based on the characteristics of the aircraft and its fail-operational landing system. In operational use, if a failure occurred above alert height in one of the required redundant operational systems in the aircraft, the approach would be discontinued and a go around executed, unless a reversion to a higher decision height is possible. If a failure in one of the required redundant operational systems occurred below the alert height, it would be ignored and the approach continued

53
Q

What is the definition of Category 1 approach operation (CAT l), including numbers?

A

DH not lower than 200ft
RVR not less than 550m

54
Q

What is the definition of Category 2 operation (CAT ll) including numbers?

A

DH not lower than 100ft
RVR not less than 300m

55
Q

What is the definition of category 3 A operation (CAT lllA) including numbers?

A

DH lower than 100ft
RVR not less than 200m

56
Q

What is the definition of Category 3 B operation (CATlllB) including numbers?

A

DH lower than 100ft or noDH
RVR lower than 200m but not less than 75m

57
Q

What is the definition of ceiling?

A

Height above ground of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000ft covering more than half of the sky

58
Q

What is the definition of cloud base?

A

Height of the base of the lowest observed or forecast cloud element in the vicinity of an aerodrome (reported as FEW or SCT)

59
Q

Who is the competent authority for the UK AOC?

A

UK CAA

60
Q

What is the definition of Contaminated Runway?

A

A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of its surface is covered with:

A layer of fluid contaminant not considered as thin
A hard contaminant

A significant portion of the runway surface area is more than 25% of one third of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used

61
Q

What is the definition of contingency fuel?

A

The fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors that could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome

62
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

A damp runway is a runway with a surface which is not dry but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny surface.

For operational purposes, a damp runway is considered wet

63
Q

What is the definition of fail operational flight control system?

A

In the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system will operate as a fail passive system

64
Q

What is the definition of fail passive flight control system?

A

In the event of a failure, there is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude, but the landing is not completed automatically. For a fail passive automatic flight control system, the pilot assumes control of the aeroplane after a failure

65
Q

Where does the final approach start and finish?

A

Start - final approach fix (or if not specified, the end of the last procedure turn)

Finish - Decision Altitude

66
Q

What is the definition of final reserve fuel?

A

Amount of fuel calculated to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate, or the destination if no alternate is required

67
Q

What is the definition of an infant?

A

A person who has not yet reached their second birthday

68
Q

What is the definition of an isolated aerodrome?

A

One for which the alternate and final fuel reserve required to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than the fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel

69
Q

What is the definition of minimum descent height/altitude? Is it for 2D or 3D approaches?

A

A specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach operation below which descent must not be made without required visual reference.

70
Q

What height is MDH referenced to?

A

Aerodrome elevation, or threshold elevation is that is more than 7ft below aerodrome elevation.

MDH for circling is from aerodrome elevation

71
Q

What is the definition of slush?

A

Water saturated snow which with a heel and toe slap down motion against the ground will be displaced with a splatter.

Specific gravity 0.5-0.8

72
Q

What is the definition of dry snow?

A

Snow which can be blown if loose, or if compacted by hand will fall apart on release.

Specific gravity up to but not including 0.35

73
Q

What is the definition of wet snow?

A

Snow which, if compacted by hand, will stick together and tend to or form a snowball.

Specific gravity 0.35 up to but not including 0.5

74
Q

What is the definition of compacted snow?

A

Snow which has been compressed into a solid weight that resists further compression and will hold together or break up into chunks if picked up.

Specific gravity 0.5 and over

75
Q

What is the definition of a steep approach?

A

Any approach with a glide slope angle of 4.5 or more.

All approaches exceeding 4.5 descent angle require specific operator approval for each type concerned

76
Q

What is the definition of traffic load?

A

Total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo, and carry on specialist equipment including any ballast

77
Q

What is the definition of transition altitude?

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes

78
Q

What is the definition of transition level?

A

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

79
Q

What is the definition of type A instrument approach operation?

A

An instrument approach operation with an MDH or a DH at or above 250ft

80
Q

What is the definition of type B instrument approach operation?

A

An operation with a DH below 250ft

81
Q

What is the definition of visibility?

A

The greater of:

The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions situated near the ground can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright background

The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background

82
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

A runway is wet when the surface is covered by any visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm deep within the area intended to be used

83
Q

Where can you find a copy of easyJets operations manuals?

A

Connected Portal
EFB
DocuNet

84
Q

What are the main things covered in OMA chapter 0?

A

Administration and control of the operations manual

Compliance
Definitions
Abbreviations

-x-A320 notes-x- (55 decks)

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