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Part 1 > MSK System Anatomy 1 > Flashcards

MSK System Anatomy 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of bone cell?

A

Osteoclasts: resorbs bone

Osteoblasts: produce bone matrix

Osteocytes: result of osteoblasts

Osteoprogenitor cells: bone stem cells

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2
Q

Which bone cell occupies Howship’s lacunae?

A

Osteoclast

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3
Q

Where within the bone are osteoprogenitor cells found?

A

Periosteum

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4
Q

Where within the bone are osteocytes found?

A

Lacunae

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5
Q

What connects lacunae?

A

Canaliculi

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6
Q

What type of connective tissue is most abundant in the bone matrix?

A

Type 1 collagen. Versus Type II collagen forms hyaline and articular cartilage.

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7
Q

Volkmann’s canals connect what?

A

Haversian canals

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8
Q

What is an example of a syndesmosis joint?

A

Distal tibiofibular joint (tibiofibular syndesmosis). Syndesmosis joints are fibrous joints between 2 bones that are only slightly movable.

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9
Q

What is an example of a plane/gliding/arthrodial joint?

A

Acromioclavicular

Calcaneocuboidal

Carpometacarpal (except jt. of thumb)

Intercarpals

Proximal tibiofibular

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10
Q

What is an example of a hinge joint?

A

Elbow

Talocrural (ankle) Interphalangeal

Mandible

Knee

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11
Q

What is an example of a condylar joint?

A

Metacarpophalangeal

Atlanto-occipital

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12
Q

What is an example of a ball and socket joint?

A

Hip

Shoulder

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13
Q

What is an example of an ellipsoidal joint?

A

Wrist

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14
Q

What is an example of a pivot/trochoid joint?

A

Distal radioulnar

Atlas/axis

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15
Q

What is an example of a saddle joint?

A

Carpometacarpal joint of thumb (between trapezium and MC1)

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16
Q

What is an example of a symphysis joint?

A

Pubic symphysis

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17
Q

What type of joint forms the fibrous union between the radius and ulna?

A

Syndesmosis joint

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18
Q

What type of joint is a cranial suture?

A

Synarthroid. Synarthroid joints have little or no movement.

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19
Q

Fibrous joints that are either immovable or barely movable are classified as what type of joint?

A

Synarthrosis

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20
Q

What type of joint is united by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage?

A

Cartilaginous

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21
Q

What type of joint is united by an articular capsule and allows free motion in at least one axis?

A

Synovial or diarthrodial joint

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22
Q

What are the four main sutures in the skull?

A

The Coronal, Sagittal, Squamous, and Lambdoid

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23
Q

What suture separates the parietal bone and the temporal bones form the occipital bone?

A

Lambdoid suture

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24
Q

What suture separates the parietal bones superiorly?

A

Sagittal suture

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25
Q

What suture separates the parietal bone from the temporal bone laterally?

A

Squamous suture

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26
Q

What suture separates the frontal bone from parietal bones?

A

Coronal suture

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27
Q

What forms the bregma landmark?

A

The intersection of the coronal and sagittal sutures

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28
Q

Which bones are considered pneumatized bones (i.e. contain sinuses)?

A

Frontal bone

Temporal bone

Sphenoid bone

Ethmoid bone

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29
Q

What is the easily palpable, external occipital protuberance on the medial plane between the inferior and superior nuchal lines of the occiput called?

A

The inion

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30
Q

What bone forms the posterior part of the nasal septum?

A

Vomer

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31
Q

What bones make up the nasal aperture?

A

Nasal

Maxilla

Frontal

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32
Q

What makes up the septum?

A

Vomer

Septal cartilage

Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

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33
Q

The inion is associated with which bone?

A

Occiput

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34
Q

Which bone of the skull has the styloid process?

A

The temporal bone

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35
Q

What bones make up the hard palate?

A

Palatine bone

Maxilla

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36
Q

What prominence on the mandible forms the prominence of the chin?

A

Mental protuberance

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37
Q

What are the articular surfaces involved in the tmj?

A

Head of condylar process of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone

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38
Q

What ligament limits post. movement of tmj?

A

Lateral Temporomandibular ligament. Versus the medial temporomandibular ligament limits inferior mandibular movement.

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39
Q

What passes through the optic canal?

