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CVSOH BVSc3 > JR Clinical biochemistry > Flashcards

JR Clinical biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What is a pink sample tube for?

A

EDTA - Haematology (cytology) - cells in fluid sample

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2
Q

What is a red sample tube for?

A

Plain serum biochemistry - no anticoagulant

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3
Q

What is an orange sample tube for?

A

Biochemistry with heparin - anticoagulant

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4
Q

What is a yellow tube for?

A

Oxalate fluoride

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5
Q

What is oxalate fluoride sample tube for?

A

Glucose analysis

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6
Q

What is a green sample tube for?

A

PT/aPTT - shows blood clotting times

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7
Q

What is a serum tube required for?

A

Bile acids
Haptoglobin
Serum protein electrophoresis

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8
Q

How does stress affect biochemistry samples?

A

Increased glucose in cats
Increased WBCs
Splenic contraction - increased PCV, HCT

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9
Q

What three things cause interference with spectrophotometric assays?

A

Haemolysis - red
Lipaema - turbidity/less clear
Icterus - yellow

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10
Q

What does spectrophotometry do (graph at bottom of blood results)?

A

Measures how much of an analyte there is in a sample

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11
Q

What two things make up total protein?

A

Albumin and globulin

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12
Q

What is used to estimate total protein?

A

Refractometer - measures total solids

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13
Q

Where is albumin synthesised?

A

Liver

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14
Q

What is albumins primary job?

A

Maintaining colloid oncotic pressure

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15
Q

What is commonly bound to albumin?

A

Calcium

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16
Q

What does acute phase proteins mean?

A

Proteins thats levels are affected by inflammation - some increase and some decrease

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17
Q

What type of acute phase protein is albumin?

A

Negative acute phase protein

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18
Q

What can cause hypoalbuminaemia?

A

Reduced production - liver dysfunction
GI disease - protein losing enteropathy
Kidney disease - protein losing nephropathy

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19
Q

What is panhypoproteinaemia?

A

When both albumin and globulin are low

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20
Q

What can cause panhypoproteinaemia?

A

Haemorrhage

Exudative disease eg. burns

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21
Q

What are globulins synthesised by?

A

Plasma B cells

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22
Q

What can cause hypoglobulinaemia?

A

Immune incompetence

Protein loss from haemorrhage etc.

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23
Q

What is more common - hypo or hyperglobulinaemia?

A

Hyperglobulinaemia

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24
Q

What is used to analyse hyperglobulinaemia?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis

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25
Q

What does a broad peak on serum protein electrophoresis mean?

A

Inflammatory response

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26
Q

What does a massive increase in gamma globulin normally mean on serum protein electrophoresis?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells

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27
Q

What is a positive acute phase protein in dogs?

A

C reactive protein

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28
Q

What is a positive acute phase protein in cats?

A

AGP

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29
Q

What is a positive acute phase protein in horses?

A

Serum amyloid A

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30
Q

What can cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Severe sepsis
Hepatic dysfunction - cant synthesise
Excess insulin - insulinoma neoplasma
Addisons (hypoadrenocorticism)
Iatrogenic

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31
Q

How do you tell the difference between transient and persistent hyperglycaemia?

A

Urine glucose

Frucosamine - glucose bound to albumin

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32
Q

What is the most common ketone?

A

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid (BHB)

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33
Q

How are ketones measured?

A

Dipstix - but not BHB

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34
Q

What ketones do dipstix measure?

A

Acetone and acetoacetate, not BHB

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35
Q

What are markers of lipolysis?

A

Non-esterified fatty acids

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36
Q

What can cause hyperlipidaemia?

A

Diet - obesity
Increased production/metabolism eg. diabetes increasing fat breakdown
Cholestasis

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37
Q

What are the main types of triglycerides?

A

Enterocytes - diet
Adipocytes - fat
Hepatocytes

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38
Q

What are some specific signs of liver disease?

A

Icterus
Coagulopathy
Ascites - fluid accumulation
Hepatic encephalopathy

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39
Q

What are the hepatocellular enzymes that indicate liver damage in dogs and cats?

A 
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
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40
Q

Where is ALT found?

A

Liver cytoplasm only

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41
Q

Where is AST found?

A

Mitochondrial - liver and muscles

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42
Q

What are the hepatocellular enzymes that indicate liver damage in large animals?

A 
Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
Glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH)
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43
Q

What are the two different reasons for elevated hepatocellular enzymes?

A

Primary liver disease

Secondary/reactive liver disease - inflammation elsewhere in body

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44
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

Impaired bile flow

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45
Q

What are the two cholestatic enzymes?

A 
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
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46
Q

Which cholestatic enzyme is more sensitive in large animals?

A

Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)

47
Q

What can affect cholestatic enzyme levels?

A

Cholestatic isoenzymes

48
Q

What can cause cholestatic enzyme elevations?

A

Disease of biliary tree
Endocrine diseases causing liver swelling
Steroids

49
Q

What are isoenzymes?

A

Enzymes that catalyse the same reaction but come from a different origin

50
Q

What produces bilirubin?

A

RBC breakdown

51
Q

What causes prehepatic jaundice?

A

Haemolysis

52
Q

What causes hepatic jaundice?

A

Liver damage, cant conjugate bilirubin

53
Q

What causes post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Cholestasis

54
Q

What is the main cause of jaundice in cattle?

A

Haemolysis

eg.babesia

55
Q

How can you tell if it is prehepatic jaundice?

A

If there is a low PCV due to regenerative anaemia

56
Q

How can you tell if it is hepatic jaundice?

A

Elevated hepatocellular enzymes

57
Q

How can you tell if it is post hepatic jaunice?

A

Elevated cholestatic enzymes

58
Q

What are bile acid/salts function?