A

Optic nerve (CNII) and Opthalmic artery

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40
Q

What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A

Opthalmic veins, sympathetic fibers, CN III, CN IV, CN V1 (ophthalmic nerve), and CN VI

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41
Q

What passes through the mandibular foramen?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve a branch of CN V3 (mandibular nerve) and the Inferior alveolar artery and vein

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42
Q

What exits through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

The facial nerve (CN VII) and stylomastoid artery

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43
Q

What passes through the mental foramen?

A

The mental artery and mental nerve a branch of CN V3 (mandibular nerve)

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44
Q

What passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

The maxillary nerve (CN V2)

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45
Q

What passes through the foramen ovale?

A

The mandibular nerve (CN V3) and accessory meningeal artery

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46
Q

What passes through the supraorbital foramen?

A

The supraorbital nerve a branch of CN V3 (opthalmic nerve)

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47
Q

What passes through the infraorbital foramen?

A

The infraorbital nerve a branch of CN V2 (maxillary nerve)

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48
Q

What structures pass through the foramen lacerum?

A

Internal carotid artery and accompanying sympathetic and venous plexuses

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49
Q

What bones make up the auditory ossicles?

A

Malleus

Incus

Stapes

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50
Q

What U-shaped bone lies at the level of C3 vertebrae?

A

Hyoid bone

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51
Q

What makes up the primary curves of the spine?

A

Thoracic curve

Pelvic (Sacrum/coccyx) curve

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52
Q

What makes up secondary curves of spine?

A

Cervical curve

Lumbar curve

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53
Q

What type of curve is the lordotic curve?

A

Secondary

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54
Q

What type of curve is the kyphotic curve?

A

Primary

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55
Q

Which are the true/movable vertebrae?

A

Cervicals

Thoracics

Lumbars

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56
Q

What are the false/fixed vertebrae?

A

Sacrum

Coccyx

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57
Q

What makes up a typical vertebra?

A

Vertebral body

2 pedicles

2 laminae

4 articular processes

2 Transverse processes

1 spinous process

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58
Q

Which of the cervical vertebrae are atypical?

A

C1, C2, C7

C1 lacks spinous process, C2 has the unique dens, C7 has the longest spinous process (of all cervical vertebrae).

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59
Q

Which of the thoracic vertebrae are atypical?

A

T10, T11, T12. T10 has small costal facet (on transverse process) while T11 and T12 don’t have costal facets.

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60
Q

Which of the lumbar vertebrae are atypical?

A

L5. Unlike other lumbar vertebrae, L5 has a distinct transverse process.

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61
Q

Where is the 1st intervertebral disc found?

A

Between C2 and C3

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62
Q

Where does head flexion take place?

A

Between Atlas and occiput

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63
Q

Where does head rotation take place?

A

Between Atlas and axis

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64
Q

What penetrates the atlanto-occipital membrane?

A

suboccipital nerve

Vertebral artery

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65
Q

What ligament spans the inside of the vertebral foramen on the posterior side?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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66
Q

What ligament prevents full rotation of the head?

A

Alar ligament

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67
Q

What ligament holds the dens in ventral position?

A

Cruciform

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68
Q

What ligament is found on the dorsal surface of the inside of the vertebral foramen?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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69
Q

What ligaments join tips of vertebral spines?

A

Supraspinous ligs.

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70
Q

What ligaments span between vertebral spines?

A

Interspinous ligaments

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71
Q

What forms the boundary for the intervertebral foramen?

A

Superior and inferior vertebral notch

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72
Q

What is contained within the intervertebral foramen?

A

Spinal nerve

Intervertebral artery and vein

Intervertebral lymphatic vessels

Adipose tissue

Peripheral nerve roots and meningeal sleeves

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73
Q

What vessels and nerves pass through the intervertebral foramen?

A

Spinal nerve

Intervertebral artery and vein

Intervertebral lymphatic vessels

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74
Q

What passes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

A

The vertebral artery and vein

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75
Q

The vertebral artery does not pass through the transverse foramina of which cervical vertebra?

A

C7

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76
Q

Which CNs pass through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI

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77
Q

How many articulations are there between a typical rib and vertebrae?

A

Three: head of rib articulates with 2 vertebral bodies; tubercle on neck of rib articulates with 1 tvp

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78
Q

What ligament is involved with the head of the rib connecting with the vertebral body?

A

The radiate ligament

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79
Q

How many true ribs are there?

A

Seven. True ribs refer to ribs directly attached to the sternum (and not via cartilage).

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80
Q

What constitutes a true rib?

A

The first 7 ribs that are attached to the sternum by their own costal cartilage

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81
Q

Which ribs are called vertebrochondral ribs?