A

Fat digestion/absorption

59
Q

What is used to make bile acids?

A

Cholesterol

60
Q

What amino acid is used to conjugate cholesterol into bile acids?

A

Taurine

61
Q

What does the bile acid tolerance test evaluate?

A

Bile acid levels in blood samples taken before and after a meal

62
Q

What are elevated bile acid levels a marker of?

A

Cholestasis
Hepatic dysfunction
Portosystemic shunt

63
Q

What is a marker of muscle damage?

A

Creatine kinase

64
Q

What test do you do for pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

65
Q

What does a negative SNAP PLI test mean?

A

Definitely doesnt have pancreatitis

66
Q

What does a positive SNAP PLI test mean?

A

Might have pancreatitis, do spec test to confirm

67
Q

What are B vitamins used to evaluate?

A

GI tract function

68
Q

Where is folate (vitamin B9) absorbed?

A

Proximal SI - jejunum

69
Q

Where is cobalamin (vitamin B12) absorbed?

A

Distal SI - ilium

70
Q

What do you need to absorb cobalamin/vitamin B12?

A

Intrinsic factor from the pancreas - exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

71
Q

What are some indicators of kidney injury?

A

PUPD
Metabolic acidosis - lose acid/base regulation
Uraemia/azotemia
Proteinuria

72
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Increased urea and/or increased creatinine in the blood

73
Q

What is uraemia?

A

Clinical syndrome arising from azotemia

74
Q

What causes pre renal azotemia?

A

Reduced renal perfusion - not enough blood pressure to filter in glomerulus

75
Q

What is a sign that it is pre-renal azotemia?

A

Azotemia with concentrated urine

76
Q

What causes renal azotemia?

A

Fewer functioning nephrons

77
Q

What is a sign that it is renal azotemia?

A

Azotemia with dilute urine (not enough nephrons to concentrate it)

78
Q

How many nephrons do the kidneys need to lose to become azotemic?

A

75% - high functional reserve capacity

79
Q

What causes a post-renal azotemia?

A

Obstruction or rupture of urinary tract

80
Q

How do you measure glomerular filtration rate in animals?

A

Urea levels - but can be influenced by diet

Creatine levels

81
Q

What happens to phosphates and potassium with renal disease?

A

Hyperphosphataemia and hyperkalaemia - are primarily renally excreted so accumilate

82
Q

What are some non sterile methods of urine collection?

A

Free catch
Non-absorbable cat litter
Catheterisation

83
Q

What is the only sterile method of urine collection?

A

Cystocentesis - needle into bladder

84
Q

What does glucosuria with hyperglycaemia mean?

A

Diabetes mellitus - high in both blood and urine

85
Q

What does glucosuria with normal blood glucose levels mean?

A

Problem with proximal tubule

86
Q

What does bilirubinuria suggest?

A

Normal in dogs

Abnormal in others

87
Q

What does ketonuria mean?

A

Diabetes mellitus

88
Q

How do you measure urine specific gravity?

A

Refractometer

89
Q

What does hypersthenuria mean?

A

Concentrated urine - specific gravity

90
Q

What does haemoglobinuria suggest?

A

Haemolysis

91
Q

What does heamuria suggest?

A

Primary urinary tract disease - bleeding

92
Q

What does proteinuria suggest?

A

Glomerular dysfunction

93
Q

What is abnormal in crystalluria?

A

Urates

Casts of tubule

94
Q

What is sodium responsible for in the body?

A

Preservation of electroneutrality - water retention/loss

95
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

Low sodium

96
Q

What can cause hyponatremia?

A

Los of Na+ - vomiting, renal disease etc.
Gain of water - drink too much etc.
Endogenous shifts - diabetes etc.

97
Q

What can cause hypernatremia?

A

Gain Na+ - salt from sea etc.

Loss of water - diabetes, GI losses, burns, not drinking enough

98
Q

What does the body produce in response to chronic sodium disturbance?

A

Idiogenic osmoles - prevent changes to cell swelling in CNS

99
Q

How do idiogenic osmoles affect treatment of sodium disturbances?

A

If acute - can treat quickly as havent had a chance to make them yet
If chronic - need to correct Na+ slowly

100
Q

What is chlorines job in the body?

A

Preserves electroneutrality - follows sodium

101
Q

What causes hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis?

A

Loss of other anions so Cl is retained to compensate

102
Q

What can cause hypo/hyperchloraemia?

A

Hypo/hypernatremia - follows sodium

103
Q

What can cause hypochloraemia without hyponatraemia?

A

Gain of other anions
Lactic acidosis
Ketoacidosis
Azotemia

104
Q

What can cause hyperchloraemia without hypernatremia?

A

Loss of other anions eg. bicarbonate
GI losses
Renal losses

105
Q

What effect does hyperkalaemia have on the body?

A

Cardiac problems - bradycardia, heart attack

106
Q

What effect does hypokalaemia have on the body?

A

Muscle weakness, lethargy

107
Q

What regulates potassium excretion in the kidney?

A

Aldosterone

108
Q

What does a low Na:K ratio (<20) indicate?

A

Addisons disease - hypoadrenocorticism

109
Q

What function does calcium have in the body?

A

Muscle contraction

Nerve conduction

110
Q

What electrolyte is linked to calcium?

A

Phosphates - same hormonal regulation

111
Q

What hormone increases calcium and phosphate levels?

A

Parathyroid hormone

112
Q

What hormone decreases calcium and phosphate levels?

A

Calcitonin

113
Q

What can cause an increase in calcium and a decrease in phosphate?

A

Cancer - produces PTHrp

114
Q

What can cause hypocalcaemia?

A

Lactation - milk fever
Sepsis
Pancreatitis

CVSOH BVSc3 (60 decks)

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