A

Ribs 8, 9 and 10

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82
Q

Which ribs are typical ribs?

A

Ribs 3 to 9

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83
Q

What constitutes a typical rib?

A

They contain a head, a tubercle and a shaft (a.k.a. a body)

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84
Q

Which is the most curved, broadest and shortest rib?

A

Rib 1

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85
Q

What attaches to the scalene tubercle on the 1st rib?

A

The anterior scalene muscle

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86
Q

What passes through the groves anterior and posterior to the scalene tubercle on the 1st rib?

A

Anterior groove = The subclavian vein

Posterior groove = The subclavian artery and lower brachial plexus

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87
Q

Which ribs have only one facet each on their heads?

A

Ribs 1, 10, 11 and 12

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88
Q

What structure gives elasticity to the thoracic wall?

A

Costal cartilage

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89
Q

True or False: There is a cervical rib?

A

True, it occurs in 0.5% of the population and arises from the 7th cervical vertebra’s transverse process.

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90
Q

What is the name of the structure produced by the meeting of the manubrium and the body of the sternum?

A

The angle of Louis, aka the sternal angle

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91
Q

What part of the sternum lies at the level of T3 and T4?

A

Manubrium

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92
Q

What portion of the sternum lies at the level of T10?

A

Xyphoid

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93
Q

Give the landmarks for when the trachea begins and ends?

A

It begins at 6th cervical vertebra and extends to the level of the sternal angle

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94
Q

What joint forms the junction of the xiphoid and the sternum?

A

Xiphisternal joint

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95
Q

What are the 3 angles of the scapula?

A

Inferior

Superior

Lateral

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96
Q

What are the 4 fossa on the scapula?

A

Supraspinatus fossa

Infraspinatus fossa

Subscapular fossa

Glenoid cavity

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97
Q

What are the 2 tubercles on the scapula that are superior and inferior of the glenoid cavity?

A

Supraglenoid tubercle

Infraglenoid tubercle

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98
Q

What lateral continuation of the spine of the scapula articulates with the clavicle?

A

Acromion

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99
Q

What 2 ligaments make up the capsular ligaments of the shoulder?

A

Coracohumeral ligament

Glenohumeral ligament

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100
Q

What is the chief bracing ligament of the acromial end of the clavicle?

A

Coracoclavicular ligament

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101
Q

What ligament prevents superior displacement of the humeral head?

A

Coracoacromial

102
Q

Superior displacement of the humerus will likely damage what ligament?

A

The acromioclavicular ligament

103
Q

What provides the main stability for the glenohumeral joint?

A

Rotator cuff tendons

104
Q

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

Subscapularis

105
Q

What ligament of the elbow does the ulnar nerve pass through?

A

The ulnar collateral ligament

106
Q

What ligament holds the head of the radius in position in the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

Annular ligament

107
Q

The radius articulates with which 3 carpal bones to form the radiocarpal joint?

A

Scaphoid

Lunate

Triquetral

108
Q

What ligament attaches to the ulnar styloid process and the radius to provide support for the distal radioulnar joint and preventing the ulna from touching the wrist joint?

A

Articular disc

109
Q

Which bone of the forearm takes on the weight bearing function in the wrist?

A

The radius

110
Q

Which fingers have sesamoid bones?

A

Digits 1, 2, 5

111
Q

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the knee?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

112
Q

Which ligament prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

113
Q

Which ligament prevents anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia?

A

Posterior cruciate ligament

114
Q

Which of the collateral ligaments of the knee is extracapsular?

A

Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament

115
Q

What ligament attaches to the tibial tuberosity?

A

The patellar ligament

116
Q

Ligament of the head of the femur is also known as what?

A

Ligamentum teres

117
Q

Which of the collateral ligaments is attached to which of the menisci?

A

The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial/medial collateral ligament

118
Q

Which ligament of the knee limit side to side movement?

A

Collateral ligaments

119
Q

Which bursa of the knee facilitates full flexion and extension?

A

Suprapatellar

120
Q

Which bursa of the knee is associated with housemaid’s knee and permits movement of skin over the patella during leg movement?

A

Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa

121
Q

Which bursa is associated with clergyman’s knee?

A

Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa

122
Q

What bones are joined by the spring ligament?

A

Calcaneus (sustentaculum tali)

navicular (medial side of foot)

123
Q

What ligament prevents the talus from wedging bones apart?

A

The spring ligament

124
Q

The ankle/talocrural joint is supported by what ligament on the medial side?

A

The deltoid ligament

125
Q

What ligaments support the lateral aspect of the talocrural/ankle joint?

A

Anterior and posterior talofibular ligaments

Calcaneofibular ligament

126
Q

During what movement is the ankle joint most unstable?

A

During plantar flexion (moving foot away from the body!)

127
Q

Which ligaments are most likely to be injured with forced inversion (turning sole of foot medially)?

A

Anterior and posterior talofibular ligament

Calcaneofibular ligament

128
Q

Which of the talofibular ligaments is least likely to tear?

A

Posterior talofibular ligament

129
Q

Inversion and eversion of the ankle occurs at which joints?

A

Talocalcaneonavicular joint

Talocalcaneal joint

130
Q

What ligament supports the longitudinal arch?

A

Spring ligament

131
Q

Which toe has sesamoid bones?

A

Big toe

132
Q

What does the orbicularis oculi muscle do?

A

Closes eye

133
Q

What muscle elevates, adducts and rotates eyeball medially?

A

Superior rectus

134
Q

What muscle depresses, adducts and rotates eyeball medially?

A

Inferior rectus

135
Q

What muscle abducts the eyeball?

A

Lateral rectus

136
Q

What muscle adducts the eyeball?

A

Medial rectus

137
Q

What muscle abducts, depresses and rotates eyeball medially?

A

Superior oblique

138
Q

What muscle abducts, elevates and rotates eyeball laterally?

A

Inferior oblique

139
Q

What muscle elevates the upper eyelid?

A

Levator palpebrae

140
Q

What eye muscles are innervated by CN iii?

A

Superior rectus

Inferior rectus

Medial rectus

Inferior oblique

Levator palpebrae

141
Q

What eye muscles are innervated by CN IV?

A

Superior oblique

142
Q

What muscles are innervated by CN VI?

A

Lateral rectus

143
Q

What 2 muscles open the mouth?

A

Digastric

Lateral pterygoid

144
Q

What 3 muscles close the mouth?

A

Temporalis

Masseter

Medial pterygoid

145
Q

What muscles make up the pillars of the fauces?

A

Palatoglossal

Palatopharyngeal

146
Q

What are the muscles of swallowing?

A

The constrictor group

147
Q

What nerves innervate swallowing?

A

CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) and CN X (Vagus)

148
Q

What do the intrinsic muscles of the tongue do?

A

Alter shape of tongue

149
Q

What muscle sticks tongue out?

A

Genioglossus

150
Q

What muscle pulls tongue back into mouth?

A

Styloglossus

151
Q

What muscle elevates tongue?

A

Palatoglossus

152
Q

What muscle depresses tongue?

A

Hyoglossus

153
Q

What does palatopharyngeus do?

A

It raises the tongue to the palate.

154
Q

Which of the muscles that moves the tongue is innervated by cnx (Vagus)?

A

Palatoglossus

155
Q

What nerve innervates most of the motor actions of the tongue?

A

CN XII (Hypoglossal nerve)

156
Q

What innervates touch of the ant. 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

157
Q

What innervates taste of ant. 2/3 of tongue?

A

CN VII (Facial nerve), chordatympani branch

158
Q

What innervates touch and taste for the post. 1/3 of tongue?

A

CN IX (glossopharangeal)

159
Q

What do tensor palati and levator palati do?

A

Raise and tauten the soft palate

160
Q

CN VII, the facial nerve, has partial inneration of which of the muscles of mastication?

A

Digastric

161
Q

What is the main nerve for muscles of mastication?

A

CN V3 (mandibular nerve)

162
Q

What does palatopharyngeus muscle do?

A

Depresses the soft palate

163
Q

Which muscle elevates the larynx?

A

Stylopharyngeus

164
Q

What does the salpingopharyngeus muscle do?

A

Opens the auditory tube

165
Q

What are the functions of the scm?

A

Rotation, flexion and lateral bending of the head/neck

166
Q

What muscles make up the supra hyoid group?

A

Stylohyoid

Digastric

Myolohyoid

Geniohyoid

167
Q

What muscles make up the infrahyoid group?

A

Sternohyoid

Sternothyroid

Thyrohyoid

Omohyoid

168
Q

What group of muscles depresses the larynx and hyoid bone?

A

Infrahyoids

169
Q

What group of muscles raises larynx and hyoid bone?

A

Suprahyoids

170
Q

Which muscles close the epiglottis?

A

Aryepiglottis

Thyroepiglottis

Oblique arytenoid

171
Q

Which muscles are involved in vocalization?

A

Posterior cricoarytenoid

Lateral cricoarytenoid

Arytenoid

172
Q

Which muscle lengthens and thus causes a lower pitch?

A

Cricothyroid

173
Q

What muscles shorten and thus cause a higher pitch?

A

Thyroarytenoid and vocalis

174
Q

What nerve innervates motor to the cricothyroid muscle?

A

Superior laryngeal nerve

175
Q

What nerve innervates to the remaining laryngeal muscles?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

176
Q

What muscle of the neck connects the cervical vertebrae?

A

Longus colli

177
Q

Which of the prevertebral muscles attach atlas to occiput?

A

Rectus capitis anterior

Rectus capitis lateralis

178
Q

What suboccipital muscles attach atlas to occiput?

A

Rectus capitis posterior minor

Superior oblique

179
Q

What suboccipital muscles attach axis to the occiput?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major

180
Q

What suboccipital muscle attaches atlas to axis?

A

Inferior oblique

181
Q

What muscles make erector spinae group?

A

Spinalis

Longissimus

Iliocostalis

182
Q

Which of the erector spinae is closest to the spine?

A

Spinalis

183
Q

What muscles make up the transversospinalis group?

A

Semispinalis

Multifidus

Rotatores

184
Q

What muscles flex the neck?

A

Longus colli

Longus capitis

Rectus capitis anterior

scm

185
Q

What muscles laterally flex the neck?

A

Rectus capitis lateralis

scm

186
Q

The brachial plexus emerges from which muscles?

A

Anterior and medial scalene

187
Q

What muscles raise the ribs causing inhalation?

A

External intercostals

188
Q

What muscles help with exhalation?

A

Internal intercostals

189
Q

What nerve innervates the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerve

190
Q

What forms the anterior border of the axilla?

A

Pectoralis major and minor

191
Q

What forms the posterior border of the axilla?

A

Subscapularis

Teres major

Latissimus dorsi

192
Q

What forms the medial wall of the axilla?

A

Serratus anterior

193
Q

What 3 muscles flex the humerus?

A

Pectoralis major

Deltoid

Coracobrachialis

194
Q

What 3 muscles extend the humerus?

A

Latissimus dorsi

Teres major

Deltoid

195
Q

What 2 muscles abduct the humerus?

A

Middle deltoid

Supraspinatus

196
Q

What 3 muscles adduct the humerus?

A

Pec major

Latissimus dorsi

Teres major

197
Q

What 3 muscles laterally rotate the humerus?

A

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

Posterior deltoid

198
Q

What 5 muscles medially rotate the humerus?

A

Pec major

Latissimus dorsi

Teres major

Subscapularis

Anterior deltoid

199
Q

What 4 muscles flex the forearm?

A

Biceps

Brachialis

Brachioradialis

Pronator teres

200
Q

What 2 muscles extend the forearm?

A

Triceps

Anconeus

201
Q

What 2 muscles pronate the forearm?

A

Pronator teres

Pronator quadratus

202
Q

What 2 muscles supinate the forearm?

A

Supinator

Biceps

203
Q

What action does serratus anterior produce?

A

Protraction and rotation of scapula

204
Q

What nerve passes over the anatomical snuff box?

A

The superficial radial nerve

205
Q

What makes up the Anatomical snuffbox?

A

Scaphoid, Abductor policis longus, Extensor policis longus, Radial artery (remember with the acronym saber)

206
Q

What innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand?

A

Ulnar nerve

207
Q

What are the muscles that give us a power grip?

A

Forearm flexors

208
Q

What nerve innervates the power grip muscles?

A

Median nerve

209
Q

Wrist drop will occur with damage to which nerve?

A

Radial nerve (nerve to all the wrist extensors)

210
Q

Damage to what nerve causes claw hand?

A

Ulnar nerve damage results in a loss of innervation to the interossei and lumbricals.

211
Q

Which fingers are most affected in a claw hand deformity?

A

The 4th and 5th

212
Q

Damage to what nerve causes Papal benediction?

A

Median nerve

213
Q

What provides the roof of the carpal tunnel?

A

Flexor retinaculum

214
Q

Do you get any loss of cutaneous sensation with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

No because the ulnar nerve and the cutaneous branch of the meidan nerve do not pass through the carpal tunnel

215
Q

What makes up the border of the tunnel of guyon?

A

Pisiform and hook of hamate

216
Q

What muscle elevates the testes?

A

Cremaster

217
Q

The inguinal ligament is the lower free edge of what muscle?

A

External oblique

218
Q

What muscles of the abdomen attach to the linea alba?

A

External oblique

Internal oblique

Transversus abdominis

219
Q

Which abdominal muscle flexes the spine?

A

Rectus abdominis

220
Q

The lowest tendinous fibers of transversus abdominis and internal oblique that attaches to the pubic crest and pectineal line is known as what?

A

Conjoint tendon

221
Q

What weakens to form a direct hernia?

A

Conjoint tendon

222
Q

What happens in an indirect hernia?

A

Protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal canal

223
Q

What muscle raises the pelvic floor, supports pelvic viscera and controls defecation via elevation of the anal canal?

A

Levator ani

224
Q

What attaches to the pubic bone?

A

Adductor group

Pectineus (Pectineal line) Gracilis

225
Q

What attaches to the ischial tuberosity?

A

Hamstrings

226
Q

What attaches to the axis?

A

Sartorius

Rectus femoris

tfl

227
Q

What forms the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Sartorius

Adductor longus

Inguinal ligament

228
Q

What forms the pes anserina?

A

Gracilis

Sartorius

Semitendinosus

229
Q

What attaches to the greater trochanter?

A

Piriformis

Obturator internus

Gamellus superior

Gamellus inferior

Gluteus Maximus, medius, minimus

230
Q

What muscles flex the knee?

A

Hamstrings

Gastrocnemius

231
Q

What muscles extend the knee?

A

Quadriceps

232
Q

What laterally rotates knee?

A

Biceps femoris

233
Q

What medially rotates the knee?

A

Semimembrinosus

Semitendinosus

234
Q

What attaches to the lesser trochanter?

A

Iliopsoas

235
Q

What attaches to the tibial tuberosity?

A

Rectus femoris

236
Q

What are the nine muscles that attach to the fibula?

A

Extensor hallucis longus

Extensor digitorum longus

Peroneus tertius

Peroneus longus

Peroneus brevis

Soleus

Flexor hallucis longus

Tibialis posterior

Biceps femoris

237
Q

What 3 muscles dorsiflex the foot? What is the innervation?

A

Tibialis Anterior

Extensor digitorum longus

Extensor hallucis longus

Innervated by the deep peroneal nerve

238
Q

What 2 muscles invert the foot?

A

Tibialis anterior: Deep peroneal nerve

Tibialis posterior: Tibial nerve

239
Q

What 3 muscles evert the foot?

A

Peroneus tertius: deep peroneal nerve

Peroneus longus: superficial peroneal nerve

Peroneus brevis: superficial peroneal nerve

240
Q

What 5 muscles plantarflex the foot? What is the innervation?

A

Gastrocnemius

Soleus

Tibialis posterior

Flexor digitorum longus

Flexor hallucis longus

Innervated by the tibial nerve

241
Q

What dorsiflexes the toes? What is the innervation?

A

Extensor digitorum brevis

Extensor hallucis brevis

Extensor hallucis longus

Innervated by the deep peroneal nerve

242
Q

What passes posterior to the lateral malleolus?

A

Peroneus longus tendon

Peroneus brevis tendon

243
Q

What passes posterior to the medial malleolus?

A

Tibial artery, vein and nerve

Tibialis posterior

Flexor digitorum longus tendon

Flexor hallucis longus tendon

244
Q

What are the two branches of the tibial nerve?

A

Medial plantar nerve

Lateral plantar nerve

245
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Flexors

A

Illiopsoas

Rectus femoris

Sartorius

1/2 of pectineus

Innervated by Femoral nerve

246
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Extensors

A

Gluteus maximus

Biceps femoris

Semitendinosus

Semimembranosus

Innervation by Sciatic nerve (exception: gluteus maximus is innervated by inferior gluteal nerve)

247
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Abductors

A

Gluteus medius

Gluteus minimus

T.F.L

Innervation by Sup. gluteal nerve

248
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Adductors

A

Pectineus

Gracilis

Adductor group: Longus, Magnus, Brevis

Innervation by Obturator nerve

249
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Medial rotators

A

T.F.L.

Gluteus minimus

Gluteus medius

Semi-membranosus

Semi-tendinosus

250
Q

Muscles and Actions of the Hip Movers - Lateral rotators

A

Gluteus maximus

Obturators

Gamellis

Quadriceps femoris

Piriformis

Iliopsoas

Sartorius

Part 1 (73 decks)

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